Best gas used for creating pneumoperitoneum at laparoscopy is:
The term 'raspberry tumor' is most commonly associated with which of the following conditions?
A 10 cm tumor is found on the anterior surface of the thigh. What is the most appropriate procedure to obtain a diagnosis?
Which of the following is a common consequence of gastrectomy?
What is the type of Intussusception that is most frequently observed?
In the context of inflammatory breast cancer, what is the TNM stage associated with the peau d'orange appearance?
What is the first-line intervention for acute symptomatic hydroureter with ureteral obstruction requiring urgent decompression?
Which of the following hernias has the highest risk of strangulation?
What is the first step to be taken in the management of a cervical spine injury?
How much length is increased in Z-plasty when it is done at 60 degrees?
NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: Best gas used for creating pneumoperitoneum at laparoscopy is:
- A. N2
- B. CO2 (Correct Answer)
- C. N2O
- D. O2
Explanation: ***CO2*** - **Carbon dioxide** is rapidly absorbed and expelled by the respiratory system, minimizing the risk of **gas embolism**. - It is **non-flammable**, which is crucial in a surgical environment where electrosurgical devices are often used. - CO2 is **highly soluble in blood**, allowing rapid clearance if venous absorption occurs. *N2* - **Nitrogen** is not ideal for pneumoperitoneum as its poor solubility in blood leads to a significant risk of **gas embolism**. - **Increased nitrogen pockets** can create complications that make it a poor choice. *O2* - **Oxygen** poses a significant **fire hazard** in the presence of electrosurgical instruments. - It **supports combustion**, making the surgical field dangerous when using electrocautery or laser devices. *N2O* - **Nitrous oxide** supports **combustion**, making it unsafe for use with electrosurgical devices. - It can also diffuse into **bowel loops**, causing distension and obstructing visibility, which is undesirable during laparoscopy.
Question 22: The term 'raspberry tumor' is most commonly associated with which of the following conditions?
- A. Umbilical fistula
- B. Meckel’s diverticulum
- C. Umbilical granuloma (Correct Answer)
- D. Umbilical adenoma
Explanation: ***Umbilical granuloma*** - An **umbilical granuloma** is a common condition in newborns, presenting as a soft, red, moist growth at the umbilicus after the umbilical cord detaches. - Its characteristic appearance, resembling a small red berry, has led to the descriptive term "**raspberry tumor**." *Umbilical fistula* - An **umbilical fistula** is an abnormal connection that can occur between the intestine or bladder and the umbilicus, leading to the discharge of stool or urine from the umbilicus. - It does not present as a fleshy, raspberry-like growth, but rather as an opening with discharge. *Meckel’s diverticulum* - **Meckel's diverticulum** is a remnant of the **vitelline duct**, typically found on the anti-mesenteric border of the ileum, and is a congenital anomaly of the small intestine. - It is an internal structure and does not manifest externally at the umbilicus as a "raspberry tumor." *Umbilical adenoma* - An **umbilical adenoma** is a rare tumor of the umbilicus, often a remnant of the **vitelline duct** or **urachus**, which can present as a reddish mass. - While it can be a reddish mass, the specific term "raspberry tumor" is not commonly associated with umbilical adenoma but rather with umbilical granuloma due to its very distinct granular appearance.
Question 23: A 10 cm tumor is found on the anterior surface of the thigh. What is the most appropriate procedure to obtain a diagnosis?
- A. Incision biopsy (Correct Answer)
- B. Excision biopsy
- C. FNAC
- D. USG
Explanation: ***Incision biopsy*** - An **incision biopsy** is most appropriate for a large tumor (10 cm) to obtain a tissue diagnosis without performing a potentially morbid or disfiguring complete excision upfront. - It involves removing a representative section of the tumor for histopathological analysis, providing adequate tissue for diagnosis, grading, and subtyping. - This allows definitive treatment planning based on confirmed histopathology. *Excision biopsy* - **Excision biopsy** is generally reserved for smaller tumors (typically <3-5 cm) that can be completely resected with acceptable cosmetic and functional outcomes. - Excision of a 10 cm tumor on the thigh would be a significant surgical procedure, potentially causing substantial morbidity, without a prior definitive diagnosis. - Could compromise subsequent definitive surgery if margins are inadequate. *FNAC* - **FNAC (Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology)** provides only cytological diagnosis, which is insufficient for definitive diagnosis, grading, and subtyping of soft tissue tumors, especially sarcomas. - It misses crucial architectural features and tissue patterns needed for accurate classification. - May yield inadequate or non-diagnostic samples from large heterogeneous tumors. *USG* - **USG (Ultrasound)** is an imaging modality, not a tissue diagnosis procedure. - While useful for characterizing mass features (size, location, vascularity, solid vs cystic), it cannot provide histopathological diagnosis. - The question specifically asks for a procedure to "obtain a diagnosis," which requires tissue sampling for microscopic examination.
Question 24: Which of the following is a common consequence of gastrectomy?
- A. Calcium deficiency
- B. Iron deficiency (Correct Answer)
- C. Steatorrhoea
- D. Fluid loss
Explanation: ***Iron deficiency*** - Gastrectomy often leads to **achlorhydria** or hypochlorhydria, reducing the conversion of **ferric iron** (Fe3+) to its more absorbable ferrous form (Fe2+). - Additionally, bypassing the duodenum, a primary site of iron absorption, further contributes to **iron malabsorption**. *Calcium deficiency* - While gastrectomy can contribute to calcium malabsorption due to reduced gastric acidity and faster transit, **iron deficiency** is typically a more direct and common initial consequence. - **Vitamin D deficiency**, often co-occurring with gastrectomy, is a more direct cause of **calcium malabsorption**. *Steatorrhoea* - **Steatorrhoea** (fat malabsorption) is more commonly associated with conditions affecting the **pancreas** or **small intestine** (e.g., celiac disease, chronic pancreatitis) rather than primarily gastrectomy unless there is significant bile salt malabsorption or rapid gastric emptying affecting nutrient mixing. - Although rapid transit post-gastrectomy can sometimes impair fat digestion, it's not the most common direct consequence compared to iron deficiency. *Fluid loss* - **Fluid loss** is usually an acute post-surgical complication or related to conditions causing vomiting or diarrhea, and not a common long-term consequence of gastrectomy itself. - While **dumping syndrome** can occur after gastrectomy, causing osmotic fluid shifts into the intestine, generalized chronic fluid loss is not a primary recognized long-term sequela.
Question 25: What is the type of Intussusception that is most frequently observed?
- A. Ileocolic type (Correct Answer)
- B. Ileoileal type
- C. Colo-colic type
- D. Caeco-colic type
Explanation: ***Ileocolic type*** - This is the **most common form of intussusception**, accounting for approximately 75% to 90% of cases, especially in children. - It occurs when the **ileum telescopes into the colon** at the ileocecal valve. *Ileoileal type* - This type involves the **invagination of one part of the ileum into another part of the ileum**. - While it can occur, it is **less common than ileocolic intussusception** and is more often associated with a pathological lead point in older children and adults. *Colo-colic type* - This involves the **telescoping of one segment of the colon into another segment of the colon**. - It is **rare in children** and, when present, is almost always associated with a pathological lead point, such as a polyp or tumor, primarily in adults. *Caeco-colic type* - This type occurs when the **cecum telescopes into the ascending colon**. - It is also a **relatively uncommon form of intussusception** compared to the ileocolic type.
Question 26: In the context of inflammatory breast cancer, what is the TNM stage associated with the peau d'orange appearance?
- A. T4b (Correct Answer)
- B. T4a
- C. T3
- D. T2
Explanation: ***T4b*** * The **TNM staging system** classifies T4b specifically for inflammatory breast cancer, which is characterized by the presence of **peau d'orange** (edema) of the skin of the breast. * This T stage also encompasses **ulceration of the skin** of the breast or satellite nodules confined to the same breast. *T4a* * T4a describes an **extension to the chest wall**, which includes the ribs, intercostal muscles, and serratus anterior muscle, but **not** the pectoralis muscle, which is generally not considered part of the chest wall for this classification. * This stage does **not** include the characteristic skin changes associated with inflammatory breast cancer. *T3* * T3 describes a tumor with a **size greater than 5 cm** in its greatest dimension, without direct extension to the chest wall or skin involvement. * This stage is based solely on tumor size and **does not account for the skin changes** like peau d'orange. *T2* * T2 describes a tumor with a **size greater than 2 cm but not more than 5 cm** in its greatest dimension. * Similar to T3, this stage is also based on tumor size and **does not include any skin involvement** or inflammatory features.
Question 27: What is the first-line intervention for acute symptomatic hydroureter with ureteral obstruction requiring urgent decompression?
- A. Antibiotic prophylaxis alone
- B. Immediate ureterolithotomy
- C. Endoscopic ureteral stenting (Correct Answer)
- D. Urinary alkalization
Explanation: ***Endoscopic ureteral stenting*** - **Endoscopic ureteral stenting** is the primary intervention for **acute symptomatic ureteral obstruction** requiring urgent decompression when the obstruction causes **hydroureter**. - This minimally invasive procedure provides immediate drainage from the kidney to the bladder, preventing further renal damage, managing pain, and relieving obstruction. - **Indications for urgent stenting** include: infected hydronephrosis, impaired renal function, intractable pain, solitary kidney with obstruction, or bilateral obstruction. - Alternative to stenting is **percutaneous nephrostomy**, particularly when retrograde stent placement fails or in infected systems. *Antibiotic prophylaxis alone* - While antibiotics are essential when infection complicates obstruction (pyonephrosis), **antibiotics alone cannot relieve the mechanical obstruction**. - The physical blockage must be addressed to prevent progressive renal damage and sepsis. *Immediate ureterolithotomy* - **Open ureterolithotomy** is a definitive surgical treatment but is **not first-line** for acute obstruction. - It is more invasive and typically reserved for failed endoscopic management, large impacted stones, or anatomical abnormalities preventing endoscopic access. - Modern approach favors initial decompression followed by definitive treatment (ureteroscopy, ESWL, or surgery). *Urinary alkalization* - **Urinary alkalization** may help dissolve **uric acid stones** over time but does not provide immediate relief of acute obstruction. - This is an adjunctive measure for specific stone types, not an emergency intervention for symptomatic hydroureter.
Question 28: Which of the following hernias has the highest risk of strangulation?
- A. Indirect
- B. Spigelian (Correct Answer)
- C. Direct
- D. Incisional
Explanation: ***Spigelian*** - **Spigelian hernias** occur through a defect in the **Spigelian aponeurosis** (between the semilunar line and lateral border of rectus abdominis), typically inferior to the arcuate line. - They have a **high risk of strangulation (20-25%)** due to their **narrow fascial defect** and tendency to become incarcerated through the layers of the abdominal wall. - The hernia often becomes **interparietal** (between muscle layers), making it difficult to detect clinically, which increases the risk of delayed presentation and strangulation. *Indirect* - **Indirect inguinal hernias** pass through the **deep inguinal ring** and follow the inguinal canal, potentially entering the scrotum. - While they do have a narrow neck that can cause strangulation, their **strangulation risk is moderate (~10-15%)**, lower than Spigelian hernias. - They are the most common type of hernia but not the highest risk for strangulation among these options. *Direct* - **Direct inguinal hernias** protrude through **Hesselbach's triangle** in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. - They have a **broad-based neck**, making strangulation relatively uncommon (~5%). - The wider defect allows easier reduction and less constriction of contents. *Incisional* - **Incisional hernias** develop at previous surgical incision sites due to fascial weakness or inadequate healing. - While they can incarcerate, they typically have a **wider neck** and **lower strangulation risk** compared to Spigelian or indirect inguinal hernias. - Risk varies with defect size, but generally not the highest among common hernia types.
Question 29: What is the first step to be taken in the management of a cervical spine injury?
- A. Turn head
- B. None of the options
- C. Maintain airway
- D. Immobilization of spine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Immobilization of spine*** - In the context of **isolated cervical spine injury management**, **spinal immobilization** is the primary intervention to prevent further neurological damage. - This is typically achieved using a **cervical collar** and **backboard** to maintain in-line spinal stabilization. - **Note**: In actual trauma scenarios following **ATLS protocols**, airway management and cervical spine immobilization occur **simultaneously** as the first priority (Airway with C-spine protection). *Turn head* - **Turning the head** is absolutely contraindicated as it can exacerbate a cervical spine injury, leading to further compression or damage to the **spinal cord**. - Maintaining a **neutral, in-line position** is critical to avoid neurological deterioration. *Maintain airway* - In comprehensive trauma management per **ATLS guidelines**, **airway management with simultaneous cervical spine protection** is the first priority in the ABC sequence. - Airway is maintained using methods that do not compromise spinal stability, such as a **jaw thrust maneuver** or **endotracheal intubation with manual in-line stabilization**. - The distinction here is that this question focuses on the specific step for **spinal injury management** rather than overall trauma priorities. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **immobilization of the spine** is a definitive priority in managing a suspected cervical spine injury. - Both spinal immobilization and airway management are critical interventions that should occur together in actual practice.
Question 30: How much length is increased in Z-plasty when it is done at 60 degrees?
- A. 75% (Correct Answer)
- B. 50%
- C. 25%
- D. 100%
Explanation: ***75%*** - A **60-degree Z-plasty** lengthens the central limb by approximately **75%** of its original length. This configuration provides a balance between length gain and flap viability. - The greater the angle of the Z-plasty limbs, the greater the theoretical lengthening, but also the larger the flaps and the increased risk of complications. *25%* - A **30-degree Z-plasty** typically provides about **25% lengthening** of the central limb. This angle offers less lengthening but is useful for smaller scars or when skin mobility is limited. - While it provides some lengthening, it falls significantly short of the length achieved with a 60-degree Z-plasty. *50%* - A **45-degree Z-plasty** generally results in approximately **50% lengthening**. This is an intermediate option, providing moderate lengthening. - This option does not match the significant lengthening associated with the larger 60-degree angle. *100%* - To achieve approximately **100% length gain**, larger angles such as **75 or 90-degree Z-plasty** might be considered. However, these angles are less commonly used due to increased flap size and tension at the base. - A standard 60-degree Z-plasty does not provide a 100% increase in length.