Which part of the brain is responsible for setting posture before planned movement?
Lesion of preoptic nucleus of hypothalamus is associated with which of the following conditions?
Salty taste is due to?
What is the primary factor that determines the resting membrane potential in a nerve fiber?
During acclimatization to hot environments, increased sweating efficiency is primarily due to enhanced sensitivity of which receptors?
Which substrate is both secreted and filtered by the kidneys?
Motilin secretion is decreased in which of the following states?
Which type of carbohydrate is absorbed most efficiently from the gastrointestinal tract?
What is the average progressive velocity of human sperm under standard laboratory conditions?
What is the primary physiological effect of increased 2,3-DPG on hemoglobin?
NEET-PG 2012 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: Which part of the brain is responsible for setting posture before planned movement?
- A. Motor cortex
- B. Frontal eye fields
- C. Premotor cortex
- D. Supplementary motor cortex (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Supplementary motor cortex*** - The **supplementary motor cortex (SMA)** is responsible for **anticipatory postural adjustments** that occur before voluntary movements - It plays a key role in **internal generation and planning of complex motor sequences** - SMA activation precedes movement, ensuring **postural stability and coordination** - Essential for **bilateral coordination** and **motor programming** *Premotor cortex* - The **premotor cortex** is primarily involved in **externally guided movements** and selection of movements based on sensory cues - While it participates in motor planning, it is more focused on **sensory-motor integration** rather than anticipatory postural control *Motor cortex* - The **primary motor cortex** executes voluntary movements by sending signals directly to spinal motor neurons - Responsible for **fine motor control** and determining the **force and direction** of muscle contractions - Functions in **movement execution** rather than preparatory postural adjustments *Frontal eye fields* - The **frontal eye fields** control **voluntary saccadic eye movements** and visual attention - Not involved in trunk or limb **postural preparation** for planned movements
Question 42: Lesion of preoptic nucleus of hypothalamus is associated with which of the following conditions?
- A. Impaired thermoregulation
- B. Increased body temperature
- C. Hyperthermia (Correct Answer)
- D. Normal thermoregulation
Explanation: ***Hyperthermia*** - The **preoptic nucleus** of the anterior hypothalamus is the primary **heat-loss center** containing warm-sensitive neurons. - Lesion of this area impairs **heat dissipation mechanisms** (sweating, cutaneous vasodilation), preventing the body from lowering its temperature. - Results in **hyperthermia** - a pathological elevation of core body temperature due to failure of heat dissipation, not a change in set point. - This is the **most specific and clinically accurate** term for this condition. *Impaired thermoregulation* - While technically true, this is too **broad and non-specific**. - Impaired thermoregulation could refer to inability to either increase or decrease temperature. - In medical terminology, we use more specific terms like "hyperthermia" to describe the actual clinical condition. *Increased body temperature* - This is a **general descriptive term** rather than a specific clinical diagnosis. - While the body temperature is indeed increased, **hyperthermia** is the precise medical term that indicates the mechanism (impaired heat dissipation). - Less specific than "hyperthermia" for exam purposes. *Normal thermoregulation* - Clearly incorrect - a lesion in the primary thermoregulatory center would **abolish normal temperature control**. - The preoptic nucleus is essential for detecting and responding to temperature changes.
Question 43: Salty taste is due to?
- A. Sodium ion channels (Correct Answer)
- B. Calcium ion channels
- C. G-protein coupled receptors
- D. Proton channels
Explanation: ***Sodium ion channels*** - The sensation of **salty taste** is primarily mediated by the direct influx of **sodium ions (Na+)** into taste receptor cells. - This influx leads to **depolarization** of the cell membrane, triggering neurotransmitter release and signaling to the brain. *Calcium ion channels* - While calcium ions are crucial for various cellular processes, including **neurotransmitter release**, they are not the primary initiators of the salty taste transduction pathway. - Calcium channels are more directly involved in the sensation of **umami** and **sweet tastes**, often via G-protein coupled receptors. *G-protein coupled receptors* - **G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs)** are responsible for the transduction of **sweet, bitter, and umami tastes**. - They are not involved in the direct detection of **saline compounds**, which operate through ion channels. *Proton channels* - **Proton channels (H+)** are primarily involved in the sensation of **sour taste**. - The influx of protons causes intracellular acidification, leading to cell depolarization.
Question 44: What is the primary factor that determines the resting membrane potential in a nerve fiber?
- A. Is equal to the resting potential of cardiac muscle fibers.
- B. Can be accurately measured using intracellular electrodes.
- C. Increases with elevated extracellular potassium concentration.
- D. Is primarily determined by the equilibrium potential of potassium ions. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Is primarily determined by the equilibrium potential of potassium ions*** - The **resting membrane potential** of a nerve fiber is predominantly set by the efflux of **potassium ions** through leak channels, bringing the membrane potential close to potassium's equilibrium potential. - The high permeability of the nerve membrane to **potassium** at rest means that K+ movement is the most significant factor influencing the potential. *Is equal to the resting potential of cardiac muscle fibers* - **Cardiac muscle fibers** have a distinct resting potential (around -80 to -90 mV) influenced by different ion channels and regulatory mechanisms compared to nerve fibers (around -70 mV). - While both involve potassium currents, their specific conductances and the contribution of other ions differ significantly. *Can be accurately measured using intracellular electrodes* - While **intracellular electrodes** are indeed used to measure the resting membrane potential, this statement describes a measurement method, not the *primary factor* that determines the potential itself. - The method of measurement does not explain the underlying biophysical mechanisms that establish the potential. *Increases with elevated extracellular potassium concentration* - An **elevated extracellular potassium concentration** would make the resting membrane potential *less negative* (depolarize) rather than "increase" it in the typical sense of a more positive value. - This is because a higher external K+ reduces the concentration gradient for potassium efflux, bringing the membrane potential closer to zero.
Question 45: During acclimatization to hot environments, increased sweating efficiency is primarily due to enhanced sensitivity of which receptors?
- A. Adrenergic receptors
- B. Noradrenergic receptors
- C. Dopaminergic receptors
- D. Cholinergic receptors (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cholinergic receptors*** - **Sweat glands** are innervated by **sympathetic postganglionic fibers** that release **acetylcholine**, acting on **muscarinic cholinergic receptors** to stimulate sweating. - During **acclimatization**, the sweat glands become more sensitive to acetylcholine, resulting in **increased sweating efficiency** and a lower threshold temperature for sweating. *Adrenergic receptors* - Adrenergic receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system's response to **norepinephrine** and **epinephrine**, mediating effects like **vasoconstriction** and **bronchodilation**. - They are not the primary receptors responsible for stimulating **eccrine sweat gland** secretion in response to heat. *Noradrenergic receptors* - **Noradrenergic receptors** are a type of adrenergic receptor that respond to **norepinephrine** (noradrenaline). - While sympathetic activity increases in hot environments, the primary stimulation of **sweat glands** is via **acetylcholine** acting on cholinergic receptors, not noradrenergic receptors. *Dopaminergic receptors* - **Dopaminergic receptors** respond to **dopamine** and are involved in various functions including **motor control**, **reward**, and **neuroendocrine regulation**. - These receptors are not directly involved in the physiological regulation of **sweating efficiency** during heat acclimatization.
Question 46: Which substrate is both secreted and filtered by the kidneys?
- A. Glucose
- B. Urea
- C. Uric Acid (Correct Answer)
- D. Na+
Explanation: ***Uric Acid*** - **Uric acid** is freely **filtered** at the glomerulus. - It undergoes both **secretion** and reabsorption in the renal tubules, making it a substrate that is both secreted and filtered. *Glucose* - **Glucose** is freely **filtered** at the glomerulus but is almost completely **reabsorbed** in the proximal tubule under normal physiological conditions. - It is not actively secreted by the renal tubules. *Urea* - **Urea** is freely **filtered** at the glomerulus. - It undergoes **reabsorption** (especially in the medullary collecting duct) and some facilitated diffusion, but significant active secretion is not its primary handling mechanism. *Na+* - **Sodium (Na+)** is freely **filtered** at the glomerulus in large quantities. - Its renal handling is dominated by extensive **reabsorption** throughout the nephron, which is crucial for fluid balance and blood pressure regulation, with no active secretion.
Question 47: Motilin secretion is decreased in which of the following states?
- A. Thirsty
- B. Starving
- C. Ingested meal (Correct Answer)
- D. Interdigestive state
Explanation: ***Ingested meal*** - Motilin secretion is **decreased after a meal** due to the presence of food in the small intestine, which stimulates other gastrointestinal hormones and neuronal reflexes that inhibit motilin release. - The primary role of motilin is to stimulate **gastric and intestinal motility** during fasting, clearing residual food and preventing bacterial overgrowth, making its activity counterproductive during digestion. *Thirsty* - **Thirst** is primarily regulated by antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, and it does not directly impact motilin secretion. - Motilin's main function is related to gut motility, largely independent of the body's hydration status. *Starving* - Motilin levels tend to be **higher during fasting or starvation**, as it plays a crucial role in initiating the **migrating motor complex (MMC)**, which sweeps undigested material through the gastrointestinal tract. - This activity prevents bacterial overgrowth and prepares the gut for the next meal; thus, its secretion is increased, not decreased. *Interdigestive state* - The **interdigestive state** refers to the period between meals, which is synonymous with a fasting or starving state. - During this period, motilin secretion is **increased** to stimulate the **migrating motor complex (MMC)**, which is essential for gut cleansing.
Question 48: Which type of carbohydrate is absorbed most efficiently from the gastrointestinal tract?
- A. Disaccharides
- B. Polysaccharides
- C. Monosaccharides (Correct Answer)
- D. 5-carbon sugars
Explanation: ***Monosaccharides*** - **Monosaccharides**, like glucose and fructose, are the simplest forms of carbohydrates and do not require further digestion. - They are directly absorbed into the bloodstream from the intestinal lumen via specific **transporters** on the enterocyte membrane. *Disaccharides* - **Disaccharides**, such as sucrose and lactose, must first be broken down into their constituent monosaccharides by **brush border enzymes** (e.g., lactase, sucrase) before absorption can occur. - This additional enzymatic step makes their absorption less efficient than that of monosaccharides. *Polysaccharides* - **Polysaccharides**, including starch and glycogen, are complex carbohydrates requiring extensive digestion by enzymes like **amylase** in the mouth and small intestine. - This multi-step breakdown into monosaccharides is the least efficient process and takes the longest time. *5-carbon sugars* - While 5-carbon sugars (**pentoses**) like ribose and deoxyribose are monosaccharides and can be absorbed, they are not a primary energy source in the diet and are not absorbed as efficiently or in as large quantities as the metabolically more significant 6-carbon monosaccharides (hexoses like glucose). - The question asks which *type* of carbohydrate is most efficiently absorbed, and **monosaccharides** as a general category (including 6-carbon sugars) are the most efficient.
Question 49: What is the average progressive velocity of human sperm under standard laboratory conditions?
- A. 1-3 mm/min (Correct Answer)
- B. 4-6 mm/min
- C. 6-9 mm/min
- D. 10-13 mm/min
Explanation: ***1-3 mm/min*** - The typical average progressive velocity of human sperm, categorized as **Grade A (rapid progressive)** motility, ranges from **25 micrometers/second or faster**, which translates to approximately 1-3 mm/minute. - This velocity is crucial for sperm to traverse the female reproductive tract and reach the ovum for fertilization. *4-6 mm/min* - This velocity range is significantly faster than the **average progressive velocity** observed in viable human sperm under standard laboratory conditions. - While some individual sperm may achieve higher speeds, this range is not representative of the **average progressive motility** of a healthy sperm population. *6-9 mm/min* - This progressive velocity is exceptionally high and not typically observed as the average for human sperm, even for highly motile sperm. - Such a high velocity would indicate an **abnormally fast movement** not compatible with biological norms for average progressive motility. *10-13 mm/min* - This range represents an extremely rapid progressive velocity for human sperm, well beyond physiological averages. - It does not align with the standard measurements for **progressive motility**, which are generally much lower.
Question 50: What is the primary physiological effect of increased 2,3-DPG on hemoglobin?
- A. Increased affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen
- B. Decreased affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen (Correct Answer)
- C. Left shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve
- D. Right shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve
Explanation: ***Decreased affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen*** - **2,3-Diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)** binds to the beta subunits of deoxyhemoglobin, stabilizing the **deoxygenated state** and thus **reducing hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen**. - This is the **primary molecular mechanism** by which 2,3-DPG exerts its effect, facilitating **oxygen unloading** in peripheral tissues. - This decreased affinity manifests graphically as a **right shift** in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve. *Increased affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen* - This is incorrect because 2,3-DPG specifically works to **decrease hemoglobin's affinity** for oxygen, promoting oxygen release. - Increased affinity would mean oxygen is held more tightly, which is counterproductive for **oxygen delivery** to tissues. *Left shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve* - A **left shift** indicates **increased affinity** of hemoglobin for oxygen, meaning oxygen is held more tightly. - Since 2,3-DPG decreases affinity, it causes a **right shift**, not a left shift. *Right shift of oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve* - While this is the **graphical representation** of 2,3-DPG's effect, it is a **consequence** of the primary molecular mechanism (decreased affinity). - A right shift signifies that for any given partial pressure of oxygen, hemoglobin is **less saturated** with oxygen, reflecting the decreased affinity caused by 2,3-DPG binding.