NEET-PG 2012 Practice Questions

Q: Tall T waves on ECG are seen in:

Hyperkalemia. ***Hyperkalemia*** - **Tall, peaked T waves** are a hallmark ECG finding in early to moderate **hyperkalemia**, reflecting altered repolarization due to elevated extracellular potassium [1]. - As potassium levels rise further, other ECG changes may include a **prolonged PR interval**, **widened QRS complex**, and ultimately a **sine wave pattern**, leading to ventricular arrhythmias [1]. *Hypokalemia* - This condition is typically associated with **flattened or inverted T waves**, prominent **U waves**, and a **prolonged QT interval** on the ECG [1]. - The ECG changes in hypokalemia reflect delayed repolarization and increased myocardial instability [1]. *Hypercalcemia* - **Hypercalcemia** is characterized by a **shortened QT interval** on the ECG due to accelerated ventricular repolarization. - T waves, if affected, are usually not tall or peaked but may be wider or slightly less prominent. *Hypocalcemia* - **Hypocalcemia** typically leads to a **prolonged QT interval** on the ECG, primarily due to a lengthened ST segment. - While it can manifest with various T wave morphologies, it does not typically cause the characteristic tall, peaked T waves seen in hyperkalemia.

Q: Kussmaul's sign is classically described in:

Chronic inflammatory heart condition. ***Chronic inflammatory heart condition*** - **Kussmaul's sign**, characterized by a paradoxical rise in **jugular venous pressure (JVP)** during inspiration, is classically seen in conditions like **constrictive pericarditis** [1], which is often a chronic inflammatory heart condition. - This sign reflects the heart's inability to accommodate increased venous return during inspiration due to a rigid, fibrotic pericardium [1]. *Acute cardiac compression* - **Cardiac tamponade** [3], a form of acute cardiac compression, typically presents with **pulsus paradoxus** and muffled heart sounds, not Kussmaul's sign. - While it involves elevated JVP, the paradoxical inspiratory rise is less common compared to constrictive pericarditis. *Acute myocardial damage* - **Acute myocardial infarction** [2] or myocarditis, leading to acute myocardial damage, primarily causes symptoms related to reduced cardiac output and arrhythmias, such as chest pain or dyspnea. - Kussmaul's sign is not a typical feature of acute myocardial damage because the pericardium is usually not rigid or constricting. *Chronic ventricular stiffening* - Conditions involving **chronic ventricular stiffening**, such as **restrictive cardiomyopathy**, can mimic some features of constrictive pericarditis, including elevated JVP and sometimes Kussmaul's sign. - However, the classic description and most prominent cases of Kussmaul's sign are associated with external compression from a diseased pericardium rather than intrinsic myocardial stiffness, although differentiation can be challenging.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a common pathogen causing pneumonia in COPD patients?

Legionella spp. ***Legionella spp*** - While *Legionella* can cause pneumonia, it is **not a common pathogen** specifically in COPD exacerbations or community-acquired pneumonia in these patients [1]. - *Legionella* pneumonia often presents with **extrapulmonary symptoms** like diarrhea and hyponatremia and is typically associated with contaminated water sources [1]. *Haemophilus influenzae* - This is a very common pathogen causing both **acute exacerbations of COPD (AECOPD)** and pneumonia in patients with underlying COPD [1]. - COPD patients often have **impaired mucociliary clearance** and altered airway microbiology, making them susceptible to *H. influenzae* colonization and infection [1]. *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* - *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* is an important pathogen in **severe COPD exacerbations**, especially in patients with frequent exacerbations, bronchiectasis, or prior antibiotic use. - Its presence often indicates a **more severe disease course** and requires specific antibiotic coverage. *Klebsiella pneumoniae* - *Klebsiella pneumoniae* is a significant cause of **pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals**, including those with COPD, diabetes, or alcoholism. - It often leads to **severe, necrotizing pneumonia**, particularly in the upper lobes, and can cause abscess formation.

Q: Fibrosis of upper lobe is due to

ABPA. ***ABPA*** - **Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)** is a hypersensitivity reaction to *Aspergillus* species, particularly *A. fumigatus*, which colonize the airways, and commonly leads to **upper lobe fibrosis** and **bronchiectasis**. - The chronic inflammation and recurrent immune responses result in progressive airway damage, characterized on imaging by centrilobular nodules, mucoid impaction, and ultimately **fibrosis in the upper lobes**. Other conditions causing similar upper lobe conglomerate masses include Progressive Massive Fibrosis (PMF) seen in coal worker's pneumoconiosis [1]. *Certain types of pneumonia* - While pneumonia can cause inflammation, it typically leads to **lobar consolidation** or diffuse infiltrates rather than specific upper lobe fibrosis. - **Resolution of pneumonia** usually occurs without significant fibrotic changes, unlike chronic conditions that predispose to fibrosis. *Bronchiectasis* - **Bronchiectasis** is a general term for permanent dilation of the bronchi, which can occur in any lobe, but alone **does not directly cause upper lobe fibrosis** as a primary etiology. - While it often coexists with conditions that cause fibrosis (like ABPA or CF), it's a consequence of airway damage, not the direct cause of the fibrotic process itself; it can however predispose to recurrent infections leading to scarring. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - **Rheumatoid arthritis** can cause interstitial lung disease, including **pulmonary fibrosis**, but it typically manifests as a **basilar or diffuse pattern** rather than predominantly upper lobe fibrosis [2]. - The fibrosis associated with RA-ILD is commonly of a **usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP)** or **non-specific interstitial pneumonia (NSIP)** pattern [2].

Q: Expulsive hemorrhage in cataract surgery is from?

Ciliary artery. ***Ciliary artery*** - Expulsive hemorrhage is a rare but devastating complication, typically resulting from the rupture of a **posterior ciliary artery** within the choroid. - This arterial rupture leads to a sudden, massive increase in intraocular pressure and extrusion of intraocular contents. *Vortex vein* - **Vortex veins** drain the choroid, and while their rupture could lead to hemorrhage, it is less likely to cause the highly pressurized, expulsive nature of a choroidal hemorrhage. - Hemorrhage from a vortex vein is generally less severe and less rapid in onset compared to arterial bleeding. *Choroidal vein* - **Choroidal veins** are part of the venous drainage system; bleeding from these vessels would typically be lower pressure and less likely to cause an expulsive hemorrhage. - Venous bleeds are generally slower and do not generate the rapid, violent pressure increase characteristic of expulsive hemorrhage. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the rupture of a ciliary artery is the direct cause of expulsive hemorrhage. - The other options are incorrect for the reasons stated above.

Q: Coloboma, most common site?

Inferonasal. ***Inferonasal*** - This is the **most common site** for coloboma because it corresponds to the location of the **fetal optic fissure** (choroidal fissure) during development. - Coloboma results from the **incomplete closure** of the fetal optic fissure, which normally occurs around the fifth to seventh week of gestation. *Superotemporal* - While coloboma can occur in various locations, the **superotemporal quadrant** is not the typical site. - Colobomas are usually found in areas consistent with the path of the optic fissure. *Inferotemporal* - This location is less common for colobomas compared to the inferonasal region. - The inferotemporal region does not align with the usual embryological fusion line of the optic fissure. *Superonasal* - Colobomas in the **superonasal quadrant** are rare. - This area is typically unaffected because it is not part of the fetal optic fissure's normal closure pathway.

Q: At what age do children typically begin to say short sentences of 4-5 words?

4 years. ***4 years*** - By this age, children typically have a vocabulary of **1,500-2,500 words** and can construct sentences of **4-5 words**, demonstrating improved grammatical structure and complexity. - They can also tell simple stories and use pronouns and plurals correctly. *2 years* - Children at this age typically combine **two to three words** into short phrases, such as "more milk" or "daddy go." - Their vocabulary usually consists of about **50-200 words**, not enough for 4-5 word sentences. *3 years* - Three-year-olds usually speak in **three- to four-word sentences**, such as "I want big cookie." - Their vocabulary is typically around **900-1,000 words**, but they are still developing the complexity needed for consistent 4-5 word sentences. *5 years* - By age five, children can typically speak in much **longer and more complex sentences** (5-6+ words) and are mastering grammar rules. - They can comprehend and communicate more nuanced ideas, surpassing the milestone of 4-5 word sentences.

Q: Diarrhoea in a child of 12 months, dose of Zinc is?

20 mg / 10 - 14 day. **20 mg / 10 - 14 day** - For children aged **12 months and older**, the recommended dose of zinc for acute diarrhea is **20 mg** once daily for **10 to 14 days**. - This dosage helps reduce the severity and duration of diarrheal episodes and prevents future occurrences. *1 mg / 10 - 14 day* - This dosage is **too low** and would be ineffective in treating or preventing the future incidence of diarrhea in a 12-month-old child. - Subtherapeutic doses will not provide the necessary micronutrient support during diarrheal illness. *10 mg / 10 - 14 day* - This is the recommended dose for children **under 6 months of age**, not for a 12-month-old child. - While it's a correct dosage for a different age group, it is an insufficient dose for a 12-month-old. *15 mg / 10 - 14 day* - This dose is **not the standard recommendation** by major health organizations like WHO or UNICEF for any age group for treating diarrhea. - It falls between the standard dosages and may not provide optimal benefit.

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding anemia of prematurity?

Low reticulocyte response. ***Low reticulocyte response*** - Anemia of prematurity results from several factors, including a **blunted erythropoietin response** to anemia, **shortened red blood cell lifespan**, and **rapid growth with increased blood volume requirements**. - The combination of these factors leads to **insufficient red blood cell production** by the bone marrow, reflected by a **low reticulocyte count** despite anemia. - This low reticulocyte response is a **key diagnostic feature** distinguishing it from hemolytic anemias. *Hemoglobin level <10 gm/dL* - While premature infants with anemia of prematurity develop low hemoglobin, a specific cutoff of **<10 gm/dL is not universally definitive** for diagnosis. - Hemoglobin nadirs vary based on **gestational age** (more premature = lower nadir) and occur at different postnatal ages. - Transfusion thresholds are determined by **clinical stability and symptoms**, not just a single Hb value. *10 ml/kg packed cell transfusion* - This describes a **treatment intervention**, not a characteristic of the disease itself. - Transfusion volume is typically **10-15 ml/kg** when indicated, but the decision to transfuse depends on gestational age, postnatal age, clinical stability, and symptoms like apnea or bradycardia. - This is **not a defining feature** of anemia of prematurity. *Microcytic hypochromic type* - Anemia of prematurity is typically **normocytic, normochromic**, not microcytic hypochromic. - **Microcytic hypochromic** anemia suggests **iron deficiency**, which is a different condition. - The red cells in anemia of prematurity have **normal size (MCV) and normal hemoglobin content** per cell.

Q: A baby is born at 27 weeks of gestation and required mechanical ventilation for 4 weeks and CPAP for 1 week. He was maintained on room air subsequently. Based on the new definition of Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia (BPD), and assuming he remained on room air at 36 weeks post-menstrual age, what is the most appropriate classification of his condition?

Mild BPD. ***Mild BPD*** - The infant required respiratory support (ventilation and CPAP) for an extended period (5 weeks total, far exceeding the 28-day oxygen requirement for BPD diagnosis). - Being on **room air at 36 weeks post-menstrual age** despite prior prolonged support classifies his condition as mild BPD according to the diagnostic criteria. - For infants born <32 weeks gestation, mild BPD is defined as needing oxygen for ≥28 days but breathing room air at 36 weeks PMA. *Moderate BPD* - Moderate BPD would be diagnosed if the infant still required **less than 30% oxygen (FiO2 0.22-0.29) at 36 weeks post-menstrual age**. - This infant was on room air (FiO2 0.21), indicating less severe lung disease than moderate BPD. *Severe BPD* - Severe BPD involves the ongoing need for **30% or greater oxygen (FiO2 ≥0.30)** and/or positive pressure support (CPAP/ventilator) at 36 weeks post-menstrual age. - This infant did not meet these criteria, as he was on room air without any support. *No BPD* - No BPD would require **less than 28 days of oxygen/respiratory support** during the neonatal period. - This infant required mechanical ventilation for 4 weeks and CPAP for 1 week (total 5 weeks = 35 days), clearly exceeding the 28-day threshold for BPD diagnosis. - Despite being stable on room air at 36 weeks PMA, the prolonged earlier support establishes the diagnosis of BPD (mild severity).

Question 1

Tall T waves on ECG are seen in:

Accepted Answer

Hyperkalemia

Answer

Hypokalemia

Answer

Hypercalcemia

Answer

Hypocalcemia

Question 2

Kussmaul's sign is classically described in:

Accepted Answer

Chronic inflammatory heart condition

Answer

Acute myocardial damage

Answer

Acute cardiac compression

Answer

Chronic ventricular stiffening

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT a common pathogen causing pneumonia in COPD patients?

Accepted Answer

Legionella spp

Answer

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Answer

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer

Haemophilus influenzae

Question 4

Fibrosis of upper lobe is due to

Accepted Answer

ABPA

Answer

Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer

Certain types of pneumonia

Answer

Bronchiectasis

Question 5

Expulsive hemorrhage in cataract surgery is from?

Accepted Answer

Ciliary artery

Answer

Vortex vein

Answer

Choroidal vein

Answer

None of the options

Question 6

Coloboma, most common site?

Accepted Answer

Inferonasal

Answer

Superotemporal

Answer

Inferotemporal

Answer

Superonasal

Question 7

At what age do children typically begin to say short sentences of 4-5 words?

Accepted Answer

4 years

Answer

2 years

Answer

3 years

Answer

5 years

Question 8

Diarrhoea in a child of 12 months, dose of Zinc is?

Accepted Answer

20 mg / 10 - 14 day

Answer

1 mg / 10 - 14 day

Answer

10 mg / 10 - 14 day

Answer

15 mg / 10 - 14 day

Question 9

Which of the following statements is true regarding anemia of prematurity?

Accepted Answer

Low reticulocyte response

Answer

Hemoglobin level <10 gm/dL

Answer

10 ml/kg packed cell transfusion

Answer

Microcytic hypochromic type

Question 10

A baby is born at 27 weeks of gestation and required mechanical ventilation for 4 weeks and CPAP for 1 week. He was maintained on room air subsequently. Based on the new definition of Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia (BPD), and assuming he remained on room air at 36 weeks post-menstrual age, what is the most appropriate classification of his condition?

Accepted Answer

Mild BPD

Answer

Moderate BPD

Answer

Severe BPD

Answer

No BPD

NEET-PG 2012

Internal Medicine

Ophthalmology

Pediatrics