FMGE 2018 — Pathology

Q: AFP is a tumour marker for which of the following?

HCC. ***Correct Option: HCC*** - **Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** is the most widely recognized tumor marker for **Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC)**, the most common primary liver cancer [1] - Elevated AFP levels (>400 ng/mL) are highly suggestive of HCC and are used for **diagnosis, monitoring treatment response, and surveillance for recurrence** [1] - AFP is also elevated in **yolk sac tumors** and some **non-seminomatous germ cell tumors**, but HCC remains the primary clinical association [1] *Incorrect: Chordoma* - **Chordomas** are rare malignant bone tumors arising from notochord remnants, typically in the skull base or sacrum - **No specific tumor marker** is routinely used; brachyury (transcription factor) may be used as an immunohistochemical marker for diagnosis - AFP is not associated with chordomas *Incorrect: RCC* - **Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC)** is the most common kidney malignancy - No highly specific tumor markers exist for RCC; occasionally **elevated LDH, alkaline phosphatase, or calcium** may be seen - AFP is not a marker for RCC *Incorrect: Oncocytoma* - **Renal oncocytoma** is a **benign** renal tumor composed of oncocytes (cells with abundant mitochondria) - Diagnosed primarily by **imaging and histology**, not serum markers - AFP has no role in oncocytoma diagnosis or monitoring **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 399-400. [Practice more Pathology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Angiofibroma bleeds profusely because:

Vessels lack a contractile component. ***Vessels lack a contractile component*** - The distinctive feature of angiofibroma is the presence of **abundant, thin-walled blood vessels** that lack the typical muscular or elastic contractile layers found in normal arteries. - This structural deficiency prevents effective **vasoconstriction** and vessel closure, leading to severe and prolonged bleeding when injured. *It has multiple sites of origin* - While angiofibromas typically arise from the **nasopharynx**, their propensity to bleed is not related to having multiple sites of origin. - Their origin site does not inherently determine the vascular structure or bleeding risk. *It lacks a capsule* - The absence of a capsule can make surgical resection challenging and contribute to incomplete excision, but it does not directly explain the **profuse bleeding** from within the tumor itself. - Bleeding is primarily due to the internal vascular architecture rather than the presence or absence of a surrounding capsule. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the statement "Vessels lack a contractile component" accurately explains why angiofibromas bleed profusely. - The other options are not the primary reason for the extensive bleeding characteristic of these tumors. [Practice more Pathology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Germ cell tumour not seen in males:

Sertoli cell tumour. ***Correct: Sertoli cell tumour*** - Sertoli cell tumours are **sex cord-stromal tumours**, NOT germ cell tumours - They arise from specialized supporting cells in the testes (Sertoli cells) that normally nurture developing germ cells - These tumours produce hormones (estrogen, inhibin) and are distinct from germ cell neoplasias - Account for <1% of testicular tumours *Incorrect: Seminoma* - Seminoma IS a germ cell tumour - the **most common type** in males (40-50% of testicular germ cell tumours) [1] - Originates from malignant germ cells in the testes [1] - Characterized by uniform cells, lymphocytic infiltrate, and excellent prognosis with radiation sensitivity [3] *Incorrect: Choriocarcinoma* - Choriocarcinoma IS a highly aggressive **germ cell tumour** that occurs in males (testicular origin) [1] - Produces **human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)** - important tumor marker [2] - Can occur as pure choriocarcinoma or as part of mixed germ cell tumour [2] - Characterized by syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast cells [2] *Incorrect: Teratoma* - Teratoma IS a germ cell tumour composed of tissues from all three embryonic germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm) [1] - Common in males (testicular teratoma) - can be mature or immature [1] - In adult males, even mature teratomas have malignant potential unlike in children [1] **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System, pp. 979-980. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System, p. 982. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System, pp. 980-982. [Practice more Pathology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Crescent forming glomerulonephritis is:-

RPGN. ***RPGN*** - **Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)** is a clinical syndrome characterized by a rapid decline in **renal function** over weeks to months, often due to severe glomerular injury. - The hallmark **histological feature** of RPGN is the formation of **crescents** in more than 50% of the glomeruli, which are proliferations of parietal epithelial cells and infiltrating macrophages [1]. *MCN* - **Minimal change nephropathy (MCN)** is characterized by **diffuse effacement of podocyte foot processes** on electron microscopy, with normal findings on light microscopy. - It typically presents as **nephrotic syndrome** and does not involve crescent formation. *MPGN* - **Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)** involves thickening of the glomerular basement membrane with a "tram-track" appearance and mesangial proliferation [2]. - While MPGN can occasionally have focal crescents in some cases, **crescent formation is not a defining or characteristic feature** of MPGN [2]. - MPGN typically presents with nephritic-nephrotic syndrome. *All of the options* - This option is incorrect because only RPGN is characterized by **crescent formation** as a defining feature. - MCN does not involve crescents, and MPGN does not characteristically present with extensive crescent formation, thus invalidating this choice. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 528-529. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Kidney, pp. 925-926. [Practice more Pathology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Marble bone disease is:

Osteopetrosis. ***Osteopetrosis*** - **Osteopetrosis**, also known as **marble bone disease**, is a rare genetic disorder characterized by abnormally dense bones due to a defect in **osteoclast function** [1]. - Impaired bone resorption leads to an accumulation of woven bone, causing bones to be fragile despite their density [1]. *Osteosclerosis* - **Osteosclerosis** is a general term for increased bone density and can be a feature of various conditions, including osteopetrosis. - However, it is a descriptive term rather than a specific disease diagnosis equivalent to marble bone disease. *Histiocytosis X* - **Histiocytosis X**, also known as **Langerhans cell histiocytosis**, is a rare disorder involving the proliferation of Langerhans cells. - It primarily affects bone but can also involve other organs, presenting with lytic lesions rather than increased bone density. *Osteomalacia* - **Osteomalacia** is a condition characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone tissue, leading to soft and weakened bones. - It is typically caused by **vitamin D deficiency** and is the opposite of increased bone density. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, pp. 1188-1189. [Practice more Pathology PYQs on OnCourse]

15 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations

Questions

AFP is a tumour marker for which of the following?

Angiofibroma bleeds profusely because:

Germ cell tumour not seen in males:

Crescent forming glomerulonephritis is:-

Marble bone disease is:

Most common benign breast tumour:

Earliest feature of TB:

Albers-Schönberg disease is:

Malignancy in a multinodular goiter is most often:-

Q10

Which of the following infectious diseases is the most likely cause of granuloma formation?

FMGE 2018 - Pathology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 1: AFP is a tumour marker for which of the following?

A. Chordoma
B. RCC
C. HCC (Correct Answer)
D. Oncocytoma

Explanation: ***Correct Option: HCC*** - **Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** is the most widely recognized tumor marker for **Hepatocellular Carcinoma (HCC)**, the most common primary liver cancer [1] - Elevated AFP levels (>400 ng/mL) are highly suggestive of HCC and are used for **diagnosis, monitoring treatment response, and surveillance for recurrence** [1] - AFP is also elevated in **yolk sac tumors** and some **non-seminomatous germ cell tumors**, but HCC remains the primary clinical association [1] *Incorrect: Chordoma* - **Chordomas** are rare malignant bone tumors arising from notochord remnants, typically in the skull base or sacrum - **No specific tumor marker** is routinely used; brachyury (transcription factor) may be used as an immunohistochemical marker for diagnosis - AFP is not associated with chordomas *Incorrect: RCC* - **Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC)** is the most common kidney malignancy - No highly specific tumor markers exist for RCC; occasionally **elevated LDH, alkaline phosphatase, or calcium** may be seen - AFP is not a marker for RCC *Incorrect: Oncocytoma* - **Renal oncocytoma** is a **benign** renal tumor composed of oncocytes (cells with abundant mitochondria) - Diagnosed primarily by **imaging and histology**, not serum markers - AFP has no role in oncocytoma diagnosis or monitoring **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 399-400.

Question 2: Angiofibroma bleeds profusely because:

A. It has multiple sites of origin
B. Vessels lack a contractile component (Correct Answer)
C. It lacks a capsule
D. None of the options

Explanation: ***Vessels lack a contractile component*** - The distinctive feature of angiofibroma is the presence of **abundant, thin-walled blood vessels** that lack the typical muscular or elastic contractile layers found in normal arteries. - This structural deficiency prevents effective **vasoconstriction** and vessel closure, leading to severe and prolonged bleeding when injured. *It has multiple sites of origin* - While angiofibromas typically arise from the **nasopharynx**, their propensity to bleed is not related to having multiple sites of origin. - Their origin site does not inherently determine the vascular structure or bleeding risk. *It lacks a capsule* - The absence of a capsule can make surgical resection challenging and contribute to incomplete excision, but it does not directly explain the **profuse bleeding** from within the tumor itself. - Bleeding is primarily due to the internal vascular architecture rather than the presence or absence of a surrounding capsule. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the statement "Vessels lack a contractile component" accurately explains why angiofibromas bleed profusely. - The other options are not the primary reason for the extensive bleeding characteristic of these tumors.

Question 3: Germ cell tumour not seen in males:

A. Seminoma
B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Teratoma
D. Sertoli cell tumour (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Correct: Sertoli cell tumour*** - Sertoli cell tumours are **sex cord-stromal tumours**, NOT germ cell tumours - They arise from specialized supporting cells in the testes (Sertoli cells) that normally nurture developing germ cells - These tumours produce hormones (estrogen, inhibin) and are distinct from germ cell neoplasias - Account for <1% of testicular tumours *Incorrect: Seminoma* - Seminoma IS a germ cell tumour - the **most common type** in males (40-50% of testicular germ cell tumours) [1] - Originates from malignant germ cells in the testes [1] - Characterized by uniform cells, lymphocytic infiltrate, and excellent prognosis with radiation sensitivity [3] *Incorrect: Choriocarcinoma* - Choriocarcinoma IS a highly aggressive **germ cell tumour** that occurs in males (testicular origin) [1] - Produces **human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)** - important tumor marker [2] - Can occur as pure choriocarcinoma or as part of mixed germ cell tumour [2] - Characterized by syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast cells [2] *Incorrect: Teratoma* - Teratoma IS a germ cell tumour composed of tissues from all three embryonic germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm) [1] - Common in males (testicular teratoma) - can be mature or immature [1] - In adult males, even mature teratomas have malignant potential unlike in children [1] **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System, pp. 979-980. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System, p. 982. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lower Urinary Tract and Male Genital System, pp. 980-982.

Question 4: Crescent forming glomerulonephritis is:-

A. RPGN (Correct Answer)
B. MCN
C. All of the options
D. MPGN

Explanation: ***RPGN*** - **Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN)** is a clinical syndrome characterized by a rapid decline in **renal function** over weeks to months, often due to severe glomerular injury. - The hallmark **histological feature** of RPGN is the formation of **crescents** in more than 50% of the glomeruli, which are proliferations of parietal epithelial cells and infiltrating macrophages [1]. *MCN* - **Minimal change nephropathy (MCN)** is characterized by **diffuse effacement of podocyte foot processes** on electron microscopy, with normal findings on light microscopy. - It typically presents as **nephrotic syndrome** and does not involve crescent formation. *MPGN* - **Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN)** involves thickening of the glomerular basement membrane with a "tram-track" appearance and mesangial proliferation [2]. - While MPGN can occasionally have focal crescents in some cases, **crescent formation is not a defining or characteristic feature** of MPGN [2]. - MPGN typically presents with nephritic-nephrotic syndrome. *All of the options* - This option is incorrect because only RPGN is characterized by **crescent formation** as a defining feature. - MCN does not involve crescents, and MPGN does not characteristically present with extensive crescent formation, thus invalidating this choice. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 528-529. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Kidney, pp. 925-926.

Question 5: Marble bone disease is:

A. Osteosclerosis
B. Histiocytosis X
C. Osteopetrosis (Correct Answer)
D. Osteomalacia

Explanation: ***Osteopetrosis*** - **Osteopetrosis**, also known as **marble bone disease**, is a rare genetic disorder characterized by abnormally dense bones due to a defect in **osteoclast function** [1]. - Impaired bone resorption leads to an accumulation of woven bone, causing bones to be fragile despite their density [1]. *Osteosclerosis* - **Osteosclerosis** is a general term for increased bone density and can be a feature of various conditions, including osteopetrosis. - However, it is a descriptive term rather than a specific disease diagnosis equivalent to marble bone disease. *Histiocytosis X* - **Histiocytosis X**, also known as **Langerhans cell histiocytosis**, is a rare disorder involving the proliferation of Langerhans cells. - It primarily affects bone but can also involve other organs, presenting with lytic lesions rather than increased bone density. *Osteomalacia* - **Osteomalacia** is a condition characterized by inadequate mineralization of bone tissue, leading to soft and weakened bones. - It is typically caused by **vitamin D deficiency** and is the opposite of increased bone density. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, pp. 1188-1189.

Question 6: Most common benign breast tumour:

A. Phyllodes tumour
B. Fibroadenosis
C. DCIS
D. Fibroadenoma (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Fibroadenoma*** - **Fibroadenomas** are the **most common benign breast tumors**, typically presenting as mobile, firm, and non-tender masses [1]. - They are composed of both **glandular and stromal tissue** and are more prevalent in younger women [1]. *Phyllodes tumour* - **Phyllodes tumors** are much **rarer** than fibroadenomas and can be benign, borderline, or malignant [3]. - They tend to grow **rapidly** and are characterized by a leaf-like stromal pattern [3]. *Fibroadenosis* - **Fibroadenosis** (or fibrocystic changes) refers to a collection of **benign changes** in the breast tissue, including cysts, fibrosis, and epithelial hyperplasia, rather than a single tumor [2]. - It is a common condition causing lumpy and painful breasts, especially before menstruation [4]. *DCIS* - **Ductal Carcinoma In Situ (DCIS)** is a **non-invasive form of breast cancer** where abnormal cells are confined to the milk ducts. - It is not a benign tumor and carries a risk of progression to invasive breast cancer. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 448-449. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 445-446. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Breast, p. 1074. [4] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Breast, p. 1052.

Question 7: Earliest feature of TB:

A. Caseation
B. Lymphocytosis (Correct Answer)
C. Granuloma
D. Langerhans' Giant cells

Explanation: ***Lymphocytosis*** - While the very earliest response to *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* involves neutrophils (acute inflammation), among the given options, **lymphocytosis is the earliest feature** [1]. - Within 2-3 weeks of initial infection, the immune system mounts a cellular response with increased **lymphocytes** (particularly CD4+ T cells) and macrophages attempting to contain the bacteria [2]. - This lymphocytic infiltration precedes the organized granuloma formation and represents the early cell-mediated immune response to TB [3]. *Granuloma* - **Granuloma formation** is a hallmark of tuberculosis, where epithelioid macrophages organize into structured aggregates to wall off the infection. - This organized structure typically develops around 3-4 weeks after infection, following the initial lymphocytic response [4]. *Caseation* - **Caseous necrosis** is the characteristic cheese-like necrosis seen in the center of TB granulomas. - This represents tissue death and is a later feature (4+ weeks), developing as granulomas mature and central hypoxia leads to cell death [4]. *Langerhans' Giant cells* - **Langhans giant cells** (not Langerhans cells of skin) are multinucleated giant cells formed by fusion of epithelioid macrophages within established granulomas [5]. - These appear in mature granulomas and represent a late organized response, not an early feature. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 195-196. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Infectious Diseases, pp. 379-380. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Infectious Diseases, p. 380. [4] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Infectious Diseases, pp. 380-381. [5] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Inflammation and Repair, p. 109.

Question 8: Albers-Schönberg disease is:

A. Osteoporosis
B. Paget
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
D. Osteopetrosis (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Osteopetrosis*** - **Albers-Schönberg disease** is another name for **osteopetrosis**, also known as **marble bone disease** [1]. - It is a group of rare genetic disorders characterized by abnormally **dense bones** due to a defect in **osteoclast** function, leading to impaired bone resorption [1]. *Osteoporosis* - **Osteoporosis** is characterized by decreased bone density and structural deterioration of bone tissue, leading to an increased risk of fractures. - It results from an imbalance where **bone resorption outpaces bone formation**, the opposite of osteopetrosis. *Paget* (Paget's disease of bone) - **Paget's disease of bone** involves localized areas of increased bone turnover, leading to disorganized bone remodeling and weakened, enlarged bones. - It is distinct from osteopetrosis, which involves a generalized increase in bone density. *Osteogenesis imperfecta* - **Osteogenesis imperfecta** (OI), or brittle bone disease, is a genetic disorder causing extremely fragile bones prone to fractures, often due to defects in **collagen production** [1]. - This condition presents with bone fragility and often blue sclera, which is the opposite of the increased bone density seen in osteopetrosis. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, pp. 1188-1189.

Question 9: Malignancy in a multinodular goiter is most often:-

A. Papillary carcinoma (Correct Answer)
B. Anaplastic carcinoma
C. Follicular carcinoma
D. Medullary carcinoma

Explanation: ***Papillary carcinoma*** - **Papillary carcinoma** is the most common type of thyroid cancer, accounting for about 80-85% of all thyroid malignancies [1], [2]. - It often arises in the setting of multifocal disease or within a **multinodular goiter**, particularly when a dominant nodule undergoes malignant transformation [2]. *Anaplastic carcinoma* - **Anaplastic carcinoma** is a very aggressive and rare form of thyroid cancer, typically presenting as a rapidly growing neck mass in elderly patients [2]. - While it can occur in a multinodular goiter, it is far less common than papillary carcinoma and carries a much poorer prognosis [2]. *Follicular carcinoma* - **Follicular carcinoma** is the second most common type of thyroid cancer (10-15%) and is often difficult to distinguish from benign follicular adenomas without surgical excision [2]. - While it can be found in a multinodular goiter, **papillary carcinoma** is still statistically more frequent in this context [1]. *Medullary carcinoma* - **Medullary carcinoma** originates from the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid and accounts for about 1-2% of all thyroid cancers [2]. - It is often associated with inherited syndromes like **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 2 (MEN2)** and is distinct from tumors arising from follicular cells within a multinodular goiter [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Endocrine System, pp. 1098-1099. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 429-430.

Question 10: Which of the following infectious diseases is the most likely cause of granuloma formation?

A. Syphilis
B. Cat scratch disease
C. Leprosy (Correct Answer)
D. Trench fever

Explanation: ***Leprosy*** - Leprosy is a classic example of a chronic infection that leads to **granuloma formation**, particularly in its tuberculoid and borderline tuberculoid forms [1]. - The immune response to *Mycobacterium leprae* involves the formation of **macrophage-rich granulomas** to contain the infection, often affecting the skin and nerves [2]. *Syphilis* - While syphilis can cause **gummas**, which are granulomatous lesions, these are typically seen in tertiary syphilis and are less characteristic of granuloma formation across all stages compared to leprosy [3]. - Gummas are often **necrotic** and can be widespread, but the primary pathology of syphilis involves vasculitis and inflammation rather than classic granulomatous tissue reaction. *Cat scratch disease* - Caused by *Bartonella henselae*, this infection typically leads to **lymphadenopathy** with **stellate microabscesses** and sometimes epithelioid granulomas, but the granulomas are usually less prominent and distinct than those seen in leprosy. - The histological features are dominated by **suppurative necrosis** within lymphoid tissue rather than well-formed, non-caseating granulomas. *Trench fever* - Trench fever, caused by *Bartonella quintana*, primarily presents with **fever**, **bone pain**, and a **maculopapular rash**. - It does not typically cause **granuloma formation**; the pathology is more related to bacteremia and inflammation of vascular endothelium. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Infectious Diseases, pp. 385-386. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Disorders Involving Inflammatory And Haemopoietic Cells, pp. 638-639. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Infectious Diseases, p. 360.