One Health Approach — MCQs
Which of the following is NOT a core component of the WHO's global STI control strategy?
Which of the following diseases has the largest submerged portion in the iceberg model of disease?
Cholera is caused by?
Which of the following is the true statement regarding measures to prevent typhoid transmission in the community?
WHO definition of health does not include?
IMCI approach developed by WHO encompasses the following childhood illnesses Except
Which of the following diseases is not covered under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP)?
Which disease was removed from active WHO surveillance requirements following its global eradication?
A child has received full rabies vaccination in December 2023 and now presented with an oozing wound on the great toe and the pet was also vaccinated. Next line of management is
Which organism does not require a vector for transmission?
One Health Approach Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT a core component of the WHO's global STI control strategy?
- A. Case management
- B. Universal mandatory screening (Correct Answer)
- C. Strategic information systems
- D. Prevention services
Explanation: ***Universal mandatory screening*** - While screening is part of STI control, **universal mandatory screening** for all STIs in the general population is not a core component of the WHO's strategy due to feasibility, cost, and ethical considerations. - The strategy emphasizes **targeted screening** for at-risk populations and opportunistic screening. *Case management* - **Case management**, including accurate diagnosis and effective treatment, is a critical component for managing current infections and preventing further transmission. - This involves syndromic or etiologic approaches to treatment and partner notification. *Strategic information systems* - **Strategic information systems** are essential for monitoring trends, evaluating interventions, and informing policy decisions related to STI control. - This includes surveillance data, program monitoring, and research. *Prevention services* - **Prevention services** are a cornerstone of the WHO's strategy, aiming to reduce the incidence of new infections. - These services encompass health education, condom promotion and distribution, vaccination, and pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP).
Question 2: Which of the following diseases has the largest submerged portion in the iceberg model of disease?
- A. Influenza (Correct Answer)
- B. Chickenpox
- C. Tetanus
- D. Rabies
Explanation: **The Iceberg Model of Disease** represents the concept that for many diseases, only a small portion of cases (the "tip" above water) are clinically apparent and reported, while a much larger portion (the "submerged" part) consists of asymptomatic, subclinical, or undiagnosed cases. ***Influenza*** - Has the **largest submerged portion** among the given options, with **50-75% of infections being asymptomatic or mild** and going undiagnosed - High transmissibility and varied clinical presentation contribute to significant hidden burden - Only severe cases requiring hospitalization typically get reported, representing just the "tip of the iceberg" - Classic example of diseases with large subclinical-to-clinical ratio *Chickenpox* - Most cases are **clinically apparent** with characteristic vesicular rash - Asymptomatic infections are rare due to distinctive clinical features - High visibility of cases reduces the submerged portion significantly *Tetanus* - **Severe, acute neurological condition** with distinct clinical manifestations (trismus, risus sardonicus, opisthotonus) - Almost all cases are diagnosed due to dramatic presentation - Virtually no submerged portion - what exists clinically is recognized *Rabies* - **Nearly uniformly fatal** once symptoms appear, making all symptomatic cases clinically evident - No asymptomatic or mild phase after symptom onset - Minimal to no submerged portion in the iceberg model
Question 3: Cholera is caused by?
- A. Enterococcus
- B. E.coli
- C. Vibrio cholerae O1 (Correct Answer)
- D. Vibrio parahemolyticus
Explanation: ***Vibrio cholerae O1*** - **Cholera** is primarily caused by **toxigenic strains** of *Vibrio cholerae*, with serogroup **O1** being the most common and historically significant cause of epidemics and pandemics. - This bacterium produces **cholera toxin**, which leads to profuse watery diarrhea by acting on the intestinal epithelial cells. *Enterococcus* - **Enterococcus** species are common inhabitants of the human gastrointestinal tract and are often associated with **nosocomial infections**, such as urinary tract infections, endocarditis, and bacteremia. - They do not typically cause the severe, watery diarrhea characteristic of cholera. *Vibrio parahemolyticus* - *Vibrio parahemolyticus* is a common cause of **foodborne illness**, particularly associated with consuming **raw or undercooked seafood**. - It causes a form of gastroenteritis characterized by abdominal pain, watery diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and fever, but it is distinct from cholera. *E.coli* - While various strains of **Escherichia coli (E. coli)** can cause diarrheal diseases (e.g., enterotoxigenic *E. coli* causing traveler's diarrhea, enterohemorrhagic *E. coli* causing bloody diarrhea), **E. coli** is not the causative agent of cholera. - The pathogenesis and specific toxins produced differ significantly from those of *Vibrio cholerae*.
Question 4: Which of the following is the true statement regarding measures to prevent typhoid transmission in the community?
- A. Typhoid vaccine administration is the best method of preventing transmission.
- B. Person-to-person transmission is the primary mode of spread.
- C. Drug resistance in typhoid is not as big a problem as in TB.
- D. Hygiene practice and clean sanitation control are more important than the typhoid vaccine. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hygiene practice and clean sanitation control is more important than the typhoid vaccine.*** - **Improved sanitation**, safe water supplies, and adequate hygiene practices are fundamental in controlling the spread of **typhoid fever**, as the disease is primarily transmitted through the **oral-fecal route**. - While vaccines are an important tool, they offer only partial protection and must be combined with **robust public health infrastructure** and **sanitation measures** for effective prevention. *Typhoid vaccine administration is the best method of preventing transmission.* - Typhoid vaccines offer protection, but their effectiveness is not 100%, and they typically require **booster doses** - **Vaccination campaigns** are most effective when implemented alongside improvements in **water and sanitation infrastructure**, as vaccines alone cannot fully prevent transmission in areas with poor hygiene. *Person-to-person transmission is the primary mode of spread.* - While person-to-person transmission can occur, especially in settings with poor hygiene, the primary mode of spread for typhoid is through the **ingestion of food or water contaminated** with the feces of an infected person or carrier. - This emphasizes the crucial role of **water and food safety** rather than just focusing on direct person-to-person contact. *Drug resistance in typhoid is not as big a problem as in TB.* - **Antimicrobial resistance (AMR)** in typhoid fever, particularly to fluoroquinolones and extended-spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) producing strains, is a **significant and growing global health concern**, complicating treatment. - While TB also faces serious drug resistance issues, the escalating problem of **extensively drug-resistant (XDR)** and **multi-drug resistant (MDR)** typhoid strains makes it a substantial threat, impacting treatment options and increasing morbidity and mortality.
Question 5: WHO definition of health does not include?
- A. Physical health
- B. Mental health
- C. Environmental health (Correct Answer)
- D. Social health
Explanation: ***Environmental health*** - The **WHO definition of health** (1948) famously defines health as "a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity." - While environmental factors are crucial for health, the term **"environmental health"** is not explicitly listed as one of the core components in this specific definition. *Physical health* - This is an integral part of the **WHO definition**, referring to the overall condition of the body and its proper functioning. - It encompasses bodily integrity and the absence of **physical disease or disability**. *Mental health* - This is a key component of the **WHO definition**, emphasizing a state of well-being where an individual realizes his or her own abilities, can cope with the normal stresses of life, can work productively, and is able to make a contribution to his or her community. - It covers both **psychological** and **emotional well-being**. *Social health* - This is explicitly included in the **WHO definition**, referring to the ability to form meaningful relationships with others and adapt to social situations. - It involves the capacity to **interact successfully** within social settings and actively participate in the community.
Question 6: IMCI approach developed by WHO encompasses the following childhood illnesses Except
- A. Measles
- B. Malaria
- C. Diarrhoea
- D. Chicken pox (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Chicken pox*** - The **Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI)** strategy focuses on major causes of childhood morbidity and mortality in developing countries. - **Chickenpox** is generally a self-limiting viral illness in otherwise healthy children and is not a primary focus of the IMCI guidelines for acute management. *Measles* - **Measles** is a highly contagious and potentially severe childhood illness that is explicitly covered in the IMCI guidelines. - Due to its high morbidity and mortality rates, especially in malnourished children, IMCI includes guidance on its recognition, classification, and management. *Malaria* - **Malaria** is a leading cause of childhood death in many endemic regions and is a core component of the IMCI strategy. - IMCI provides clear algorithms for the assessment, classification, and treatment of malaria, particularly in children under five. *Diarrhoea* - **Diarrhoea** is one of the most common causes of illness and death in young children, making it a critical disease addressed by the IMCI approach. - IMCI includes detailed protocols for assessing dehydration, classifying the severity of diarrhoea, and guiding treatment.
Question 7: Which of the following diseases is not covered under the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP)?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Cholera
- C. Herpes zoster (Correct Answer)
- D. Meningococcal disease
Explanation: ***Herpes zoster*** - **Herpes zoster** (shingles) is not included in the Integrated Disease Surveillance Project (IDSP) as it is neither an epidemic-prone disease nor a notifiable disease under the program. - IDSP focuses on diseases with significant public health impact, epidemic potential, or those requiring immediate public health response. - While herpes zoster can cause morbidity in immunocompromised individuals, it does not pose a widespread public health threat requiring national surveillance. *Tuberculosis* - **Tuberculosis (TB)** is explicitly covered under IDSP as a major notifiable disease due to its high burden in India and significant public health importance. - TB surveillance under IDSP helps monitor disease trends, detect outbreaks, and evaluate the effectiveness of the National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme. - Regular reporting and surveillance are essential for achieving TB elimination goals. *Cholera* - **Cholera** is a priority disease under IDSP as an epidemic-prone disease with potential for rapid outbreaks and high mortality if untreated. - It is part of the core surveillance list due to its ability to cause severe dehydration and waterborne epidemics. - Early detection through IDSP enables timely implementation of control measures including safe water supply and oral rehydration therapy. *Meningococcal disease* - **Meningococcal disease** (acute bacterial meningitis) is covered under IDSP due to its high case fatality rate, epidemic potential, and need for urgent public health response. - Surveillance is critical for early outbreak detection and implementation of preventive measures such as mass vaccination and chemoprophylaxis. - Close monitoring helps identify circulating serotypes and guide vaccination strategies.
Question 8: Which disease was removed from active WHO surveillance requirements following its global eradication?
- A. Guinea worm
- B. Typhoid
- C. HIV/AIDS
- D. Smallpox (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Smallpox*** - Smallpox was **globally eradicated** in 1980 through a concerted vaccination effort, making it the first human disease eradicated. - Due to its eradication, it has been **removed from active WHO surveillance requirements** as it no longer poses a threat to public health. *Guinea worm* - While significant progress has been made in Guinea worm eradication, it has **not yet been fully eradicated**, with a few endemic areas remaining. - It is currently still subject to **active surveillance efforts** by the WHO to monitor progress towards elimination. *Typhoid* - Typhoid is caused by *Salmonella Typhi* and remains a significant public health issue, especially in areas with poor sanitation. - It is a **notifiable disease** and continuously monitored by the WHO and national health agencies, especially with concerns about **antimicrobial resistance**. *HIV/AIDS* - HIV/AIDS is a **global pandemic** with ongoing high prevalence and incidence rates worldwide, particularly in certain regions. - It is under **intensive surveillance and control programs** by the WHO, given its significant global health burden and lack of a definitive cure or vaccine for complete eradication.
Question 9: A child has received full rabies vaccination in December 2023 and now presented with an oozing wound on the great toe and the pet was also vaccinated. Next line of management is
- A. RIG + 5 doses of vaccine
- B. 5 doses of vaccines only
- C. No vaccine required
- D. 2 doses of Rabies vaccine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***2 doses of Rabies vaccine*** - For individuals who have received **previous full rabies vaccination** (either pre-exposure or post-exposure prophylaxis), a subsequent exposure requires only **two booster doses of vaccine on days 0 and 3**, regardless of wound category. - Even though this is a **Category III exposure** (oozing wound with break in skin), **no RIG is required** for previously immunized individuals as per WHO and APCRI guidelines. - The pre-existing immunity from the prior vaccination provides a **rapid anamnestic (memory) response**, eliminating the need for passive immunization or a full primary series. *RIG + 5 doses of vaccine* - This regimen is for individuals with **no prior vaccination history** and represents the full post-exposure prophylaxis for Category III exposures (transdermal bites, oozing wounds). - The child has been previously vaccinated, rendering this extensive protocol unnecessary and potentially harmful due to **immune complex formation** if RIG is given to an immune individual. *5 doses of vaccines only* - This approach is suitable for **previously unvaccinated individuals** with Category II exposure (nibbling, minor scratches without bleeding) where RIG may not be available. - However, in a previously vaccinated individual, the full 5-dose series is **excessive and not indicated** as immunity is already established. *No vaccine required* - Even with a previously vaccinated child and a vaccinated pet, there is still a **potential risk of exposure** to rabies, especially with a Category III wound (oozing wound). - Omitting vaccination entirely would be **negligent** and violates standard guidelines, as vaccine efficacy is not 100% and animal vaccination status can be uncertain or lapsed.
Question 10: Which organism does not require a vector for transmission?
- A. Rickettsia rickettsii
- B. Borrelia recurrentis
- C. Rickettsia prowazekii
- D. Coxiella burnetii (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Coxiella burnetii*** - This organism causes **Q fever** and does not require an arthropod vector; it is primarily transmitted via **aerosols** from infected animals. - Humans usually acquire the infection by inhaling **contaminated aerosols** from infected livestock (cattle, sheep, goats). *Rickettsia prowazekii* - This bacterium is the causative agent of **epidemic typhus** and is transmitted by the **human body louse** (*Pediculus humanus corporis*). - The louse acts as a **biological vector**, acquiring the organism from an infected human and transmitting it through its feces, which are then scratched into the skin. *Rickettsia rickettsii* - This organism causes **Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF)** and is transmitted by **ticks**, primarily the American dog tick (*Dermacentor variabilis*) and the Rocky Mountain wood tick (*Dermacentor andersoni*). - Ticks serve as both **vectors** and **reservoirs** for *Rickettsia rickettsii*. *Borrelia recurrentis* - This spirochete causes **louse-borne relapsing fever** and is transmitted by the **human body louse** (*Pediculus humanus corporis*). - Transmission occurs when the louse is crushed and its hemolymph, containing the bacteria, comes into contact with broken skin or mucous membranes.
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