Lower Limb — MCQs
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The root value of the femoral nerve is:
Which structure lies midway between the anterior superior iliac spine and pubic symphysis?
Lateral dislocation of the patella is prevented by
A man is struck with a lathi on the lateral aspect of the head of fibula. Which of the following sensory deficits can occur as a result of nerve injury?
Which of the following statements about the gluteus maximus is incorrect?
A 60-year-old male patient presented to the OPD with complaints of a mass in the epigastric region with no other complaints. On examination, the mass was found to be pulsatile. A USG abdomen and CT abdomen were performed. The doctor then performed a procedure, accessing an artery in the lower limb and opening a sheath to expose the artery. Which of the following structures is enclosed inside that sheath?
Eversion occurs at which joint?
Which of the following muscles is not considered a composite muscle?
Which lymph nodes drain the skin and fascia of the great toe?
Which of the following muscles is NOT a boundary of the popliteal fossa?
Lower Limb Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 561: The root value of the femoral nerve is:
- A. Posterior divisions of anterior primary rami of L2, L3, and L4 (Correct Answer)
- B. Anterior divisions of anterior primary rami of L2, L3, and L4
- C. Anterior divisions of posterior primary rami of L2, L3, and L4
- D. Posterior divisions of posterior primary rami of L2, L3, and L4
Explanation: ***Posterior divisions of anterior primary rami of L2, L3, and L4*** - The **femoral nerve** arises from the **lumbar plexus**, specifically from the **posterior divisions** of the **anterior (ventral) rami** of L2, L3, and L4. - These contributions coalesce to form the largest nerve of the lumbar plexus, which innervates the **anterior compartment of the thigh** (quadriceps femoris, sartorius, and pectineus muscles). - The femoral nerve also provides sensory innervation to the anteromedial thigh and medial leg via the saphenous nerve. *Anterior divisions of anterior primary rami of L2, L3, and L4* - The **anterior divisions** of the anterior primary rami of L2, L3, and L4 primarily contribute to the **obturator nerve**. - The obturator nerve innervates the **medial (adductor) compartment of the thigh**, responsible for adduction of the thigh. - This is the key anatomical distinction in the lumbar plexus: posterior divisions → femoral nerve (anterior thigh), anterior divisions → obturator nerve (medial thigh). *Anterior divisions of posterior primary rami of L2, L3, and L4* - The **posterior (dorsal) primary rami** supply the intrinsic muscles of the back (erector spinae) and overlying skin, and do not contribute to limb innervation. - They do not form divisions in the same manner as anterior primary rami and are not part of the lumbar plexus. *Posterior divisions of posterior primary rami of L2, L3, and L4* - The **posterior primary rami** branch off separately from the spinal nerves and innervate paraspinal structures. - They do not contribute to the formation of the femoral nerve or any other major nerve of the lower limb.
Question 562: Which structure lies midway between the anterior superior iliac spine and pubic symphysis?
- A. Femoral artery (Correct Answer)
- B. Deep inguinal ring
- C. Superior epigastric artery
- D. Inguinal ligament
Explanation: ***Femoral artery*** - The **femoral artery** is a direct continuation of the external iliac artery and is the most reliable palpable pulse in the groin area. [1] - Its surface marking is clinically important as it's found midway between the **anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)** and the **pubic symphysis**, specifically at the **mid-inguinal point**. [1] *Deep inguinal ring* - The **deep inguinal ring** is located at the **midpoint of the inguinal ligament** (midway between ASIS and pubic tubercle), which is approximately 1.5 cm above and lateral to the mid-inguinal point. - It marks the beginning of the **inguinal canal** and is the site where the vas deferens and gonadal vessels exit the abdominal cavity. *Superior epigastric artery* - The **superior epigastric artery** is a terminal branch of the internal thoracic artery and primarily supplies the upper abdominal wall. [2] - It is located in the anterior abdominal wall, far from the inguinal region and the midpoint between the ASIS and pubic symphysis. [2] *Inguinal ligament* - The **inguinal ligament** extends between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle, forming the inferior border of the anterior abdominal wall. - While relevant to the region, the ligament itself is a fibrous band, not a structure found *midway between* the ASIS and pubic symphysis in the same way the femoral artery is.
Question 563: Lateral dislocation of the patella is prevented by
- A. Vastus medialis (Correct Answer)
- B. Rectus femoris
- C. Vastus lateralis
- D. Vastus intermedius
Explanation: **_1. Vastus medialis_** - The **vastus medialis** muscle, particularly its oblique fibers (**vastus medialis obliquus**), is crucial in preventing **lateral patellar subluxation or dislocation** by pulling the patella medially. - Weakness or dysfunction of the vastus medialis, especially relative to the vastus lateralis, can predispose individuals to **patellofemoral instability**. *2. Rectus femoris* - The **rectus femoris** is one of the quadriceps muscles, primarily responsible for **knee extension** and hip flexion. - While it contributes to overall patella stability, it does not specifically prevent **lateral dislocation** as effectively as the vastus medialis. *3. Vastus lateralis* - The **vastus lateralis** is part of the quadriceps and primarily pulls the patella **laterally**. - An overactive or dominant vastus lateralis can actually **contribute to lateral patellar tracking problems** and dislocation. *4. Vastus intermedius* - The **vastus intermedius** lies deep to the rectus femoris and is mainly involved in **knee extension**. - It has a central pull on the patella and does not have a significant role in preventing **lateral patella displacement**.
Question 564: A man is struck with a lathi on the lateral aspect of the head of fibula. Which of the following sensory deficits can occur as a result of nerve injury?
- A. Loss of sensation of adjacent sides of 1st & 2nd toe (Correct Answer)
- B. Dorsiflexion not possible
- C. Loss of sensation of lateral foot
- D. Inversion inability
Explanation: ***Loss of sensation of adjacent sides of 1st & 2nd toe*** - Injury to the lateral aspect of the head of the fibula commonly damages the **common fibular (peroneal) nerve**, which then divides into superficial and deep fibular nerves. - The **deep fibular nerve** supplies sensation to the web space between the first and second toes, and its injury would cause loss of sensation in this specific area. - This is the correct **sensory deficit** resulting from common fibular nerve injury at the fibular head. *Loss of sensation of lateral foot* - Sensation to the lateral aspect of the foot is primarily supplied by the **sural nerve**, a branch of the tibial nerve, not the common fibular nerve. - Damage to the common fibular nerve would not typically result in isolated loss of sensation on the lateral foot. *Dorsiflexion not possible* - Inability to **dorsiflex** the foot ("foot drop") is a common consequence of common fibular nerve injury. - However, this is a **motor deficit**, not a **sensory deficit** as specifically asked in the question. - Dorsiflexion is performed by tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus, both innervated by the deep fibular nerve. *Inversion inability* - **Foot inversion** is primarily mediated by muscles innervated by the **tibial nerve** (tibialis posterior) and to a lesser extent by the deep fibular nerve (tibialis anterior). - This represents a **motor deficit**, not a **sensory deficit** as asked in the question. - Injury to the common fibular nerve would not significantly impair inversion since tibialis posterior (the primary invertor) remains intact.
Question 565: Which of the following statements about the gluteus maximus is incorrect?
- A. Supplied by superior gluteal nerve (Correct Answer)
- B. Causes extension at hip
- C. It is lateral rotator of thigh
- D. Insertion is at gluteal tuberosity
Explanation: ***Supplied by superior gluteal nerve*** - The gluteus maximus is primarily innervated by the **inferior gluteal nerve**, not the superior gluteal nerve. - The **superior gluteal nerve** typically supplies the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae. *Causes extension at hip* - The gluteus maximus is the **most powerful extensor** of the hip, especially from a flexed position. - This action is crucial for activities such as **climbing stairs**, running, and standing up. *It is lateral rotator of thigh* - The gluteus maximus is a significant **lateral rotator** of the thigh, contributing to external rotation at the hip joint. - Its large size and fiber orientation make it an effective muscle for this action. *Insertion is at gluteal tuberosity* - The gluteus maximus has a dual insertion: a portion inserts onto the **gluteal tuberosity** of the femur. - The majority of its fibers also insert into the **iliotibial tract**, which then attaches to the lateral condyle of the tibia.
Question 566: A 60-year-old male patient presented to the OPD with complaints of a mass in the epigastric region with no other complaints. On examination, the mass was found to be pulsatile. A USG abdomen and CT abdomen were performed. The doctor then performed a procedure, accessing an artery in the lower limb and opening a sheath to expose the artery. Which of the following structures is enclosed inside that sheath?
- A. Cooper's ligament
- B. Obturator nerve
- C. Femoral nerve
- D. Femoral canal (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Femoral canal*** - The description of accessing an artery in the lower limb and opening a sheath to expose it strongly suggests an intervention related to the **femoral artery**, which is part of the structures found in the femoral triangle [1]. - The **femoral sheath** encloses the femoral artery, femoral vein, and the femoral canal (which contains lymphatic vessels and a lymph node called the deep inguinal lymph node of Cloquet). The procedure likely involves accessing one of these [1]. *Cooper's ligament* - **Cooper's ligament** (pectineal ligament) is a fibrous band on the superior aspect of the superior pubic ramus and is involved in the inguinal region but is not part of the femoral sheath or directly accessed for arterial procedures in this context. - It serves as an attachment point for various structures but does not contain major vessels or nerves that would be exposed through this described sheath. *Femoral nerve* - The **femoral nerve** runs lateral to the femoral sheath and is not contained within it. It originates from the lumbar plexus and supplies the anterior thigh muscles. - Accessing the femoral artery for an interventional procedure would typically avoid direct involvement or opening a sheath around the femoral nerve. *Obturator nerve* - The **obturator nerve** is a branch of the lumbar plexus that passes through the obturator foramen to supply the medial compartment of the thigh. - It is anatomically distant from the femoral triangle and the femoral sheath and would not be encountered or enclosed in a sheath during a femoral artery access procedure.
Question 567: Eversion occurs at which joint?
- A. Subtalar (Correct Answer)
- B. Ankle
- C. Metatarsophalangeal
- D. Interphalangeal
Explanation: ***Subtalar*** - **Eversion** of the foot is a complex movement involving the outward turning of the sole. - This motion primarily occurs at the **subtalar joint**, which is formed by the talus and calcaneus bones. *Ankle* - The **ankle joint** (talocrural joint) is primarily responsible for **dorsiflexion** and **plantarflexion** of the foot. - While it contributes to overall foot movement, it is not the main joint for eversion. *Metatarsophalangeal* - **Metatarsophalangeal joints** are located between the metatarsals and the proximal phalanges of the toes. - These joints are primarily involved in the **flexion and extension** of the toes, not eversion of the foot. *Interphalangeal* - **Interphalangeal joints** are the joints within the toes, responsible for **flexion and extension** of the phalanges. - They play no direct role in the eversion of the entire foot.
Question 568: Which of the following muscles is not considered a composite muscle?
- A. Adductor magnus
- B. Biceps femoris
- C. Pectineus
- D. Rectus femoris (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Rectus femoris*** - This muscle is part of the quadriceps femoris group and is solely innervated by the **femoral nerve**. - Although it has two heads of origin (straight head from AIIS and reflected head from acetabulum), it is **not a composite muscle** because both heads receive innervation from the same nerve. - A composite muscle is defined by **dual innervation from different nerves**, not simply by having multiple heads of origin. - It functions primarily in **knee extension** and **hip flexion**. *Pectineus* - The pectineus is considered a **composite muscle** because it receives innervation from both the **femoral nerve** and the **obturator nerve**. - Its dual innervation from different nerves indicates its developmental origin from two different muscle masses. *Adductor magnus* - This muscle is known for its **composite nature**, receiving innervation from both the **obturator nerve** (adductor portion) and the **sciatic nerve** (hamstring portion). - Its dual innervation and functional roles as both an adductor and an extensor of the hip highlight its complex structure. *Biceps femoris* - The biceps femoris is a **composite muscle** with two heads: the long head (innervated by the **tibial division of the sciatic nerve**) and the short head (innervated by the **common fibular division of the sciatic nerve**). - Its dual innervation from different nerve divisions reflects its development from different muscle primordia.
Question 569: Which lymph nodes drain the skin and fascia of the great toe?
- A. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes (Correct Answer)
- B. External iliac lymph nodes
- C. Internal iliac lymph nodes
- D. Deep inguinal lymph nodes
Explanation: ***Superficial inguinal lymph nodes*** - The **superficial inguinal lymph nodes** are responsible for draining lymph from the skin and fascia of the lower limb, including the **great toe**. [1] - They are located in the superficial fascia below the inguinal ligament and receive lymphatic vessels associated with the **great saphenous vein**. *External iliac lymph nodes* - The external iliac lymph nodes drain structures within the **pelvis** and receive lymph from the **deep inguinal lymph nodes**, not directly from the skin of the great toe. - They are located along the external iliac artery and vein. *Internal iliac lymph nodes* - The internal iliac lymph nodes primarily drain lymph from the **pelvic organs** and the **perineum**. - They do not directly receive lymphatic drainage from the great toe or the superficial lower limb. *Deep inguinal lymph nodes* - The deep inguinal lymph nodes are located deeper, medial to the **femoral vein**, and receive lymph mainly from the deep structures of the lower limb. - While they eventually drain into the external iliac nodes, they do not directly drain the superficial skin and fascia of the great toe.
Question 570: Which of the following muscles is NOT a boundary of the popliteal fossa?
- A. Biceps femoris
- B. Lateral head of Gastrocnemius
- C. Adductor magnus (Correct Answer)
- D. Medial head of Gastrocnemius
Explanation: ***Adductor magnus*** - The **adductor magnus** is located in the **medial compartment of the thigh** and forms part of the floor of the adductor canal, not a boundary of the popliteal fossa. - Its primary action is **adduction of the thigh**, along with extension and external rotation, and it doesn't contribute to the distinct diamond shape of the popliteal region. - The popliteal fossa boundaries include biceps femoris (superolateral), semimembranosus and semitendinosus (superomedial), and the two heads of gastrocnemius (inferolateral and inferomedial). *Biceps femoris* - The **biceps femoris** forms the **superolateral boundary** of the popliteal fossa. - As one of the hamstring muscles, its tendon is easily palpable and defines the upper outer aspect of this region. *Lateral head of Gastrocnemius* - The **lateral head of the gastrocnemius** forms the **inferolateral boundary** of the popliteal fossa. - This muscle contributes to the lower outer aspect of the popliteal diamond, originating from the lateral femoral condyle. *Medial head of Gastrocnemius* - The **medial head of the gastrocnemius** forms the **inferomedial boundary** of the popliteal fossa. - Originating from the medial femoral condyle, it defines the lower inner aspect of the popliteal region.
Practice by Chapter
Gluteal Region and Hip
Practice Questions
Thigh and Popliteal Fossa
Practice Questions
Leg and Foot
Practice Questions
Joints of Lower Limb
Practice Questions
Nerves of Lower Limb
Practice Questions
Arterial Supply and Venous Drainage
Practice Questions
Lymphatic Drainage
Practice Questions
Muscles and Their Actions
Practice Questions
Gait Analysis and Biomechanics
Practice Questions
Applied Anatomy and Clinical Correlations
Practice Questions
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