Bacteriology — MCQs
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Which anaerobic organism is known to cause multiple abscesses with discharging sinuses and demonstrates sulfur granules in pus?
Which of the following vectors is known to transmit a disease that can be identified by the presence of spirochetes under dark-field microscopy?
Which organism is the most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis?
Which microorganism is the most common cause of pyogenic osteomyelitis?
Which of the following is non-motile:
Listeria escapes from phagosomes (phagolysosomes) due to:
All are true about anaerobic infections except:
In human infections, the morula form is seen in which of the following organisms?
Which of the following statements about anthrax toxin is false?
Draughtsman colonies are seen with:
Bacteriology Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 2371: Which anaerobic organism is known to cause multiple abscesses with discharging sinuses and demonstrates sulfur granules in pus?
- A. Nocardia asteroides
- B. Salmonella enterica
- C. Francisella tularensis
- D. Actinomyces (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Actinomyces*** - *Actinomyces* species are classic causes of **actinomycosis**, characterized by chronic, suppurative infections with **multiple abscesses**, draining sinuses, and the presence of **sulfur granules** in pus. - They are **anaerobic or microaerophilic gram-positive bacteria** that are part of the normal flora of the mouth and gastrointestinal tract, causing infection when mucosal barriers are disrupted. *Nocardia asteroides* - *Nocardia asteroides* causes **nocardiosis**, which can also present with abscesses, but it is an **aerobic bacterium** and typically does not produce sulfur granules. - Nocardial infections often involve the lungs, skin, or central nervous system, particularly in **immunocompromised individuals**. *Salmonella enterica* - *Salmonella enterica* is a facultative anaerobic Gram-negative bacterium known for causing **gastroenteritis**, typhoid fever, and bacteremia. - It is not associated with the formation of multiple abscesses with draining sinuses or sulfur granules. *Francisella tularensis* - *Francisella tularensis* causes **tularemia**, a zoonotic disease characterized by ulceroglandular lesions, fever, and lymphadenopathy. - It does not typically cause multiple abscesses with draining sinuses or produce sulfur granules.
Question 2372: Which of the following vectors is known to transmit a disease that can be identified by the presence of spirochetes under dark-field microscopy?
- A. Anopheles
- B. Ixodes scapularis ticks (Correct Answer)
- C. Louse
- D. Rat flea
Explanation: ***Ixodes scapularis ticks*** - *Ixodes scapularis* ticks are the primary vectors for **Lyme disease**, caused by the spirochete *Borrelia burgdorferi*. - **Spirochetes** can be identified in tissue samples or cultures using **dark-field microscopy** or silver staining techniques. - Direct visualization from patient samples is uncommon; diagnosis typically relies on serology and clinical presentation. *Louse* - Lice (e.g., *Pediculus humanus corporis*) transmit **relapsing fever** (*Borrelia recurrentis*) and epidemic typhus (*Rickettsia prowazekii*). - *Borrelia recurrentis* spirochetes are readily visible in **peripheral blood smears** using Wright or Giemsa stain during febrile episodes. - While this is also a spirochete disease, the question specifically refers to dark-field microscopy, which is classically associated with Lyme disease spirochete identification. *Anopheles* - The *Anopheles* mosquito is the vector for **malaria**, caused by *Plasmodium* parasites, not spirochetes. - Malaria is diagnosed by identifying ring forms, trophozoites, and schizonts within red blood cells on blood smears. *Rat flea* - The rat flea (*Xenopsylla cheopis*) is the primary vector for **bubonic plague** (*Yersinia pestis*) and murine typhus (*Rickettsia typhi*). - *Yersinia pestis* is a gram-negative coccobacillus, not a spirochete.
Question 2373: Which organism is the most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis?
- A. Enterococcus
- B. Streptococcus viridans
- C. Peptostreptococcus
- D. E.coli (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***E.coli*** - **E.coli** is the most common cause of **acute bacterial prostatitis**, accounting for a significant majority of cases. - It is a **gram-negative rod** commonly found in the gastrointestinal tract and can ascend into the urinary tract and prostate. *Enterococcus* - While **Enterococcus species** can cause urinary tract infections and, less commonly, prostatitis, they are a distant second to E.coli in frequency. - They are **gram-positive cocci** and are often associated with catheter-associated infections or healthcare-acquired infections. *Streptococcus viridans* - **Streptococcus viridans** group bacteria are typically commensals of the oral cavity and are more known for causing **endocarditis** or dental infections. - They are not a common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis. *Peptostreptococcus* - **Peptostreptococcus** is a genus of **anaerobic gram-positive cocci** commonly found in the normal flora of the mouth, gastrointestinal tract, and vagina. - They are typically involved in **polymicrobial anaerobic infections** but are not a primary or common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis.
Question 2374: Which microorganism is the most common cause of pyogenic osteomyelitis?
- A. S. aureus (Correct Answer)
- B. Streptococcus spp.
- C. Corynebacterium spp.
- D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonococcus)
Explanation: ***Staph aureus*** - **_Staphylococcus aureus_** is the most frequent cause of **pyogenic osteomyelitis** across all age groups and routes of infection. - Its ability to adhere to bone, form biofilms, and produce toxins contributes to its prevalence in bone infections. *Streptococcus spp.* - While various **_Streptococcus_** species can cause infections, they are less common causes of pyogenic osteomyelitis compared to **_Staphylococcus aureus_**. - **Group A _Streptococcus_** can cause severe invasive infections but rarely involves primary bone infection. *Corynebacterium spp.* - **_Corynebacterium_** species, particularly **_Corynebacterium striatum_**, are increasingly recognized as opportunistic pathogens, especially in immunocompromised individuals or those with foreign bodies. - However, they are not the most common cause of osteomyelitis in the general population. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonococcus)* - **_Neisseria gonorrhoeae_** can cause **disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI)**, which may include joint involvement (**septic arthritis**). - While it can lead to bone pain and swelling, it primarily affects joints and is a less common cause of direct **pyogenic osteomyelitis** than **_S. aureus_**.
Question 2375: Which of the following is non-motile:
- A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
- B. Burkholderia mallei (Correct Answer)
- C. Burkholderia pseudomallei
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Burkholderia mallei*** - This bacterium is notably **non-motile**, lacking flagella, which is a key characteristic differentiating it from other members of its genus. - It is a **facultative intracellular pathogen** capable of surviving within host cells, primarily causing **glanders** in equids and occasional human infections. - Its immobility is a significant feature in its identification and pathogenesis. *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* - This bacterium is highly **motile** due to the presence of **polar flagella**. - Its motility contributes to its ability to colonize and invade host tissues, common in opportunistic infections. *Burkholderia pseudomallei* - This species is known to be **motile** by means of flagella, which aids its survival and dissemination in diverse environments and within a host. - It is the causative agent of **melioidosis**, a severe infectious disease. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Burkholderia mallei** is indeed non-motile, making it a correct choice among the provided options. - The other specified bacteria, *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* and *Burkholderia pseudomallei*, are motile.
Question 2376: Listeria escapes from phagosomes (phagolysosomes) due to:
- A. Opacity associated protein (OAP)
- B. Caspases
- C. Cell membrane adhesion molecules
- D. beta-hemolysin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***beta-hemolysin*** - *Listeria monocytogenes* produces **listeriolysin O (LLO)**, a **beta-hemolysin**, which is a pore-forming toxin that lyses the phagosomal membrane. - This allows the bacteria to escape into the host cell cytoplasm, thus **avoiding destruction** by lysosomal enzymes and neutralizing the microbicidal environment. *Caspases* - **Caspases** are a family of proteases that play essential roles in programmed cell death (apoptosis) and inflammation. - While bacteria can manipulate host cell apoptosis, caspases themselves are **host enzymes** and do not directly confer resistance to phagosome destruction. *Cell membrane adhesion molecules* - **Adhesion molecules** facilitate bacterial attachment to host cells and internalisation, but they do not directly provide a mechanism for **escaping the phagosome** once internalised. - Examples include internalins, which are involved in bacterial entry into cells. *Opacity associated protein (OAP)* - **Opacity associated proteins (OAPs)** are primarily associated with *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* and are involved in adherence to host cells and evasion of the immune response. - They are not a mechanism for **phagosomal escape** or directly related to *Listeria's* intracellular survival.
Question 2377: All are true about anaerobic infections except:
- A. Specimen for UTI is suprapubic aspiration
- B. They are found normally on skin and GIT
- C. Exudates and swabs are ideal for culture (Correct Answer)
- D. Most infections are endogenous
Explanation: ***Exudates and swabs are ideal for culture.*** - **Swabs exposed to air** are generally **not ideal** for anaerobic culture because oxygen exposure can kill obligate anaerobes, leading to false-negative results. - Optimal anaerobic specimen collection requires techniques that **minimize oxygen exposure**, such as aspirates or tissue biopsies placed in anaerobic transport media. *Most infections are endogenous* - Anaerobic infections commonly arise from **one's own commensal flora**, which becomes pathogenic under specific conditions like tissue damage or impaired blood supply. - These bacteria are part of the normal microbiota of various body sites, including the gastrointestinal tract, oral cavity, and skin. *Specimen for UTI is suprapubic aspiration* - For **suspected anaerobic urinary tract infections (UTIs)**, suprapubic aspiration is considered the gold standard for specimen collection. - This method bypasses potential contamination from urethral flora and ensures a sterile, oxygen-free sample for accurate anaerobic culture. *They are found normally on skin and GIT* - **Anaerobic bacteria** are a significant component of the normal flora of the **skin and gastrointestinal tract (GIT)**, as well as the oral cavity and genitourinary tract. - Their presence in these sites is crucial for maintaining normal physiological functions and preventing the overgrowth of pathogens.
Question 2378: In human infections, the morula form is seen in which of the following organisms?
- A. Chlamydiae
- B. Bartonella quintana
- C. Mycoplasma hominis
- D. Ehrlichia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: Ehrlichia*** - *Ehrlichia* species are **obligate intracellular bacteria** that replicate in host immune cells, forming distinctive microcolonies known as **morulae** (mulberry-like clusters). - The presence of morulae within the cytoplasm of **white blood cells** (monocytes or granulocytes) is the **key diagnostic feature** for ehrlichiosis. - The term "morula" comes from Latin for "mulberry," describing the characteristic clustered appearance visible on microscopy. *Incorrect: Chlamydiae* - *Chlamydiae* are obligate intracellular parasites with a unique developmental cycle involving elementary bodies (infectious form) and reticulate bodies (replicative form). - They form **intracytoplasmic inclusions** within vacuoles, but these are **not morulae**. *Incorrect: Bartonella quintana* - *Bartonella quintana* is a fastidious gram-negative bacillus associated with **trench fever** and bacillary angiomatosis. - Typically seen as individual or small clusters of bacteria, but **does not form morulae** within host cells. *Incorrect: Mycoplasma hominis* - *Mycoplasma hominis* is a small, **wall-less bacterium** that can cause genitourinary infections. - It is an extracellular pathogen or adheres to host cells but **does not invade or form intracytoplasmic morulae**.
Question 2379: Which of the following statements about anthrax toxin is false?
- A. Increase cAMP
- B. Has three components
- C. Coded by plasmid
- D. Inhibits protein synthesis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Inhibits protein synthesis*** - Anthrax toxin, specifically the **lethal factor (LF)**, is a **zinc-dependent metalloprotease** that cleaves and inactivates **mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MAPKKs)**, leading to cell death, not directly inhibiting protein synthesis. - The **edema factor (EF)** component of the toxin is an **adenylate cyclase** that increases **intracellular cyclic AMP (cAMP)**, which also does not directly inhibit protein synthesis. *Has three components* - Anthrax toxin is indeed composed of three distinct proteins: **protective antigen (PA)**, **edema factor (EF)**, and **lethal factor (LF)**. - PA is necessary for EF and LF to enter host cells, while EF causes edema and LF is responsible for cytotoxicity. *Increase cAMP* - The **edema factor (EF)** component of anthrax toxin is a **calmodulin-dependent adenylate cyclase**. - Once inside the cell, EF converts **ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP)**, leading to increased intracellular cAMP levels, which disrupts water homeostasis and causes edema. *Coded by plasmid* - The genes encoding the anthrax toxin components (PA, EF, and LF) are located on a large plasmid known as **pXO1**. - This plasmid, along with another plasmid (pXO2) carrying genes for the capsule, is crucial for the full virulence of *Bacillus anthracis*.
Question 2380: Draughtsman colonies are seen with:
- A. Anthrax
- B. Pertussis
- C. Pneumococci (Correct Answer)
- D. Yersinia
Explanation: ***Pneumococci*** - **Draughtsman colonies** (or **draughtsman-like colonies**) are a characteristic morphological feature observed when *Streptococcus pneumoniae* (pneumococci) grows on certain agar media, such as blood agar. - This appearance is due to the **central umbilication or depression** of the colony caused by autolytic enzymes that break down the bacterial cells in the center as the colony matures. *Anthrax* - Colonies of *Bacillus anthracis* are typically described as **"Medusa head" colonies**, characterized by swirling projections at the periphery. - They are generally **non-hemolytic** on blood agar, distinguishing them from other *Bacillus* species. *Pertussis* - *Bordetella pertussis* colonies are characteristic on **Bordet-Gengou agar**, appearing as small, glistening, pearl-like, or "mercury droplet" colonies. - This distinct morphology is crucial for its identification in laboratory cultures. *Yersinia* - *Yersinia pestis* (which causes plague) colonies on blood agar at 28°C often show a **"fried egg" appearance** over several days, with a dark center and lighter periphery. - Other *Yersinia* species like *Y. enterocolitica* can show a **bull's-eye pattern** on CIN (Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin) agar.
Practice by Chapter
Staphylococci
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Streptococci and Enterococci
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Neisseria and Moraxella
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Corynebacterium and Listeria
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Bacillus and Clostridium
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Enterobacteriaceae
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Vibrio, Aeromonas, and Plesiomonas
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Pseudomonas and Related Bacteria
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Haemophilus and HACEK Group
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Bordetella and Brucella
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Mycobacteria
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Spirochetes
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