Dental
1 questionsEpulis arises from -
NEET-PG 2012 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 831: Epulis arises from -
- A. Enamel
- B. Root of teeth
- C. Gingiva (Correct Answer)
- D. Pulp
Explanation: ***Gingiva*** - **Epulis** refers to a localized, tumor-like enlargement of the **gingiva** (gum tissue). - These lesions are typically inflammatory or reactive in nature, arising from the connective tissue of the gum. *Enamel* - **Enamel** is the hard, outermost protective layer of the tooth crown, which is of ectodermal origin. - Lesions originating from enamel itself are rare and typically involve developmental defects or structural damage, not soft tissue growths like epulis. *Root of teeth* - The **root of the teeth** is embedded in the alveolar bone and covered by cementum, with the surrounding structures including the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone. - While infections or cysts can arise from the root, epulis specifically describes a growth of the overlying **gingival tissue**. *Pulp* - The **pulp** is the soft tissue inside the tooth containing nerves, blood vessels, and connective tissue. - Pathologies originating from the pulp are typically infectious (pulpitis), degenerative, or involve growth of odontogenic tissues (e.g., pulp polyps within the tooth chamber), not surface gingival lesions.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsMigraine is due to
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 831: Migraine is due to
- A. Cortical spreading depression (Correct Answer)
- B. Dilatation of cranial blood vessels
- C. Constriction of cranial blood vessels
- D. Inflammation of the meninges
Explanation: ***Cortical spreading depression*** - The current understanding is that **cortical spreading depression (CSD)** is the initiating event in migraine with aura, characterized by a wave of neuronal and glial depolarization that spreads across the cerebral cortex, leading to a temporary shutdown of neuronal activity [1]. - CSD is thought to activate the **trigeminal nerve**, subsequently causing the release of inflammatory neuropeptides and contributing to the pain phase [1]. *Dilatation of cranial blood vessels* - While **vasodilation of intracranial and extracranial blood vessels** does occur during the headache phase of migraine, it is now considered a *consequence* of the initial neurological events rather than the primary cause [1]. - This vasodilation contributes to the throbbing sensation of migraine pain but does not explain the aura or the initiation of the attack. *Constriction of cranial blood vessels* - **Vasoconstriction** was previously thought to be the cause of the migraine aura, but this theory has largely been disproven. - While some temporary constriction may precede CSD, it is not the primary mechanism behind the migraine attack. *Inflammation of the meninges* - While **neurogenic inflammation** of the meninges, involving the release of inflammatory mediators like **calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP)**, does play a role in sensitizing the trigeminal system and contributing to migraine pain, it is a downstream effect. - It is not the initial trigger for a migraine attack but rather part of the pain pathway activated by events like CSD.
Radiology
1 questionsA polytrauma patient's CT brain shows a crescent-shaped extra-axial collection with a concave inner margin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
NEET-PG 2012 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 831: A polytrauma patient's CT brain shows a crescent-shaped extra-axial collection with a concave inner margin. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. EDH
- B. SDH (Correct Answer)
- C. Contusion
- D. Diffuse axonal injury
Explanation: ***SDH*** - The image shows a **crescent-shaped collection** of hemorrhage with a concave inner margin, consistent with a **subdural hematoma** (SDH). - SDHs result from the tearing of **bridging veins** and typically conform to the brain's surface, crossing suture lines but not limited by bony sutures. *EDH* - An **epidural hematoma (EDH)** characteristically appears as a **lenticular** or **biconvex** shape on CT, not crescent-shaped. - EDHs are typically caused by arterial bleeding, often from the **middle meningeal artery**, and are limited by cranial sutures. *Contusion* - A **contusion** is brain tissue bruising that appears as **heterogeneous areas** of hemorrhage and edema within the brain parenchyma itself. - It would not manifest as a distinct extra-axial collection with a smooth, concave margin. *Diffuse axonal injury* - **Diffuse axonal injury (DAI)** involves widespread microscopic damage to axons, often at the gray-white matter junction. - It may appear as *punctate hemorrhages* or **small lesions** at these junctions on CT, but often the CT can be normal, and it would not present as a large extra-axial collection.
Surgery
7 questionsWhich of the following statements about keloids is true?
A female patient who underwent surgery for abdominal intestinal perforation presents on the 5th postoperative day with serous discharge and a gap in the wound. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Ogilvie's syndrome most commonly involves
Spigelian hernia is
Which of the following is NOT a standard component of the triple test for breast cancer detection?
Diversion of urine is best done at
Which of the following is not considered a contraindication for pancreaticoduodenectomy?
NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 831: Which of the following statements about keloids is true?
- A. Local recurrence is common after excision. (Correct Answer)
- B. They undergo malignant transformation frequently.
- C. They occur equally across all ethnic groups.
- D. They remain confined to the original wound boundaries.
Explanation: ***Local recurrence is common after excision*** - Keloids are characterized by an overgrowth of **scar tissue** that extends beyond the original wound boundaries. - Due to their aggressive fibrous nature and growth factors, **surgical excision alone often leads to recurrence**, sometimes even larger than the original keloid [1]. *They undergo malignant transformation frequently* - Keloids are **benign fibrous growths** and do **not typically undergo malignant transformation**. - While they can be cosmetically distressing and cause symptoms like itching or pain, they are not a precursor to cancer. *They occur equally across all ethnic groups* - Keloids show a significant **predisposition in individuals with darker skin pigmentation**, including those of African, Asian, and Hispanic descent [1]. - This suggests a **genetic component** influencing their occurrence, which is not equally distributed across all ethnic groups [1]. *They remain confined to the original wound boundaries* - This statement describes **hypertrophic scars**, not keloids. - Keloids are specifically defined by their tendency to **grow beyond the margins** of the original injury, invading surrounding healthy skin [1].
Question 832: A female patient who underwent surgery for abdominal intestinal perforation presents on the 5th postoperative day with serous discharge and a gap in the wound. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Wound dehiscence (Correct Answer)
- B. Enterocutaneous fistula
- C. Peritonitis
- D. Seroma
Explanation: ***Wound dehiscence*** - This is the most likely diagnosis given the presentation of **serous discharge** and a **gap in the wound** on the 5th postoperative day. - **Abdominal intestinal perforation** surgery is a risk factor, and the timing is consistent with **fascial dehiscence**, which can lead to evisceration if left untreated. *Enterocutaneous fistula* - This involves a connection between the **bowel lumen** and the **skin surface**, typically discharging enteric contents (e.g., bile, stool), not just serous fluid. - While a possibility in complicated abdominal surgeries, the description of a "gap in the wound" and serous discharge is more indicative of a **structural failure** of the wound. *Seroma* - A seroma is a collection of **serous fluid** under the skin flap or surgical incision, presenting as a **fluctuant swelling**, but it typically does not involve a "gap in the wound." - It would not usually present with a wound **disruption** that exposes underlying tissue; instead, it's an intact pocket of fluid. *Peritonitis* - This is an **inflammation of the peritoneum**, usually caused by infection, and presents with **severe abdominal pain**, fever, and diffuse tenderness, which are not mentioned here. - While an intestinal perforation would initially cause peritonitis, the current presentation focuses on the **wound site** rather than systemic or diffuse abdominal symptoms.
Question 833: Ogilvie's syndrome most commonly involves
- A. Cecum and right hemicolon (Correct Answer)
- B. Stomach
- C. Gallbladder
- D. Small intestine
Explanation: ***Cecum and right hemicolon*** - Ogilvie's syndrome, also known as acute colonic pseudo-obstruction, primarily affects the **large bowel**. - It most commonly presents with significant dilation of the **cecum and right hemicolon** due to impaired autonomic innervation *Stomach* - The stomach is not typically involved in Ogilvie's syndrome. Conditions affecting the stomach might include **gastroparesis** or **pyloric obstruction**, which have different pathophysiologies. - Ogilvie's syndrome is a disorder of **colonic motility**, not gastric motility. *Gallbladder* - The gallbladder is an organ of the **biliary system** and is not directly affected by Ogilvie's syndrome. - Conditions like **cholecystitis** or **cholelithiasis** involve the gallbladder but are unrelated to acute colonic pseudo-obstruction. *Small intestine* - While pseudo-obstruction can sometimes affect the small intestine (chronic intestinal pseudo-obstruction), Ogilvie's syndrome specifically refers to **acute colonic pseudo-obstruction**. - **Small bowel obstruction** caused by mechanical blockages is a distinct condition with different diagnostic features and management.
Question 834: Spigelian hernia is
- A. Through linea alba
- B. Through lateral border of rectus abdominis (Correct Answer)
- C. Through lateral wall of inguinal canal
- D. Through medial wall of inguinal canal
Explanation: ***Through lateral border of rectus abdominis*** - A **Spigelian hernia** protrudes through the **Spigelian aponeurosis**, which is the aponeurosis of the transversus abdominis muscle, primarily located along the **lateral border of the rectus abdominis muscle**. - Its typical location is often at the **semilunar line**, making it a challenging diagnosis due to its intermittent presentation and potential for strangulation. *Through linea alba* - A hernia through the **linea alba** (midline fibrous structure) is known as an **epigastric hernia** if above the umbilicus, or an **umbilical hernia** if at the umbilicus. - These are distinct from Spigelian hernias which are lateral to the rectus sheath. *Through lateral wall of inguinal canal* - This description typically refers to an **indirect inguinal hernia**, where the contents pass through the **deep inguinal ring**. - This type of hernia travels through the entire inguinal canal and emerges through the superficial ring. *Through medial wall of inguinal canal* - This would describe a **direct inguinal hernia**, which protrudes directly through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, specifically through **Hesselbach's triangle**. - This is medial to the inferior epigastric vessels, while Spigelian hernias are more superior and lateral.
Question 835: Which of the following is NOT a standard component of the triple test for breast cancer detection?
- A. USG/ mammography
- B. Breast self examination (Correct Answer)
- C. Clinical examination
- D. FNAC/ trucut biopsy
Explanation: ***Breast self examination*** - While **breast self-examination (BSE)** is important for **personal awareness** and **early detection**, it is not considered a standard component of the diagnostic "triple test" for breast cancer, which aims for definitive diagnosis. - The traditional triple test comprises **clinical examination**, **imaging** (mammography/ultrasound), and **pathological assessment** (FNAC/biopsy). *USG/ mammography* - **Mammography** and **ultrasonography (USG)** are crucial imaging modalities and an integral part of the **triple test**, providing detailed anatomical information about breast lesions. - They help characterize masses detected clinically and guide biopsy procedures, contributing significantly to diagnosis. *FNAC/ trucut biopsy* - **Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)** and **tru-cut biopsy** are essential for **histopathological diagnosis**, confirming malignancy and determining tumor characteristics. - This is the third component of the triple test, providing a definitive cellular or tissue diagnosis. *Clinical examination* - A **thorough clinical breast examination** by a healthcare professional is the first step in the triple test, identifying palpable masses or other suspicious signs. - It involves **inspection** and **palpation** to assess breast tissue and lymph nodes.
Question 836: Diversion of urine is best done at
- A. Jejunum
- B. Colon
- C. Ileum (Correct Answer)
- D. Caecum
Explanation: ***Ileum*** - The **ileum** is the most commonly used segment for urinary diversion due to its **mobility**, adequate vascular supply, and low complication rates. - Its relatively **low absorptive capacity** for electrolytes, particularly urea and ammonia, minimizes metabolic disturbances. *Jejunum* - The **jejunum** has a high absorptive capacity, which can lead to significant **electrolyte imbalances** (e.g., hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic acidosis) when urine is diverted into it. - It is also more prone to **stomal stenosis** and bowel obstruction compared to the ileum. *Colon* - While the colon can be used, particularly in continent diversions, it has a **thicker wall** and can be less mobile, making surgical creation of a conduit more challenging. - Similar to the jejunum, it has a **higher absorptive capacity** than the ileum, which can lead to electrolyte disturbances. *Caecum* - The **caecum** is a possible site for continent urinary diversions (e.g., cecal pouch), but it is not typically used for simple incontinent conduits due to its **anatomical position** and surgical complexity. - Its use often requires additional procedures to ensure continence and prevent reflux.
Question 837: Which of the following is not considered a contraindication for pancreaticoduodenectomy?
- A. Metastasis
- B. Portal vein involvement (Correct Answer)
- C. Extensive invasion of superior mesenteric vein
- D. Stage III CA head of pancreas
Explanation: ***Portal vein involvement*** - While extensive portal vein invasion can make the procedure challenging, **segmental portal vein involvement without complete occlusion or direct invasion of the superior mesenteric artery** is often considered resectable with venous reconstruction and is not an absolute contraindication. - Advancements in surgical techniques and patient selection criteria allow for **safe resection and reconstruction of the portal vein** in carefully chosen cases, improving outcomes for patients who would otherwise be deemed inoperable. *Metastasis* - The presence of **distant metastases** (e.g., to the liver, peritoneum, or lungs) unequivocally indicates **Stage IV disease** and is an absolute contraindication to pancreaticoduodenectomy, as the surgery would not offer a curative benefit. - In such cases, systemic chemotherapy or palliative care is the more appropriate treatment approach, as resection would not alter the overall prognosis. *Stage III CA head of pancreas* - **Stage III carcinoma of the head of the pancreas** often implies **locally advanced disease** that involves major peripancreatic vessels, such as the superior mesenteric artery or celiac axis. - This level of extensive vascular involvement typically renders the tumor **unresectable**, making pancreaticoduodenectomy surgically unfeasible and a contraindication. *Extensive invasion of superior mesenteric vein* - **Extensive involvement of the superior mesenteric vein (SMV)**, particularly if it completely occludes the lumen or involves a long segment making reconstruction impossible, is generally considered a contraindication to pancreaticoduodenectomy. - While limited SMV involvement with reconstructive options might be resectable, **extensive, unreconstructable invasion** signifies locally advanced disease beyond surgical cure.