NEET-PG 2023 - Surgery PYQs Practice Questions

Q: Patients with chronic pancreatitis often exhibit a "chain of lakes" appearance in ERCP examinations. Management is?

Side to side pancreaticojejunostomy. ***Side to side pancreaticojejunostomy*** - This procedure, specifically a **Puestow procedure**, is the gold standard for managing painful chronic pancreatitis with a dilated main pancreatic duct (≥6-7 mm) and multiple strictures, presenting as a "chain of lakes" on ERCP. - It involves dividing the small bowel, closing one end, and connecting the other to a longitudinal incision made along the dilated pancreatic duct, thereby allowing drainage of pancreatic secretions into the jejunum and alleviating pain. *Total pancreatectomy* - This is a highly morbid procedure reserved for very severe cases of chronic pancreatitis that are refractory to other treatments, often associated with unmanageable pain and severe exocrine and endocrine insufficiency. - It would necessitate lifelong **enzyme replacement therapy** and **insulin for diabetes**, indicating its use as a last resort. *Sphincteroplasty* - This procedure involves widening the sphincter of Oddi and is primarily used for **biliary obstruction** or **pancreatitis secondary to sphincter dysfunction**, not for the widespread strictures and dilated ducts typical of chronic pancreatitis with a "chain of lakes" appearance. - While it can improve drainage, it does not address the extensive ductal pathology seen in many cases of chronic pancreatitis with multiple strictures. *Resecting the tail of pancreas and performing a pancreaticojejunostomy* - This describes a **distal pancreatectomy with pancreaticojejunostomy**, which is suitable for lesions or pathologies primarily confined to the **body or tail of the pancreas**, such as certain tumors or cysts. - It would not effectively address the diffuse ductal changes and multiple strictures throughout the entire pancreas that cause the "chain of lakes" appearance in chronic pancreatitis, which usually requires decompression of the entire duct system. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A 45-year-old male presenting with penile cancer extending up to the glans penis is treated with which of the following surgical options?

Partial penectomy with a 2 cm margin. ***Partial penectomy with a 2 cm margin*** - For **penile cancer** confined to the glans, **partial penectomy** is the standard surgical approach to achieve local control while preserving penile length. - Historically, a **2 cm tumor-free margin** was recommended as the standard of care (reflected in older guidelines and exam questions). - **Modern evidence** suggests that narrower margins of **5-8 mm** are oncologically safe with comparable local control rates, but the **2 cm margin** was the traditional teaching and remains the expected answer for this question context. *Simple circumcision* - **Simple circumcision** is indicated for benign conditions like **phimosis** or **premalignant lesions** (carcinoma in situ), not for invasive cancer. - It does not provide adequate oncological clearance for **invasive penile cancer** and carries a high risk of **local recurrence**. *Partial penectomy with a 4 cm margin* - A **4 cm margin** is excessively radical and would result in unnecessary loss of penile length and function. - Even by historical standards, this exceeds the recommended **2 cm margin** and would cause significant functional and psychological morbidity. *Partial penectomy with inguinal lymph node dissection* - **Inguinal lymph node dissection** is indicated when there is **clinical or radiological evidence of lymph node metastasis** or high-risk pathological features. - Without evidence of nodal involvement, routine prophylactic lymphadenectomy is not performed due to significant morbidity (lymphedema, wound complications). - The question does not specify nodal involvement, making this option unnecessarily aggressive. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A patient presented with right hypochondriac pain. He had an episode of diarrhea 1 week prior. CT scan of the abdomen reveals a liver abscess of around 25 cc. What is the next step in management?

Medical therapy. ***Medical therapy*** - This is the appropriate next step for a **small liver abscess** of 25 cc (approximately 2.9 cm diameter). - Current evidence-based guidelines recommend **medical therapy alone** for abscesses ** 85%**. - Percutaneous drainage is reserved for: abscesses >5 cm, failed medical therapy (no improvement in 4-7 days), left lobe location, or imminent rupture. *Percutaneous drainage* - This would be indicated for **larger abscesses (>5 cm)**, left lobe abscesses, or if medical therapy fails after 4-7 days. - For a **small 25 cc abscess**, immediate drainage is unnecessary and carries procedural risks without added benefit. - Drainage should be considered if fever persists beyond 72 hours of appropriate antibiotics or clinical deterioration occurs. *PAIR* - **PAIR (Puncture, Aspiration, Injection, Re-aspiration)** is specifically for **hydatid cysts**, not pyogenic or amebic liver abscesses. - Injecting scolicidal agents would be inappropriate and potentially harmful in non-hydatid pathology. *Surgery* - Surgical drainage is reserved for **complicated cases**: ruptured abscess, multiple/loculated collections failing percutaneous drainage, or thick-walled abscesses. - A small, uncomplicated 25 cc abscess does not warrant surgical intervention as first-line management. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A diabetic patient presents with sudden-onset perineal pain. On examination, foul-smelling discharge and necrotic tissue are noted. Which of the following is the most characteristic feature of this condition?

Mixed aerobic and anaerobic infection. **Mixed aerobic and anaerobic infection** - Fournier's gangrene is a polymicrobial infection typically involving a **synergistic mixture of aerobic and anaerobic bacteria**. - This mixed infection contributes to the rapid progression and tissue destruction seen in this condition, leading to the **foul-smelling discharge** due to anaerobic metabolism. *Anti-gas gangrene serum is indicated only in specific cases.* - Anti-gas gangrene serum is specifically for **Clostridium perfringens** infections, which can cause gas gangrene but is usually a distinct clinical entity from Fournier's. - While Clostridium species can be present in Fournier's gangrene, it is not the sole causative agent, and **broader antimicrobial therapy** is the mainstay of treatment, not antitoxin serum. *Urinary diversion may be considered in severe cases.* - Urinary diversion, such as a **suprapubic catheter**, may be necessary when the urethra or perineum is extensively involved or to prevent ongoing contamination of the surgical site. - However, it's not a primary treatment for the infection itself but rather an **adjunctive measure** to manage complicated cases of Fournier's gangrene. *Bilateral orchidectomy is not routinely required.* - **Testicular involvement** in Fournier's gangrene is rare due to the separate blood supply of the testes. - **Orchidectomy** is only performed if the testes themselves are affected by necrosis, which is uncommon and occurs in critically severe cases; routine removal is not indicated. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: A patient was brought to the ER following a road traffic accident. On examination, the patient opens his eyes to a painful stimulus, speaks inappropriately, and withdraws his limbs to a painful stimulus. What is his GCS score?

E2V3M4. ***E2V3M4*** - Eye opening to **painful stimulus** scores 2 (E2). - Inappropriate speech scores 3 (V3). - Withdrawal from pain scores 4 (M4). *E2V2M3* - This option incorrectly assesses the **verbal response** and **motor response**. - Speaking incomprehensibly scores V2, while here the patient speaks inappropriately (V3). - Flexion to pain scores M3, but the patient exhibits withdrawal from pain (M4). *E3V3M3* - This option incorrectly assesses the **eye opening response**. - Eye opening to verbal command scores E3, but here the patient opens eyes to painful stimulus (E2). - The motor response is also incorrect, as M3 is flexion to pain, not withdrawal from pain (M4). *E3V2M2* - This option incorrectly assesses all three components of the **GCS score**. - A patient who opens eyes to a painful stimulus would score E2, not E3 (eyes opening to verbal command). - Both verbal (V3 for inappropriate speech, not V2 for incomprehensible sounds) and motor responses (M4 for withdrawal from pain, not M2 for extension to pain) are incorrectly scored. [Practice more Surgery PYQs on OnCourse]

Question 1

Patients with chronic pancreatitis often exhibit a "chain of lakes" appearance in ERCP examinations. Management is?

Accepted Answer

Side to side pancreaticojejunostomy

Answer

Total pancreatectomy

Answer

Resecting the tail of pancreas and performing a pancreaticojejunostomy

Answer

Sphincteroplasty

Question 2

A 45-year-old male presenting with penile cancer extending up to the glans penis is treated with which of the following surgical options?

Accepted Answer

Partial penectomy with a 2 cm margin

Answer

Simple circumcision

Answer

Partial penectomy with a 4 cm margin

Answer

Partial penectomy with inguinal lymph node dissection

Question 3

A patient presented with right hypochondriac pain. He had an episode of diarrhea 1 week prior. CT scan of the abdomen reveals a liver abscess of around 25 cc. What is the next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Medical therapy

Answer

PAIR

Answer

Surgery

Answer

Percutaneous drainage

Question 4

A diabetic patient presents with sudden-onset perineal pain. On examination, foul-smelling discharge and necrotic tissue are noted. Which of the following is the most characteristic feature of this condition?

Accepted Answer

Mixed aerobic and anaerobic infection

Answer

Urinary diversion may be considered in severe cases

Answer

Bilateral orchidectomy is not routinely required

Answer

Anti-gas gangrene serum is indicated only in specific cases

Question 5

A patient was brought to the ER following a road traffic accident. On examination, the patient opens his eyes to a painful stimulus, speaks inappropriately, and withdraws his limbs to a painful stimulus. What is his GCS score?

Accepted Answer

E2V3M4

Answer

E2V2M3

Answer

E3V3M3

Answer

E3V2M2

Question 6

A 23-year-old male patient presents with midline swelling in the neck. The swelling moves with deglutition and protrusion of the tongue. What is the likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Thyroglossal cyst

Answer

Brachial cyst

Answer

Plunging ranula

Answer

Dermoid cyst

Question 7

What is the most likely diagnosis for the parotid mass with mixed consistency shown in the image?

Accepted Answer

Pleomorphic adenoma

Answer

Sebaceous cyst

Answer

Dermoid cyst

Answer

None of the options

Question 8

In a patient with esophageal cancer and dysphagia affecting liquid intake, what is the most appropriate intervention to ensure nutritional support?

Accepted Answer

Placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube

Answer

Total parenteral nutrition

Answer

Nasogastric tube feeding

Answer

Esophageal stent placement

Question 9

A patient presents with a gradually progressive, painless mass persisting for 10 years. The mass is firm to nodular and shows variable consistency within different areas of the swelling. What is the most probable diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Pleomorphic adenoma

Answer

Dermoid cyst

Answer

Malignancy

Answer

Sebaceous cyst

NEET-PG 2023 — Surgery