INI-CET 2021 — Psychiatry
4 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
A person often feels that his hands are contaminated and is forced to wash his hands. Recently, he feels this repetitive, distressing thought of repetitive hand washing has begun affecting his performance. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient?
Which of the following is not classified as OCD as per ICD 11?
Which of the following is a true statement about Korsakoff syndrome?
Which of the following is not an off-label use of risperidone?
INI-CET 2021 - Psychiatry INI-CET Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: A person often feels that his hands are contaminated and is forced to wash his hands. Recently, he feels this repetitive, distressing thought of repetitive hand washing has begun affecting his performance. Which of the following is the best treatment option for this patient?
- A. Exposure and response prevention (Correct Answer)
- B. Systematic desensitization
- C. Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)
- D. SSRI medication
Explanation: ***Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)*** - This is the **gold standard psychotherapy** for **Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)**, which is clearly indicated by the repetitive distressing thoughts (obsessions about contamination) and compulsive handwashing (compulsion). - ERP involves gradually exposing the patient to the feared situation (contamination) while preventing the compulsive ritual (handwashing), allowing habituation to anxiety. - **CBT with ERP is considered first-line treatment** alongside SSRIs, with ERP often preferred as initial **monotherapy** due to **durable effects** and **no medication side effects**. *Systematic Desensitization* - This therapy is primarily used to treat **phobias** and other **anxiety disorders** where a specific fear is present, rather than the obsession-compulsion cycle seen in OCD. - It involves gradual exposure with relaxation techniques, but **does not include response prevention**, which is crucial for breaking the compulsive cycle in OCD. *Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)* - DBT is primarily developed for **Borderline Personality Disorder** and conditions with severe emotional dysregulation, self-harm, and interpersonal difficulties. - While it can help with emotional regulation, it **does not specifically target the obsession-compulsion cycle** that is the core pathology of OCD. *SSRI Medication* - **SSRIs are also first-line treatment for OCD** and are highly effective, particularly at higher doses than those used for depression. - However, when comparing initial treatment options, **ERP (psychotherapy) is often preferred** as monotherapy because it produces **sustained improvement** even after treatment ends, with lower relapse rates compared to medication discontinuation. - **Combination therapy (ERP + SSRI)** is typically reserved for moderate-to-severe OCD or when monotherapy is insufficient. - In this scenario asking for "best treatment option," ERP represents the most specific and effective **psychotherapeutic intervention** for OCD.
Question 2: Which of the following is not classified as OCD as per ICD 11?
- A. Hypochondriac disorder
- B. Body dysmorphic disorder
- C. PTSD (Correct Answer)
- D. Trichotillomania
Explanation: ***PTSD*** - **Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)** is classified under **disorders specifically associated with stress** in ICD-11, not as an OCD-related disorder. - PTSD involves symptoms like re-experiencing the traumatic event, avoidance, and hyperarousal following exposure to a **traumatic event**. *Hypochondriac disorder* - In ICD-11, **hypochondriac disorder (illness anxiety disorder)** is reclassified under **obsessive-compulsive or related disorders**, focusing on preoccupation with having a serious illness. - This reflects the **compulsive checking** and **obsessive fears** associated with the condition. *Body dysmorphic disorder* - **Body dysmorphic disorder** is classified under **obsessive-compulsive or related disorders** in ICD-11. - It is characterized by **preoccupation with perceived flaws in physical appearance** and repetitive behaviors (e.g., mirror checking) in response to these concerns. *Trichotillomania* - **Trichotillomania (hair-pulling disorder)** is classified as an **obsessive-compulsive or related disorder** in ICD-11. - It involves **recurrent pulling out of one's hair** resulting in hair loss, despite repeated attempts to stop.
Question 3: Which of the following is a true statement about Korsakoff syndrome?
- A. Loss of implicit memory and immediate recall
- B. Triad of confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia
- C. Anterograde amnesia with loss of recent memory (Correct Answer)
- D. Loss of long-term memory but intact personality
Explanation: ***Anterograde amnesia with loss of recent memory*** - **Korsakoff syndrome** is primarily characterized by severe **anterograde amnesia**, making it difficult for patients to form new memories after the onset of the condition. - Patients often present with **significant loss of recent memory**, while older, remote memories may remain relatively preserved. *Loss of implicit memory and immediate recall* - While certain aspects of memory are impaired, immediate recall (e.g., repeating a short list of words immediately after hearing them) is often **relatively spared** in Korsakoff syndrome. - **Implicit memory**, which involves unconscious learning of skills and habits, is also typically **intact**, allowing patients to learn new motor skills despite their declarative memory deficits. *Triad of confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia* - This triad describes **Wernicke encephalopathy**, which is an acute neurological emergency caused by thiamine deficiency, often preceding Korsakoff syndrome. - Korsakoff syndrome, on the other hand, is a more **chronic neuropsychiatric condition** that often develops in individuals who have recovered from an episode of Wernicke encephalopathy. *Loss of long-term memory but intact personality* - While it primarily impacts the formation of new long-term memories, established **remote long-term memories** from before the illness are often **relatively preserved**. - While personality changes can occur due to the brain damage, the statement "intact personality" is **not a defining hallmark** used to differentiate Korsakoff syndrome from other memory disorders.
Question 4: Which of the following is not an off-label use of risperidone?
- A. Bipolar disorder (Correct Answer)
- B. PTSD
- C. OCD
- D. Dementia
Explanation: ***Bipolar disorder*** - **Risperidone** is FDA-approved for the treatment of **bipolar I disorder**, both as monotherapy and adjunctive therapy for acute manic or mixed episodes. - This means its use for bipolar disorder is an **on-label indication**, not an off-label use. *PTSD* - The use of risperidone for **post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)** is considered an **off-label use**, as it is not specifically approved by the FDA for this condition. - While atypical antipsychotics may be used in some cases for severe PTSD symptoms, especially those involving psychosis or severe agitation, it is not a primary or approved treatment. *OCD* - The use of risperidone as an adjunct in **obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)**, particularly in treatment-resistant cases, is an **off-label use**. - While some studies support its use for augmenting SSRIs in OCD, it is not an FDA-approved indication. *Dementia* - Using risperidone for behavioral symptoms associated with **dementia** (e.g., aggression, agitation) is generally considered an **off-label use**. - Although it may be prescribed for these symptoms, there are significant concerns regarding increased mortality risk in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, leading to specific warnings and limited official indications.