INI-CET 2017 - Internal Medicine PYQs Practice Questions

Q: A middle-aged woman with a history of backache who underwent a Schober test and tested positive, and who also has hyperpigmented nose and ears, is most likely diagnosed with:

Ochronosis. ***Ochronosis*** - **Hyperpigmentation of the nose and ears** (due to homogentisic acid accumulation) along with **backache** and a positive **Schober test** (indicating spinal inflexibility from ochronotic arthropathy) are classic features of ochronosis. - This inherited disorder results from a deficiency of **homogentisic acid oxidase**, leading to the accumulation of homogentisic acid. *Ankylosing spondylitis* - While **backache** and a positive **Schober test** (indicating axial skeleton involvement) are characteristic of ankylosing spondylitis, it does not typically present with **hyperpigmented nose and ears**. - **HLA-B27 positivity** and inflammatory back pain improving with activity are key differentiating features not mentioned. *Degenerative disc disease* - This condition is characterized by **chronic backache** due to age-related changes in the intervertebral discs but does not cause **hyperpigmentation of the nose and ears**. - A **positive Schober test** is less specific for degenerative disc disease and is more indicative of widespread spinal stiffness. *Fluorosis* - While severe fluorosis can lead to **skeletal changes** and pain mimicking arthritis, it is primarily associated with **dental mottling** and does not cause characteristic hyperpigmentation of the nose and ears. - มัน usually results from excessive fluoride intake, often from contaminated drinking water. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Comment on the diagnosis of the image shown below. (AIIMS Nov 2017)

Hypothyroidism. ***Hypothyroidism*** - The image depicts **myxoedema**, characterized by localized, non-pitting edema and thickened skin, typically on the shins, which is a classic manifestation of severe **hypothyroidism**. - This condition results from the accumulation of **hyaluronic acid** and chondroitin sulfate in the dermis, causing a characteristic doughy texture. *Hyperthyroidism* - While hyperthyroidism (specifically Graves' disease) can cause **pretibial myxoedema**, the image alone showing generalized myxoedematous changes is more indicative of **hypothyroidism**. - Pretibial myxoedema associated with hyperthyroidism typically presents as elevated, firm, non-pitting plaques, whereas the image shows a more widespread thickening. *Sarcoidosis* - Sarcoidosis involves the formation of **non-caseating granulomas** in various organs, including the skin. - Skin manifestations of sarcoidosis can include **erythema nodosum**, plaques, or lupus pernio, which do not match the generalized thickening seen in the image. *Diabetes* - Diabetes mellitus can cause various skin manifestations such as **diabetic dermopathy**, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum, and acanthosis nigricans. - These conditions present with different visual characteristics, like hyperpigmented atrophic macules or waxy yellow plaques, unlike the diffuse thickening shown. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A middle-aged patient presents with history of left sided weakness for 2 days. Currently the patient is extremely drowsy and underwent a NCCT brain. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient? (AIIMS Nov 2017)

Decompressive surgery. ***Decompressive surgery*** - The NCCT image shows a **large, well-demarcated hypodensity in the right cerebral hemisphere**, characteristic of a **subacute to chronic ischemic infarct with significant edema and mass effect**. This is evidenced by the effaced sulci, compressed ventricles on the right, and likely midline shift, causing the patient's **drowsiness** and **left-sided weakness**. - Given the patient's **drowsiness** (indicating rising intracranial pressure) and significant mass effect from the large infarct, **decompressive craniectomy** is often a life-saving measure to reduce intractable intracranial pressure and prevent further herniation in cases of malignant middle cerebral artery (MCA) infarction. *Aspirin/Clopidogrel* - These are **antiplatelet medications used for secondary stroke prevention** after an acute ischemic event. - They are not the primary treatment for an **existing large infarct with mass effect and neurological deterioration** (drowsiness), as they do not address the acute intracranial pressure. *Mechanical thrombectomy* - This procedure is indicated for **acute ischemic stroke due to large vessel occlusion**, typically performed within a very narrow time window (usually up to 6-24 hours) from symptom onset. - The patient presents two days after symptom onset, and the CT findings suggest a **subacute to chronic infarct that has completed evolution**, making thrombectomy ineffective and potentially harmful. *Mannitol* - Mannitol is an **osmotic diuretic used to acutely reduce intracranial pressure (ICP)** in situations like cerebral edema. - While it can provide temporary relief, it is often insufficient for profound edema and mass effect from a **large, evolving infarct** that is causing significant neurological decline (drowsiness), and it does not treat the underlying structural issue. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A 50-year-old man presents with frontal bossing, enlarged tongue and following appearance of hand. Which of the following tests should be done in this patient?

Insulin like growth factor. ***Insulin like growth factor*** - The patient's symptoms of **frontal bossing**, **enlarged tongue (macroglossia)**, and the image showing an **enlarged hand** (suggestive of **acral enlargement**) are classic features of **acromegaly**. - **Insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1)** is the best screening test for acromegaly because its levels are stable throughout the day and reflect integrated GH secretion; elevated IGF-1 is indicative of the condition. *Thyroid hormone assay* - This test measures **thyroid function** and is primarily used to diagnose conditions like **hypothyroidism** or **hyperthyroidism**. - While some symptoms of thyroid disorders can overlap with other conditions, the specific constellation of **acral enlargement**, **macroglossia**, and **frontal bossing** is not typical for thyroid dysfunction. *Serum prolactin* - **Serum prolactin** is primarily used to assess for **hyperprolactinemia**, which can cause symptoms like **galactorrhea** or **hypogonadism**. - While a **prolactinoma** (a pituitary tumor secreting prolactin) can sometimes coexist with a **growth hormone-secreting tumor**, prolactin itself is not the direct cause of acromegalic features, and its assay is not the initial diagnostic test for acromegaly. *Serum Testosterone* - **Serum testosterone** levels are assessed in cases of suspected **hypogonadism** or other **androgen-related disorders**. - The clinical presentation with **acral enlargement** and **facial changes** is not characteristic of testosterone deficiency or excess. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Identify the sleep stage in the following Polysomnograph.

NREM stage 2. ***NREM stage 2*** - The **EEG** shows prominent **sleep spindles** (bursts of 12-14 Hz waves) and **K-complexes** (high-amplitude biphasic waves), which are characteristic features of NREM stage 2 sleep. - The EOG channels indicate slow eye movements or an absence of rapid eye movements, consistent with NREM sleep, while the **EMG shows moderate muscle tone**, higher than in REM sleep but lower than wakefulness. *NREM stage 3* - This stage is characterized by **delta waves**, which are slow waves with high amplitude (0.5-2 Hz, often >75 μV) on the EEG, comprising 20% or more of the epoch, and are not significantly visible here. - While muscle tone is still present, the EEG would primarily show widespread **slow-wave activity**, distinguishing it from the sleep spindles and K-complexes seen in the image. *REM* - **Rapid eye movements** would be clearly visible on the EOG channels, which are not prevalent in this polysomnograph. - The **EMG would show very low muscle tone** (atonia), which is not the case here, and the EEG would largely consist of low-voltage, mixed-frequency activity, similar to wakefulness. *NREM stage 1* - This stage is typically characterized by a **disappearance of alpha waves** from the EEG and the presence of **theta waves** (4-7 Hz). - While there may be slow eye movements on the EOG, **sleep spindles and K-complexes are absent** in NREM stage 1, making it distinct from the presented polysomnograph. [Practice more Internal Medicine PYQs on OnCourse]

Question 1

A middle-aged woman with a history of backache who underwent a Schober test and tested positive, and who also has hyperpigmented nose and ears, is most likely diagnosed with:

Accepted Answer

Ochronosis

Answer

Ankylosing spondylitis

Answer

Degenerative disc disease

Answer

Fluorosis

Question 2

Comment on the diagnosis of the image shown below. (AIIMS Nov 2017)

Accepted Answer

Hypothyroidism

Answer

Hyperthyroidism

Answer

Sarcoidosis

Answer

Diabetes

Question 3

A middle-aged patient presents with history of left sided weakness for 2 days. Currently the patient is extremely drowsy and underwent a NCCT brain. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient? (AIIMS Nov 2017)

Accepted Answer

Decompressive surgery

Answer

Aspirin/Clopidogrel

Answer

Mechanical thrombectomy

Answer

Mannitol

Question 4

A 50-year-old man presents with frontal bossing, enlarged tongue and following appearance of hand. Which of the following tests should be done in this patient?

Accepted Answer

Insulin like growth factor

Answer

Thyroid hormone assay

Answer

Serum prolactin

Answer

Serum Testosterone

Question 5

Identify the sleep stage in the following Polysomnograph.

Accepted Answer

NREM stage 2

Answer

NREM stage 3

Answer

REM

Answer

NREM stage 1

Question 6

A patient has the following presentation. After administration of an intravenous drug to the patient, in 6 minutes his symptoms have resolved. The diagnosis of the patient is:

Accepted Answer

Myasthenia gravis

Answer

Sixth nerve palsy

Answer

Third nerve palsy

Answer

Tolosa-Hunt syndrome

Question 7

Which is not true regarding the procedure done with the needle shown below?

Accepted Answer

Breath holding is not necessary

Answer

Bevel should be facing upwards while inserting the needle

Answer

To be done in lateral recumbent position

Answer

Coagulopathy is not an absolute contraindication

INI-CET 2017 — Internal Medicine