Dental
1 questionsEpulis arises from -
NEET-PG 2012 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1081: Epulis arises from -
- A. Enamel
- B. Root of teeth
- C. Gingiva (Correct Answer)
- D. Pulp
Explanation: ***Gingiva*** - **Epulis** refers to a localized, tumor-like enlargement of the **gingiva** (gum tissue). - These lesions are typically inflammatory or reactive in nature, arising from the connective tissue of the gum. *Enamel* - **Enamel** is the hard, outermost protective layer of the tooth crown, which is of ectodermal origin. - Lesions originating from enamel itself are rare and typically involve developmental defects or structural damage, not soft tissue growths like epulis. *Root of teeth* - The **root of the teeth** is embedded in the alveolar bone and covered by cementum, with the surrounding structures including the periodontal ligament and alveolar bone. - While infections or cysts can arise from the root, epulis specifically describes a growth of the overlying **gingival tissue**. *Pulp* - The **pulp** is the soft tissue inside the tooth containing nerves, blood vessels, and connective tissue. - Pathologies originating from the pulp are typically infectious (pulpitis), degenerative, or involve growth of odontogenic tissues (e.g., pulp polyps within the tooth chamber), not surface gingival lesions.
Dermatology
1 questionsWhich of the following pairs of conditions is incorrectly matched?
NEET-PG 2012 - Dermatology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1081: Which of the following pairs of conditions is incorrectly matched?
- A. Erythema gyratum repens - malignancy
- B. Erythema marginatum - rheumatic fever
- C. Necrotic acral erythema - HCV
- D. Erythema chronicum migrans - malignancy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Erythema chronicum migrans - malignancy*** - **Erythema chronicum migrans** is the characteristic skin lesion of **Lyme disease**, caused by the bacterium *Borrelia burgdorferi*, transmitted by ticks. - It is not associated with malignancy; rather, its presence indicates a **bacterial infection** requiring antibiotic treatment. *Erythema marginatum - rheumatic fever* - **Erythema marginatum** is a **major diagnostic criterion** for **rheumatic fever**, a post-streptococcal inflammatory disease. - The rash is characterized by non-itchy, pink or red macules with raised, serpiginous borders that spread outwards, often transient. *Erythema gyratum repens - malignancy* - **Erythema gyratum repens** is a rare **paraneoplastic dermatosis** strongly associated with various internal malignancies, most commonly lung cancer. - It presents as a characteristic **wood-grain-like pattern** of concentric, migratory erythematous bands. *Necrotic acral erythema - HCV* - **Necrotic acral erythema** is a skin condition that predominantly affects the hands and feet and has a strong association with **hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection**. - It presents with violaceous plaques that can ulcerate and become necrotic, often in patients with chronic HCV.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhat is the first symptom of leprosy?
NEET-PG 2012 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1081: What is the first symptom of leprosy?
- A. Decreased vibration & position sense
- B. Decreased pain (Correct Answer)
- C. Decreased temperature
- D. Decreased light touch
Explanation: Decreased pain - Leprosy primarily targets Schwann cells in peripheral nerves, leading to sensory loss [1]. - The sensation of pain is typically affected earliest, often presenting as areas of numbness [1]. Decreased vibration & position sense - These sensations are typically carried by larger myelinated fibers, which tend to be affected later in the disease progression of leprosy. - While eventually involved, they are not usually the first symptom of sensory loss. Decreased temperature - Temperature sensation is also an early modality affected in leprosy, as it's carried by small, unmyelinated or thinly myelinated fibers [1]. - However, pain is often cited as the very first sensory loss, even preceding temperature changes in some cases. Decreased light touch - Light touch sensation is generally an early loss, similar to pain and temperature, due to damage to nerve fibers in the skin. - But, when distinguishing the absolute first symptom, pain perception often shows impairment even before light touch in affected areas.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhat is the best skin disinfectant for central line insertion?
NEET-PG 2012 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1081: What is the best skin disinfectant for central line insertion?
- A. Alcohol
- B. Cetrimide
- C. Chlorhexidine (Correct Answer)
- D. Povidone iodine
Explanation: ***Chlorhexidine*** - **Chlorhexidine (particularly >0.5% chlorhexidine in alcohol-based solution, such as 2% chlorhexidine in 70% isopropyl alcohol)** is the preferred antiseptic for central line insertion per **CDC guidelines**. - It provides **rapid onset of action**, persistent antimicrobial activity (lasting several hours), and broad-spectrum efficacy against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, fungi, and some viruses. - Superior to povidone-iodine in reducing catheter-related bloodstream infections (CRBSIs) in multiple studies. - Its mechanism involves disrupting bacterial cell membranes and coagulating intracellular contents, leading to sustained antimicrobial activity on the skin. *Povidone iodine* - **Povidone iodine** has a slower onset of action and is inactivated by organic matter (blood, serum), making it less effective for immediate, sustained disinfection compared to chlorhexidine. - While it has broad-spectrum activity, its residual effect is limited once it dries on the skin. - Studies show higher rates of catheter-related infections compared to chlorhexidine-based antiseptics. *Alcohol* - **Alcohol** (e.g., isopropyl alcohol or ethanol) provides good immediate microbial kill but lacks persistent activity, meaning its effect is short-lived as it evaporates quickly from the skin. - It works by denaturing proteins and dissolving lipids, but its rapid evaporation makes it insufficient as a sole agent for central line insertion. - Often used as a component in combination with chlorhexidine for optimal efficacy. *Cetrimide* - **Cetrimide** is a quaternary ammonium compound with antiseptic properties, but it has a narrower spectrum of activity and is less potent than chlorhexidine for surgical site preparation. - It is often used in combination with other agents or for general skin cleansing rather than for critical procedures like central line insertion. - Not recommended as a primary antiseptic for central venous catheter insertion.
Surgery
6 questionsDiversion of urine is best done at
Which of the following is NOT a standard component of the triple test for breast cancer detection?
Spigelian hernia is
Ogilvie's syndrome most commonly involves
A female patient who underwent surgery for abdominal intestinal perforation presents on the 5th postoperative day with serous discharge and a gap in the wound. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Which of the following statements about keloids is true?
NEET-PG 2012 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1081: Diversion of urine is best done at
- A. Jejunum
- B. Colon
- C. Ileum (Correct Answer)
- D. Caecum
Explanation: ***Ileum*** - The **ileum** is the most commonly used segment for urinary diversion due to its **mobility**, adequate vascular supply, and low complication rates. - Its relatively **low absorptive capacity** for electrolytes, particularly urea and ammonia, minimizes metabolic disturbances. *Jejunum* - The **jejunum** has a high absorptive capacity, which can lead to significant **electrolyte imbalances** (e.g., hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic acidosis) when urine is diverted into it. - It is also more prone to **stomal stenosis** and bowel obstruction compared to the ileum. *Colon* - While the colon can be used, particularly in continent diversions, it has a **thicker wall** and can be less mobile, making surgical creation of a conduit more challenging. - Similar to the jejunum, it has a **higher absorptive capacity** than the ileum, which can lead to electrolyte disturbances. *Caecum* - The **caecum** is a possible site for continent urinary diversions (e.g., cecal pouch), but it is not typically used for simple incontinent conduits due to its **anatomical position** and surgical complexity. - Its use often requires additional procedures to ensure continence and prevent reflux.
Question 1082: Which of the following is NOT a standard component of the triple test for breast cancer detection?
- A. USG/ mammography
- B. Breast self examination (Correct Answer)
- C. Clinical examination
- D. FNAC/ trucut biopsy
Explanation: ***Breast self examination*** - While **breast self-examination (BSE)** is important for **personal awareness** and **early detection**, it is not considered a standard component of the diagnostic "triple test" for breast cancer, which aims for definitive diagnosis. - The traditional triple test comprises **clinical examination**, **imaging** (mammography/ultrasound), and **pathological assessment** (FNAC/biopsy). *USG/ mammography* - **Mammography** and **ultrasonography (USG)** are crucial imaging modalities and an integral part of the **triple test**, providing detailed anatomical information about breast lesions. - They help characterize masses detected clinically and guide biopsy procedures, contributing significantly to diagnosis. *FNAC/ trucut biopsy* - **Fine needle aspiration cytology (FNAC)** and **tru-cut biopsy** are essential for **histopathological diagnosis**, confirming malignancy and determining tumor characteristics. - This is the third component of the triple test, providing a definitive cellular or tissue diagnosis. *Clinical examination* - A **thorough clinical breast examination** by a healthcare professional is the first step in the triple test, identifying palpable masses or other suspicious signs. - It involves **inspection** and **palpation** to assess breast tissue and lymph nodes.
Question 1083: Spigelian hernia is
- A. Through linea alba
- B. Through lateral border of rectus abdominis (Correct Answer)
- C. Through lateral wall of inguinal canal
- D. Through medial wall of inguinal canal
Explanation: ***Through lateral border of rectus abdominis*** - A **Spigelian hernia** protrudes through the **Spigelian aponeurosis**, which is the aponeurosis of the transversus abdominis muscle, primarily located along the **lateral border of the rectus abdominis muscle**. - Its typical location is often at the **semilunar line**, making it a challenging diagnosis due to its intermittent presentation and potential for strangulation. *Through linea alba* - A hernia through the **linea alba** (midline fibrous structure) is known as an **epigastric hernia** if above the umbilicus, or an **umbilical hernia** if at the umbilicus. - These are distinct from Spigelian hernias which are lateral to the rectus sheath. *Through lateral wall of inguinal canal* - This description typically refers to an **indirect inguinal hernia**, where the contents pass through the **deep inguinal ring**. - This type of hernia travels through the entire inguinal canal and emerges through the superficial ring. *Through medial wall of inguinal canal* - This would describe a **direct inguinal hernia**, which protrudes directly through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, specifically through **Hesselbach's triangle**. - This is medial to the inferior epigastric vessels, while Spigelian hernias are more superior and lateral.
Question 1084: Ogilvie's syndrome most commonly involves
- A. Cecum and right hemicolon (Correct Answer)
- B. Stomach
- C. Gallbladder
- D. Small intestine
Explanation: ***Cecum and right hemicolon*** - Ogilvie's syndrome, also known as acute colonic pseudo-obstruction, primarily affects the **large bowel**. - It most commonly presents with significant dilation of the **cecum and right hemicolon** due to impaired autonomic innervation *Stomach* - The stomach is not typically involved in Ogilvie's syndrome. Conditions affecting the stomach might include **gastroparesis** or **pyloric obstruction**, which have different pathophysiologies. - Ogilvie's syndrome is a disorder of **colonic motility**, not gastric motility. *Gallbladder* - The gallbladder is an organ of the **biliary system** and is not directly affected by Ogilvie's syndrome. - Conditions like **cholecystitis** or **cholelithiasis** involve the gallbladder but are unrelated to acute colonic pseudo-obstruction. *Small intestine* - While pseudo-obstruction can sometimes affect the small intestine (chronic intestinal pseudo-obstruction), Ogilvie's syndrome specifically refers to **acute colonic pseudo-obstruction**. - **Small bowel obstruction** caused by mechanical blockages is a distinct condition with different diagnostic features and management.
Question 1085: A female patient who underwent surgery for abdominal intestinal perforation presents on the 5th postoperative day with serous discharge and a gap in the wound. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Wound dehiscence (Correct Answer)
- B. Enterocutaneous fistula
- C. Peritonitis
- D. Seroma
Explanation: ***Wound dehiscence*** - This is the most likely diagnosis given the presentation of **serous discharge** and a **gap in the wound** on the 5th postoperative day. - **Abdominal intestinal perforation** surgery is a risk factor, and the timing is consistent with **fascial dehiscence**, which can lead to evisceration if left untreated. *Enterocutaneous fistula* - This involves a connection between the **bowel lumen** and the **skin surface**, typically discharging enteric contents (e.g., bile, stool), not just serous fluid. - While a possibility in complicated abdominal surgeries, the description of a "gap in the wound" and serous discharge is more indicative of a **structural failure** of the wound. *Seroma* - A seroma is a collection of **serous fluid** under the skin flap or surgical incision, presenting as a **fluctuant swelling**, but it typically does not involve a "gap in the wound." - It would not usually present with a wound **disruption** that exposes underlying tissue; instead, it's an intact pocket of fluid. *Peritonitis* - This is an **inflammation of the peritoneum**, usually caused by infection, and presents with **severe abdominal pain**, fever, and diffuse tenderness, which are not mentioned here. - While an intestinal perforation would initially cause peritonitis, the current presentation focuses on the **wound site** rather than systemic or diffuse abdominal symptoms.
Question 1086: Which of the following statements about keloids is true?
- A. Local recurrence is common after excision. (Correct Answer)
- B. They undergo malignant transformation frequently.
- C. They occur equally across all ethnic groups.
- D. They remain confined to the original wound boundaries.
Explanation: ***Local recurrence is common after excision*** - Keloids are characterized by an overgrowth of **scar tissue** that extends beyond the original wound boundaries. - Due to their aggressive fibrous nature and growth factors, **surgical excision alone often leads to recurrence**, sometimes even larger than the original keloid [1]. *They undergo malignant transformation frequently* - Keloids are **benign fibrous growths** and do **not typically undergo malignant transformation**. - While they can be cosmetically distressing and cause symptoms like itching or pain, they are not a precursor to cancer. *They occur equally across all ethnic groups* - Keloids show a significant **predisposition in individuals with darker skin pigmentation**, including those of African, Asian, and Hispanic descent [1]. - This suggests a **genetic component** influencing their occurrence, which is not equally distributed across all ethnic groups [1]. *They remain confined to the original wound boundaries* - This statement describes **hypertrophic scars**, not keloids. - Keloids are specifically defined by their tendency to **grow beyond the margins** of the original injury, invading surrounding healthy skin [1].