Bacteriology — MCQs

Bacteriology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 2381: Bartonella quintana causes:

A. Trench fever (Correct Answer)
B. Scrub typhus
C. Epidemic typhus
D. Endemic typhus

Explanation: ***Trench fever*** - **Bartonella quintana** is the causative agent of **trench fever**, a louse-borne disease historically common during wartime. - Symptoms include **recurrent fevers**, headache, bone pain (especially in the shins), and rash. *Scrub typhus* - Scrub typhus is caused by **Orientia tsutsugamushi**, a rickettsial bacterium, not Bartonella. - It is transmitted by **chiggers** and characterized by a rash, fever, and eschar at the bite site. *Epidemic typhus* - Epidemic typhus is caused by **Rickettsia prowazekii** and is also louse-borne. - It presents with sudden high fever, severe headache, and a maculopapular rash that spares the face, palms, and soles. *Endemic typhus* - Endemic typhus (murine typhus) is caused by **Rickettsia typhi** and is transmitted by **rat fleas**. - Its symptoms are generally milder than epidemic typhus, including fever, headache, and a truncal rash.

Question 2382: Granulomatosis infantiseptica is caused by:

A. Pseudomonas
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Group D streptococci
D. Listeria (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Listeria*** - **Granulomatosis infantiseptica** is a severe manifestation of congenital **listeriosis**, caused by *Listeria monocytogenes*. - This condition is characterized by widespread **granulomas** and **microabscesses** in various organs of the infected newborn. *Pseudomonas* - *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* is a common cause of healthcare-associated infections but is not typically associated with **granulomatosis infantiseptica**. - It can cause severe infections in immunocompromised individuals, including **pneumonia**, **sepsis**, and wound infections. *Chlamydia trachomatis* - *Chlamydia trachomatis* is a common cause of **conjunctivitis** and **pneumonia** in neonates, acquired during passage through the birth canal. - It does not cause **granulomatosis infantiseptica**. *Group D streptococci* - While Group D streptococci (e.g., *Enterococcus faecalis*) can cause neonatal infections like **sepsis** and **meningitis**, they are not the causative agents of **granulomatosis infantiseptica**. - This condition is specifically linked to **Listeria**.

Question 2383: Oil paint appearance on nutrient agar is seen in -

A. Staphylococcus aureus (Correct Answer)
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. H. influenzae

Explanation: ***Staphylococcus aureus*** - *Staphylococcus aureus* forms characteristic **golden-yellow, smooth, opaque colonies** on nutrient agar with a **buttery or creamy consistency** - Some texts describe this appearance as **"oil paint-like"** due to the pigmented, smooth, and glistening surface that can resemble brushed paint - Colonies are typically **2-4 mm in diameter**, round, and show **golden pigmentation** (due to carotenoid pigments) - On **blood agar**, *S. aureus* shows **beta-hemolysis** with golden colonies *Streptococcus pyogenes* - *Streptococcus pyogenes* grows poorly on plain nutrient agar and requires **enriched media** like blood agar - On blood agar, it forms **small, translucent, grey-white colonies** surrounded by a wide zone of **beta-hemolysis** - Colonies are typically **pinpoint** in size and do not show pigmentation *Bordetella pertussis* - *Bordetella pertussis* is a **fastidious organism** that does **not grow on plain nutrient agar** - Requires specialized enriched media like **Bordet-Gengou agar** (with potato-glycerol-blood) or **Regan-Lowe agar** - On Bordet-Gengou agar, colonies appear as **small, smooth, pearl-like** or **"mercury droplet"** colonies after 3-7 days *H. influenzae* - *Haemophilus influenzae* is also fastidious and requires **X factor (hemin)** and **V factor (NAD)** for growth - Does **not grow on plain nutrient agar** - On **chocolate agar**, forms **small, smooth, translucent, greyish colonies** with a characteristic musty odor - Colonies are typically **1-2 mm** in diameter

Question 2384: Which of the following statements is NOT true about the El Tor biotype of Vibrio cholerae?

A. VP (+)
B. Lower mortality
C. Reduced environmental persistence (Correct Answer)
D. Hemolysis negative

Explanation: ***Reduced environmental persistence*** - The **El Tor biotype** of *Vibrio cholerae* is known for its **increased environmental persistence** compared to the classical biotype, making this statement NOT true. - El Tor survives longer in water sources due to its hardiness and ability to form biofilms, which contributes to its pandemic potential and makes outbreaks harder to control. *VP (+)* - The El Tor biotype is **Voges-Proskauer (VP) positive**, which is a key biochemical characteristic used to differentiate it from the classical biotype (VP negative). - This is a TRUE statement about El Tor. *Lower mortality* - The El Tor biotype causes **milder disease with lower mortality rates** compared to the classical biotype. - While individual cases may be less severe, the higher infectivity and asymptomatic carriage of El Tor contribute to its widespread transmission - this is a TRUE statement. *Hemolysis negative* - The El Tor biotype is **hemolysis positive** (produces beta-hemolysis on sheep blood agar), which is another key differentiating feature from the classical biotype (hemolysis negative). - This makes the statement "hemolysis negative" NOT true about El Tor.

Question 2385: Which of the following statements about Chromobacterium violaceum is false?

A. Normal flora in human (Correct Answer)
B. Gram negative
C. Causes cellulitis
D. Produces violet-colored pigment

Explanation: **This question asks for the FALSE statement about *Chromobacterium violaceum*.** ***Normal flora in human*** ✓ (FALSE STATEMENT - This is the correct answer) - *Chromobacterium violaceum* is **not considered normal flora** in humans. It is an environmental bacterium typically found in **soil and water** in tropical and subtropical regions. - Its presence in humans usually signifies a serious **opportunistic infection**, often resulting from exposure to contaminated environments. - Since this statement is FALSE, this is the correct answer. *Gram negative* (TRUE statement) - *Chromobacterium violaceum* is indeed a **Gram-negative bacterium**. This characteristic is crucial for its identification and determining appropriate antibiotic treatment. - Like other Gram-negative bacteria, it possesses an **outer membrane** containing lipopolysaccharide (LPS). *Causes cellulitis* (TRUE statement) - *Chromobacterium violaceum* can cause severe infections in humans, including **cellulitis**, often following skin breaches like cuts or abrasions. - The infections are frequently aggressive and can lead to systemic disease such as **sepsis and abscess formation**. *Produces violet-colored pigment* (TRUE statement) - *Chromobacterium violaceum* is notable for producing **violacein**, a distinctive **violet-colored pigment**. - This pigment production is a key identifying feature on culture media and is associated with some of its pathogenic properties.

Question 2386: What is the most common age group affected by Streptococcus pyogenes?

A. 30-40 years
B. <5 years
C. 5-15 years (Correct Answer)
D. 20-25 years

Explanation: ***5-15 years*** - **Streptococcus pyogenes** (Group A Strep) commonly causes **pharyngitis** (strep throat), which primarily affects school-aged children. - This age group is more susceptible due to increased exposure in school and daycare settings. *<5 years* - While younger children can get strep infections, it is less common in those under **3 years of age**, as viral etiologies are more prevalent for pharyngitis in this group. - They are more prone to **non-streptococcal bacterial infections** and certain viral infections. *20-25 years* - Although adults can get **Streptococcus pyogenes** infections, the incidence significantly decreases after childhood. - Pharyngitis in this age group is more often **viral** in origin. *30-40 years* - The prevalence of **Streptococcus pyogenes** infections, particularly pharyngitis, is typically low in this age group compared to children. - Infections, if they occur, may stem from exposure to infected children or close contact environments.

Question 2387: Which of the following is NOT true about Corynebacterium hofmannii?

A. Commonly found in the normal flora of the throat
B. A diphtheroid
C. Non-pathogenic saprophyte
D. Toxigenic (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Toxigenic*** - *Corynebacterium hofmannii* is a **non-toxigenic** species and does not produce **diphtheria toxin**, unlike *C. diphtheriae*. - Its clinical significance primarily relates to its potential role in opportunistic infections, not toxin-mediated diseases. - This is the **correct answer** as C. hofmannii being toxigenic is NOT true. *A diphtheroid* - **Diphtheroid** refers to gram-positive, rod-shaped bacteria morphologically similar to *Corynebacterium diphtheriae*. - *C. hofmannii* fits this description due to its characteristic morphology and belongs to the Corynebacterium genus. - This statement is TRUE. *Non-pathogenic saprophyte* - *C. hofmannii* is commonly found as a **commensal organism** on human skin and mucous membranes as part of normal flora. - While generally non-pathogenic, it can cause opportunistic infections in immunocompromised individuals. - This statement is TRUE. *Commonly found in the normal flora of the throat* - *C. hofmannii* is indeed found as part of the **normal respiratory tract flora**, including the throat and upper respiratory passages. - It is a common colonizer and generally harmless commensal. - This statement is TRUE.

Question 2388: Which of the following statements about Corynebacterium diphtheriae is true?

A. All strains produce toxin
B. Toxin production is dependent on iron concentration (Correct Answer)
C. The toxin is heat stable
D. It inhibits cAMP

Explanation: ***Toxin production is dependent on iron concentration*** - The production of **diphtheria toxin** by *Corynebacterium diphtheriae* is directly regulated by the iron concentration in the environment. - When **iron levels are low**, the diphtheria toxin repressor (DTxR) is inactivated, leading to increased toxin production. *All strains produce toxin* - Not all strains of *Corynebacterium diphtheriae* produce the diphtheria toxin; only those strains that are **lysogenized by a bacteriophage carrying the tox gene** are toxigenic. - Non-toxigenic strains can cause other infections but do not produce the classic diphtheria disease. *The toxin is heat stable* - The **diphtheria toxin** is a **heat-labile** protein, meaning its activity can be destroyed by heat. - Heating diphtheria toxin to 60°C for 30 minutes can inactivate its pathogenic effects. *It inhibits cAMP* - The diphtheria toxin does not inhibit **cAMP**; instead, it acts by **ADP-ribosylating and inactivating elongation factor-2 (EF-2)**, thereby inhibiting protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells. - Inhibition of EF-2 ultimately leads to cell death.

Question 2389: Which of the following is a non-motile bacterium?

A. Clostridium perfringens (Correct Answer)
B. Vibrio
C. Legionella
D. Clostridium septicum

Explanation: ***Clostridium perfringens*** - *Clostridium perfringens* is unique among the *Clostridium* species for being **non-motile**, lacking flagella. - This immotility distinguishes it from other closely related bacteria and is an important characteristic in its identification. *Vibrio* - *Vibrio* species are **highly motile**, possessing a single **polar flagellum** that enables rapid movement in liquid environments. - Their motility is crucial for their survival and pathogenesis, particularly in aquatic habitats and the human intestine. *Legionella* - *Legionella* species, including *Legionella pneumophila*, are **motile** by means of one or more **polar flagella**. - Their motility is important for disseminating within water systems and for infecting macrophages. *Clostridium septicum* - *Clostridium septicum* is a **motile** bacterium, possessing **peritrichous flagella** that allow it to move through tissues. - Its motility contributes to its ability to spread rapidly in infected hosts, often causing severe gas gangrene.

Question 2390: Most common site for Staphylococcus carriage?

A. Skin
B. Nose (Correct Answer)
C. Oropharynx
D. Perineum

Explanation: ***Nose*** - The **anterior nares** are the most common site for **Staphylococcus aureus** colonization in healthy individuals. - Nasal carriage is a significant risk factor for subsequent **Staphylococcus aureus infections**, both self-acquired and transmitted to others. *Skin* - While Staphylococcus aureus can colonize the skin, especially in areas like the axillae and groin, it is **less common** as a primary carrier site compared to the nose. - Skin colonization often occurs due to spread from **nasal carriage**. *Oropharynx* - The oropharynx can be colonized by various bacteria, but it is **not the primary or most common site** for Staphylococcus aureus carriage. - Other bacteria like **Streptococcus species** are more prevalent colonizers of the oropharynx. *Perineum* - The perineum can harbor Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in specific populations or in individuals with certain skin conditions, but it is **not the most common or primary site** of colonization. - Colonization here is often **secondary** to nasal carriage or contact with contaminated surfaces.

Practice by Chapter

Staphylococci

Practice Questions

Streptococci and Enterococci

Practice Questions

Neisseria and Moraxella

Practice Questions

Corynebacterium and Listeria

Practice Questions

Bacillus and Clostridium

Practice Questions

Enterobacteriaceae

Practice Questions

Vibrio, Aeromonas, and Plesiomonas

Practice Questions

Pseudomonas and Related Bacteria

Practice Questions

Haemophilus and HACEK Group

Practice Questions

Bordetella and Brucella

Practice Questions

Mycobacteria

Practice Questions

Spirochetes

Practice Questions

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