Anatomy
2 questionsAdam's apple seen in boys is because of:
Winging of scapula is due to paralysis of
FMGE 2018 - Anatomy FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: Adam's apple seen in boys is because of:
- A. Thyroid cartilage (Correct Answer)
- B. Tracheal rings
- C. Hyoid bone
- D. Cricoid cartilage
Explanation: Thyroid cartilage - The "Adam's apple" is a common term for the laryngeal prominence, which is formed by the anterior projection of the thyroid cartilage. - During puberty in males, the thyroid cartilage grows significantly, leading to a more prominent protrusion and deepening of the voice [1]. Tracheal rings - The tracheal rings are C-shaped cartilages that provide structural support to the trachea, preventing its collapse. - They are located inferior to the larynx and are not visible externally as a distinct prominence like the Adam's apple. Hyoid bone - The hyoid bone is a U-shaped bone located in the anterior neck between the chin and the thyroid cartilage. - It is unique because it is the only bone in the human body that does not articulate with any other bone; it serves as an anchor for muscles of the tongue and floor of the mouth. Cricoid cartilage - The cricoid cartilage is a ring-shaped cartilage located inferior to the thyroid cartilage, forming the base of the larynx. - While it is a part of the larynx, its anterior projection is not as prominent as that of the thyroid cartilage, and it does not form the "Adam's apple."
Question 82: Winging of scapula is due to paralysis of
- A. Serratus anterior (Correct Answer)
- B. Rhomboid major
- C. Trapezius
- D. Levator scapulae
Explanation: ***Serratus anterior*** - The **serratus anterior muscle** is responsible for **protraction and rotation of the scapula**, holding it close to the thoracic wall. - Paralysis of this muscle, often due to injury to the **long thoracic nerve**, causes the **medial border of the scapula** to protrude posteriorly, a condition known as **medial scapular winging**. - This is the **classic and most common cause** of scapular winging. *Rhomboid major* - The rhomboid major muscle primarily performs **retraction and downward rotation of the scapula**. - Paralysis of this muscle would lead to the scapula being displaced laterally and superiorly, not winging. *Trapezius* - The trapezius muscle has multiple actions, including **elevating, depressing, retracting, and rotating the scapula**. - Paralysis of the trapezius (e.g., due to **accessory nerve damage**) can cause **lateral scapular winging** where the inferior angle protrudes, along with shoulder drooping and difficulty shrugging. - However, **serratus anterior paralysis** is the classic answer for scapular winging in exam contexts. *Levator scapulae* - The levator scapulae muscle is primarily involved in **elevating and downwardly rotating the scapula**. - Dysfunction of this muscle would impair shoulder elevation but would not be the direct cause of scapular winging.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsIrreversible obstructive lung function is seen in which of the following conditions?
FMGE 2018 - Internal Medicine FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: Irreversible obstructive lung function is seen in which of the following conditions?
- A. Asthma
- B. COPD (Correct Answer)
- C. Pleural effusion
- D. Kyphoscoliosis
Explanation: ***COPD*** - **Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease** (COPD) is characterized by **persistent airflow limitation** that is not fully reversible [3]. - This irreversibility is due to structural changes in the airways and parenchyma, including **emphysema** and **chronic bronchitis** [2]. *Asthma* - Asthma is characterized by **reversible airway obstruction** and hyperresponsiveness, often triggered by allergens or irritants [4]. - While it can be severe, the key distinguishing feature is that the airway limitation can be significantly reversed with bronchodilator treatment [1]. *Pleural effusion* - A pleural effusion involves the **accumulation of fluid in the pleural space**, which is outside the lung tissue. - This condition causes **restrictive lung disease** by compressing the lung, rather than obstructing the airways from within, and is usually treatable by drainage. *Kyphoscoliosis* - **Kyphoscoliosis** is a skeletal deformity of the spine that restricts lung expansion, leading to **restrictive lung disease**. - It does not directly cause an obstructive pattern within the airways, but rather impairs the mechanical ability of the lungs to inflate.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
4 questionsTrue about endometriosis:
A G4P2 lady presented with history of two abortions at 16 weeks and 20 weeks POG. Which of the following could be the most likely reason for these abortions?
After a normal delivery, when can combined oral contraceptives be started for a non-breastfeeding mother?
EDD ( Expected Date of Delivery) is calculated by:
FMGE 2018 - Obstetrics and Gynecology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: True about endometriosis:
- A. Presence of endometrial gland in deep myometrium
- B. Presence of endometrium at ectopic locations (Correct Answer)
- C. Treated preferably with hysterectomy
- D. Seen in multiparous women
Explanation: ***Presence of endometrium at ectopic locations*** - **Endometriosis** is defined as the presence of endometrial glands and stroma outside of the uterine cavity. - These ectopic endometrial implants respond to hormonal changes, leading to cyclical pain and inflammation. *Presence of endometrial gland in deep myometrium* - This describes **adenomyosis**, a condition where endometrial tissue invades the muscular wall of the uterus (myometrium). - While both can cause pelvic pain, endometriosis specifically refers to endometrial tissue *outside* the uterus. *Treated preferably with hysterectomy* - Hysterectomy is a definitive treatment option, especially for severe cases or when fertility is not desired, but it is not the *preferred* initial treatment for all patients. - Initial management often includes **pain relievers**, **hormonal therapy**, or **laparoscopic excision** of endometriotic implants. *Seen in multiparous women* - Endometriosis is more commonly diagnosed in **nulliparous (never given birth)** or women who delay childbearing. - While it can occur in multiparous women, it is not a characteristic association.
Question 82: A G4P2 lady presented with history of two abortions at 16 weeks and 20 weeks POG. Which of the following could be the most likely reason for these abortions?
- A. Thyroid abnormality
- B. Cervical incompetence (Correct Answer)
- C. Chromosomal abnormality
- D. Placenta previa
Explanation: ***Cervical incompetence*** - **Recurrent second-trimester pregnancy losses** (16 and 20 weeks) with a history of two previous abortions are highly suggestive of cervical incompetence, where the cervix dilates prematurely. - This condition is characterized by painless, progressive cervical dilation leading to **fetal expulsion** without contractions, which aligns with the presentation of repeated mid-trimester abortions. *Thyroid abnormality* - While **untreated hypothyroidism** or **hyperthyroidism** can increase the risk of miscarriage, these typically lead to **earlier first-trimester losses** or other obstetric complications, not recurrent mid-trimester abortions. - Abortion due to thyroid dysfunction is often associated with other signs and symptoms of thyroid disease, which are not mentioned. *Chromosomal abnormality* - **Chromosomal abnormalities** are the most common cause of **first-trimester miscarriages**, accounting for about 50% of them. - While they can cause later losses, recurrent mid-trimester abortions are less commonly attributed solely to chromosomal issues, especially in the absence of other malformations. *Placenta previa* - **Placenta previa** is a condition where the placenta partially or totally covers the cervix, causing painless vaginal bleeding in the **late second or third trimester**. - It increases the risk of preterm birth but is not a direct cause of recurrent fetal loss at 16 and 20 weeks gestation in the manner described.
Question 83: After a normal delivery, when can combined oral contraceptives be started for a non-breastfeeding mother?
- A. Immediately after delivery
- B. 6 weeks (Correct Answer)
- C. 2 weeks
- D. 12 weeks
Explanation: ***6 weeks*** - For **non-breastfeeding mothers**, combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are most safely initiated at **6 weeks postpartum** according to WHO Medical Eligibility Criteria. - At 6 weeks postpartum, the risk of **venous thromboembolism (VTE)** has returned to baseline, making this the safest timing (WHO MEC Category 1 - no restriction). - This timing balances both safety and effective contraception for mothers not breastfeeding. *Immediately after delivery* - Starting COCs immediately postpartum significantly increases the risk of **venous thromboembolism (VTE)** due to the hypercoagulable state after delivery. - This timing is contraindicated for combined hormonal methods (WHO MEC Category 3-4). *2 weeks* - At 2 weeks (14 days) postpartum, the VTE risk remains elevated in the early postpartum period. - Combined hormonal contraceptives are generally not recommended before 3 weeks (21 days) postpartum for non-breastfeeding women. - This timing does not meet standard safety guidelines. *12 weeks* - While 12 weeks postpartum is medically safe for initiating COCs, it is unnecessarily delayed. - This extended waiting period increases the risk of unintended pregnancy when effective contraception could be safely provided earlier at 6 weeks.
Question 84: EDD ( Expected Date of Delivery) is calculated by:
- A. Cardiff Formula
- B. McDonald's rule
- C. Hadlock Formula
- D. Naegele's formula (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Naegele's formula*** - **Naegele's formula** is the most common and widely accepted method for calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD). - It involves adding one year, subtracting three months, and adding seven days to the **first day of the last menstrual period (LMP)**. *Cardiff Formula* - The **Cardiff Formula** is a method used for assessing fetal movements, particularly for monitoring fetal well-being, not for calculating EDD. - It establishes a baseline of fetal movements over a specific period to detect any significant decrease. *McDonald's rule* - **McDonald's rule** is a clinical method used to estimate the gestational age based on fundal height measurements. - While it helps in estimating gestational age, it is not primarily used for calculating the precise EDD. *Hadlock Formula* - The **Hadlock Formula** refers to a set of widely used ultrasound-based formulas for estimating fetal weight and gestational age, typically involving biometry measurements like BPD, HC, AC, and FL. - While accurate for gestational age estimation, it's an imaging-based method, not a direct calculation of EDD from the LMP like Naegele's.
Orthopaedics
1 questionsTennis player can spontaneously reduce a shoulder dislocation. He can do it again and again himself. He is suffering from?
FMGE 2018 - Orthopaedics FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: Tennis player can spontaneously reduce a shoulder dislocation. He can do it again and again himself. He is suffering from?
- A. Inferior shoulder dislocation
- B. Fracture upper end humerus
- C. Acute shoulder dislocation
- D. Recurrent shoulder dislocation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Recurrent shoulder dislocation*** - The ability to **spontaneously reduce** a shoulder dislocation, and the history of it happening "again and again" strongly indicate **recurrent shoulder dislocation**. - This condition often results from **ligamentous laxity** or damage to the **labrum** (Bankart lesion) that fails to stabilize the shoulder joint after an initial dislocation. *Inferior shoulder dislocation* - This is a **specific type of shoulder dislocation** (luxatio erecta) where the humeral head is displaced inferiorly, but "inferior" alone does not explain the recurrent nature. - While possible in an individual, the key element here is the **recurrence** and self-reduction, not just the direction of a single dislocation. *Fracture upper end humerus* - A fracture of the upper end of the humerus is a **bony injury** and would typically present with severe pain, swelling, and inability to move the arm, not spontaneous reduction. - This injury would usually **prevent** the patient from repeatedly dislocating and reducing their shoulder. *Acute shoulder dislocation* - An acute shoulder dislocation refers to a **single, recent episode** of dislocation. - The patient's repeated ability to self-reduce the shoulder indicates a chronic problem rather than an initial, isolated event.
Pharmacology
1 questionsShortest acting local anaesthetic
FMGE 2018 - Pharmacology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: Shortest acting local anaesthetic
- A. Dibucaine
- B. Procaine
- C. Chloroprocaine (Correct Answer)
- D. Cocaine
Explanation: ***Chloroprocaine*** - **Chloroprocaine** is known for its rapid onset and very **short duration of action**, typically lasting 30-60 minutes, due to its **rapid hydrolysis** by plasma and liver esterases. - Its quick metabolism makes it suitable for short procedures where a brief blockade is desired, minimizing the risk of systemic toxicity. *Dibucaine* - **Dibucaine** is a local anesthetic with a **long duration of action**, typically 2 to 4 hours, which is much longer than chloroprocaine. - It is used topically and in spinal anesthesia, but its prolonged effect makes it unsuitable as the shortest-acting option. *Procaine* - **Procaine** is an ester-type local anesthetic with a relatively **short duration of action** (approximately 30-60 minutes), but it is generally longer than that of chloroprocaine. - It was one of the first synthetic local anesthetics and is less potent and shorter-acting than many modern agents. *Cocaine* - **Cocaine** has a moderate duration of action as a local anesthetic, typically lasting 60-90 minutes, which is longer than chloroprocaine. - While it is a potent local anesthetic and vasoconstrictor, its high abuse potential and systemic side effects limit its clinical use, mainly to topical application in otolaryngology.
Psychiatry
1 questionsNegative symptoms of schizophrenia are all except:-
FMGE 2018 - Psychiatry FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: Negative symptoms of schizophrenia are all except:-
- A. Apathy
- B. Anhedonia
- C. Over activity (Correct Answer)
- D. Alogia
Explanation: ***Over activity*** - **Overactivity** is a manifestation of disorganized or positive symptoms in schizophrenia, such as **agitation** or purposeless movements, rather than a deficiency. - While it can occur in schizophrenia, it represents an excess or distortion of normal function, distinguishing it from **negative symptoms** which reflect a reduction or absence of typical behaviors. *Apathy* - **Apathy**, or avolition, is a core negative symptom characterized by a **lack of motivation** and an inability to initiate or persist in goal-directed activities. - Patients with apathy often show diminished interest in daily activities and personal care. *Anhedonia* - **Anhedonia** is a negative symptom defined by the **inability to experience pleasure** from activities that are usually enjoyable. - This can include a loss of interest in social interactions, hobbies, and other rewarding experiences. *Alogia* - **Alogia**, or poverty of speech, is a negative symptom characterized by a **reduction in the quantity and fluency of speech**. - Individuals with alogia may provide brief, empty responses and exhibit long pauses during conversation.