FMGE 2018 — Surgery
11 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
Time cut-off for diagnosis of Priapism is?
Most common immediate complication after splenectomy?
In gastric outlet obstruction in a peptic ulcer patient, the site of obstruction is most likely to be:
Which of the following is FALSE regarding deep second-degree burns?
Patient with history of blunt trauma to face presents with enophthalmos, diplopia on upward gaze and loss of sensitivity over cheek. True statement about this is:
Best treatment strategy for carcinoma of the anal canal:
Surgery is indicated in Ulcerative Colitis in all except?
Which of these is the best for management of a 3 cm stone in renal pelvis without evidence of hydronephrosis?
Marjolin's ulcer is:-
Dye for Sentinel Lymph Node Biopsy is injected in which of the following sites?
FMGE 2018 - Surgery FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Time cut-off for diagnosis of Priapism is?
- A. 2 hours
- B. 4 hours (Correct Answer)
- C. 3 hours
- D. 1 hour
Explanation: ***4 hours*** - A penile erection lasting longer than **4 hours** is the established cut-off for the diagnosis of **priapism**. - Prolonged erection beyond this duration can lead to **ischemia** and permanent cavernosal damage. *2 hours* - While concerning, an erection lasting 2 hours is typically not classified as priapism, which requires a longer duration to meet diagnostic criteria. - At this stage, the risk of significant ischemic injury is lower compared to longer durations. *3 hours* - An erection lasting 3 hours is still below the clinically defined threshold for priapism. - Although it warrants close monitoring, intervention is usually recommended once the 4-hour mark is reached. *1 hour* - An erection of 1 hour is generally considered a normal physiological response and does not meet the criteria for priapism. - This duration is insufficient to cause the microvascular damage and cellular changes associated with priapism.
Question 2: Most common immediate complication after splenectomy?
- A. Fistula
- B. Bleeding from gastric mucosa
- C. Pancreatitis
- D. Hemorrhage (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Hemorrhage** - **Hemorrhage** is the most common immediate complication due to the spleen's rich blood supply and its close proximity to major vessels such as the **splenic artery and vein**. - Surgical trauma, inadequate ligation, or dislodgment of ligatures can lead to significant blood loss post-splenectomy. *Fistula* - Fistula formation, such as a **pancreatic fistula**, can occur but is less common immediately post-splenectomy compared to hemorrhage. - This complication typically develops due to injury to the **pancreatic tail** during splenic dissection, leading to leakage of pancreatic enzymes. *Bleeding from gastric mucosa* - Bleeding from the **gastric mucosa** (e.g., from stress ulcers or gastritis) is a potential complication after any major surgery but is not the most common immediate complication specific to splenectomy. - While the stomach is in close proximity, direct injury to the gastric mucosa causing significant bleeding is less frequent than hemorrhage from the splenic bed. *Pancreatitis* - **Pancreatitis** can be a severe complication of splenectomy, resulting from injury to the **pancreatic tail** during the procedure. - While it can manifest immediately, its incidence is generally lower than that of hemorrhage.
Question 3: In gastric outlet obstruction in a peptic ulcer patient, the site of obstruction is most likely to be:
- A. Pylorus (Correct Answer)
- B. Duodenum
- C. Antrum
- D. Fundus
Explanation: ***Pylorus*** - The **pylorus** is the most common site of obstruction in gastric outlet obstruction caused by **peptic ulcer disease**. This is due to **scarring** and **inflammation** from chronic ulcers in or near this region. - Obstruction at the pylorus impedes the normal flow of digested food from the stomach into the **duodenum**. *Duodenum* - While ulcers can occur in the **duodenum** (specifically the duodenal bulb), they are less likely to cause a complete obstruction of the gastric outlet. - **Duodenal ulcers** are more common than gastric ulcers, but rarely lead to severe narrowing causing outlet obstruction. *Antrum* - The **gastric antrum** is part of the stomach leading up to the pylorus. Although ulcers can occur here, obstruction is less common compared to the **pylorus** itself. - Obstruction due to antral pathology typically occurs closer to the **pyloric sphincter**. *Fundus* - The **fundus** is the upper, dome-shaped part of the stomach. It is very rarely the site of obstruction in the context of gastric outlet obstruction from peptic ulcer disease. - Obstructions in the fundus are usually associated with other pathologies, such as **tumors** or **gastric volvulus**, not peptic ulcers causing outlet obstruction.
Question 4: Which of the following is FALSE regarding deep second-degree burns?
- A. Heal by scar deposition
- B. Painless
- C. Show blanching response (Correct Answer)
- D. Damage to deeper dermis
Explanation: ***Show blanching response (FALSE - Correct Answer)*** - This is the **FALSE statement**. Deep second-degree burns typically show **absent or diminished blanching response**, not a positive blanching response. - A **blanching response** indicates intact blood flow to the capillaries, which is typical of **superficial partial-thickness burns** only. - In **deep second-degree burns**, the damage extends deeper into the reticular dermis, involving the **dermal capillary plexus**, leading to loss of the blanching response. *Heal by scar deposition (TRUE)* - **Deep second-degree burns** damage the dermal elements responsible for regeneration, necessitating significant **scar deposition** for healing. - Due to destruction of many **dermal appendages** (hair follicles, sebaceous glands), complete regeneration without scarring is unlikely. *Painless (TRUE)* - While superficial burns are very painful, **deep second-degree burns** can be relatively **painless** due to destruction of **nerve endings** in the deeper dermis. - The variable destruction of **nociceptors** means patients may experience both painful areas and areas of reduced sensation or numbness. *Damage to deeper dermis (TRUE)* - **Deep second-degree burns** are characterized by injury extending into the **reticular dermis** (deeper layer), which lies beneath the papillary dermis. - This level of damage affects significant **dermal structures** including hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings.
Question 5: Patient with history of blunt trauma to face presents with enophthalmos, diplopia on upward gaze and loss of sensitivity over cheek. True statement about this is:
- A. Maxillary fracture
- B. Zygomatic bone is most likely injured
- C. It is a blow out fracture (Correct Answer)
- D. Frontal bone fracture
Explanation: ***It is a blow out fracture*** - The combination of **enophthalmos** (sunken eye), **diplopia on upward gaze** (due to **inferior rectus muscle entrapment**), and **loss of sensitivity over the cheek** (indicating infraorbital nerve involvement) are classic signs of an **orbital blowout fracture**. - These fractures typically involve the **orbital floor** or medial wall, caused by a direct impact to the orbit, which transmits force to the thin bony walls causing them to fracture while the orbital rim remains intact. *Maxillary fracture* - While the **infraorbital nerve** passes through the maxilla, a general maxillary fracture typically presents with broader symptoms such as **midfacial pain**, **swelling**, and **malocclusion**, which are not specified here. - Maxillary fractures often involve the **zygomaticomaxillary complex** or Le Fort patterns, which usually lead to more extensive facial abnormalities. *Zygomatic bone is most likely injured* - A **zygomatic arch fracture** would primarily cause **flattening of the cheek** and pain upon opening the mouth, not enophthalmos or diplopia on upward gaze. - While the zygoma forms part of the orbit, isolated zygomatic fractures rarely cause these specific orbital findings. *Frontal bone fracture* - **Frontal bone fractures** typically result from **high-impact trauma** and can involve the **frontal sinus**, leading to **forehead swelling**, **CSF rhinorrhea**, or **periorbital ecchymosis** (raccoon eyes). - The symptoms described are not characteristic of a frontal bone fracture.
Question 6: Best treatment strategy for carcinoma of the anal canal:
- A. Chemoradiation (Correct Answer)
- B. Radiation
- C. Surgery
- D. Chemotherapy
Explanation: ***Chemoradiation*** - Carcinoma of the anal canal is primarily treated with **chemoradiation** (combinations of chemotherapy and radiation therapy) as the standard of care to achieve **organ preservation**. - This combined approach improves local control and survival rates compared to either modality alone, making it the **primary curative strategy** for most localized anal canal cancers. *Radiation* - While radiation therapy is a crucial component of anal canal cancer treatment, using it alone (**monotherapy**) is generally less effective than chemoradiation. - **Local recurrence rates** are higher with radiation alone compared to combined modality treatment. *Surgery* - Surgery, specifically **abdominoperineal resection (APR)**, is typically reserved for **recurrent disease** or cases where chemoradiation fails. - Initial radical surgery for anal canal cancer leads to significant morbidity (e.g., permanent colostomy) and is generally avoided as a primary treatment due to the success of chemoradiation. *Chemotherapy* - Chemotherapy alone is **not curative** for localized anal canal carcinoma. - It is primarily used in combination with radiation (chemoradiation) to sensitize the tumor to radiation and improve local control, or as treatment for **metastatic disease**.
Question 7: Surgery is indicated in Ulcerative Colitis in all except?
- A. Colonic polyp (Correct Answer)
- B. Toxic megacolon
- C. Colonic obstruction
- D. Failure of medical management
Explanation: ***Colonic polyp*** - **Colonic polyps** in ulcerative colitis (UC) are often managed with **endoscopic polypectomy** and surveillance; surgery (colectomy) for polyps is typically reserved for those with **high-grade dysplasia** or **colorectal cancer**. - Simple polyps themselves, without high-grade dysplasia or malignancy, do not independently warrant surgical intervention in UC. *Toxic megacolon* - **Toxic megacolon** is a severe and life-threatening complication of UC characterized by rapid **colonic dilation** and systemic toxicity, which carries a high risk of perforation and mortality. - Urgent surgical intervention, often **subtotal colectomy**, is indicated to prevent perforation and manage sepsis. *Colonic obstruction* - Although uncommon in UC, **colonic obstruction** can occur due to strictures, fibrosis, or malignant transformation, causing symptoms like abdominal pain, distension, and vomiting. - When medically refractory or associated with significant symptoms or suspicion of malignancy, surgery is often required to relieve the obstruction. *Failure of medical management* - **Chronic medically refractory UC** is one of the most common indications for elective colectomy, accounting for approximately 20-30% of surgical cases. - When patients fail to respond to maximal medical therapy including corticosteroids, immunomodulators, and biologics, or experience steroid-dependent disease with unacceptable side effects, surgical intervention with **proctocolectomy** may be required for definitive management.
Question 8: Which of these is the best for management of a 3 cm stone in renal pelvis without evidence of hydronephrosis?
- A. Retrograde pyeloplasty
- B. ESWL
- C. PCNL (Correct Answer)
- D. Antegrade pyeloplasty
Explanation: ***PCNL*** - **Percutaneous nephrolithotomy (PCNL)** is the gold standard treatment for large renal stones (>2 cm) due to its high stone-free rates in a single procedure. - For a 3 cm renal pelvis stone, PCNL provides the best clearance rate (~95%) with minimal need for repeat procedures. - It involves direct percutaneous access to the kidney, allowing fragmentation and removal of large stone burden efficiently. *ESWL* - **Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)** has limited efficacy for stones >2 cm, with stone-free rates dropping to 50-60% for 3 cm stones. - Multiple sessions are typically required, with increased risk of steinstrasse (stone street) formation and residual fragments. - While non-invasive, ESWL is not the optimal choice for this stone size. *Retrograde pyeloplasty* - This option appears to reference **retrograde endoscopic approaches** (such as retrograde intrarenal surgery - RIRS or ureteroscopy). - While retrograde ureteroscopy can treat renal stones, it is generally reserved for stones <2 cm due to longer operative time and lower stone-free rates for larger stones. - True "pyeloplasty" is a reconstructive procedure for ureteropelvic junction obstruction, not a stone removal technique. *Antegrade pyeloplasty* - This option likely refers to **antegrade endoscopic access** to the renal pelvis. - While antegrade access is used in PCNL, "pyeloplasty" specifically means surgical reconstruction of the UPJ for obstruction, not stone treatment. - Antegrade ureteroscopy alone (without nephroscopy) would be less effective than PCNL for a 3 cm stone.
Question 9: Marjolin's ulcer is:-
- A. Adenoma of scar
- B. Squamous cell carcinoma from scar (Correct Answer)
- C. Amoebic ulcer
- D. Tubercular ulcer
Explanation: ***Squamous cell carcinoma from scar*** - A Marjolin's ulcer is a rare but aggressive form of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) that arises in areas of previously traumatized, chronically inflamed, or scarred skin. - Common sites include burn scars, chronic osteomyelitis tracts, pressure ulcers, and venous ulcers. - Typically has a long latency period (average 30-35 years after initial injury). - Characterized by higher rates of local recurrence and metastasis compared to conventional SCC. *Adenoma of scar* - An adenoma is a benign tumor of glandular origin and is not typically associated with scar tissue or malignant transformation in this context. - The malignancy arising in a scar is usually carcinoma, not adenoma. *Amoebic ulcer* - An amoebic ulcer is caused by the parasite *Entamoeba histolytica* and typically affects the colon, presenting as dysentery. - It is not a type of malignant transformation within a pre-existing scar. *Tubercular ulcer* - A tubercular ulcer is a manifestation of tuberculosis, often affecting the skin or mucous membranes and caused by *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*. - This is an infectious process and not a malignant transformation of scar tissue.
Question 10: Dye for Sentinel Lymph Node Biopsy is injected in which of the following sites?
- A. Nipple
- B. Axilla
- C. Areola (Correct Answer)
- D. Tail of spence
Explanation: ***Areola*** - The **areola** is the primary site for injecting dye in sentinel lymph node biopsy because it is rich in **lymphatic vessels** that directly drain into the regional lymph nodes. - This method ensures the dye follows the natural lymphatic drainage pathway, accurately identifying the **first lymph node** to receive drainage from the tumor. *Nipple* - While the nipple is part of the breast, it has a less dense network of **lymphatic vessels** compared to the areola. - Injection directly into the nipple may not consistently identify the sentinel lymph node as effectively as periareolar or intratumoral injections. *Axilla* - The **axilla** contains the regional lymph nodes that are the *target* for identification, not the site of dye injection. - Injecting dye directly into the axilla would bypass the lymphatic drainage from the tumor, making the biopsy ineffective. *Tail of spence* - The **tail of Spence** is an extension of breast tissue into the axilla, and while it contains breast tissue, it is not the most optimal or primary site for dye injection. - The lymphatic drainage from the tail of Spence would still rely on the broader lymphatic network, which is best accessed via the central breast regions like the areola.