FMGE 2018 — Obstetrics and Gynecology
14 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
Hydrops fetalis in a fetus can be due to:
Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of bacterial vaginosis?
Beta-hCG is secreted by:
In a patient with ectopic tubal pregnancy which is the earliest to rupture?
A 29 year old female presented with infertility. There is history of abdominal pain, dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, menorrhagia. Most likely cause:
Highest Contraceptive failure is reported in
Which of these types of fibroid may be removed at the time of a cesarean section?
True about endometriosis:
A G4P2 lady presented with history of two abortions at 16 weeks and 20 weeks POG. Which of the following could be the most likely reason for these abortions?
After a normal delivery, when can combined oral contraceptives be started for a non-breastfeeding mother?
FMGE 2018 - Obstetrics and Gynecology FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Hydrops fetalis in a fetus can be due to:
- A. Human papilloma virus
- B. Parvovirus B19 (Correct Answer)
- C. Influenza Virus
- D. Epstein-Barr virus
Explanation: ***Parvovirus B19*** - **Parvovirus B19** infection in a fetus can lead to severe **anemia** and **hydrops fetalis** because the virus targets **erythroid progenitor cells**, impairing red blood cell production. - The resulting severe anemia causes **high-output cardiac failure**, leading to widespread edema, ascites, pleural effusions, and pericardial effusions, which characterize hydrops fetalis. *Epstein-Barr virus* - While **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)** can infect the fetus, it is more commonly associated with conditions like **lymphoproliferative disorders** or **hepatosplenomegaly**, not typically hydrops fetalis as a primary manifestation. - EBV infection in pregnancy is often asymptomatic or causes mild illness and is not a common cause of severe fetal anemia or hydrops. *Human papilloma virus* - **Human papilloma virus (HPV)** is known to cause **genital warts** and is associated with **cervical cancer**, but it does not cause hydrops fetalis. - Vertical transmission of HPV can occur, leading to conditions like **recurrent respiratory papillomatosis** in the infant, but it does not affect red blood cell production or fluid balance in the fetus in a way that would cause hydrops. *Influenza Virus* - **Influenza virus** infection during pregnancy can lead to complications such as **preterm delivery** or **low birth weight**, but it is not a direct cause of hydrops fetalis. - The influenza virus primarily affects the respiratory system and does not directly target fetal erythroid cells or cause the severe anemia necessary for hydrops.
Question 2: Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of bacterial vaginosis?
- A. Vaginal pH >4.5
- B. Fishy odour
- C. Presence of clue cells
- D. Thick white discharge (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Thick white discharge*** - Bacterial vaginosis is characterized by a **thin, grayish-white, homogeneous discharge**, not a thick white one. - A thick, white, "cottage cheese-like" discharge is more typical of **vulvovaginal candidiasis (yeast infection)**. *Presence of clue cells* - **Clue cells** are epithelial cells covered with bacteria, which are a hallmark microscopic finding in bacterial vaginosis. - Their presence is a key diagnostic criterion (Amsel criteria) for the condition. *Vaginal pH >4.5* - Bacterial vaginosis is associated with an **elevated vaginal pH, typically greater than 4.5**, due to the shift in vaginal flora. - This alkaline pH is a critical diagnostic indicator. *Fishy odour* - A **distinctive fishy odor**, particularly after intercourse or douching, is a classic symptom of bacterial vaginosis. - This odor is due to the production of **volatile amines** by anaerobic bacteria.
Question 3: Beta-hCG is secreted by:
- A. Yolk sac
- B. Syncytiotrophoblast (Correct Answer)
- C. Liver
- D. Umbilical cord
Explanation: ***Syncytiotrophoblast*** - The **syncytiotrophoblast** is the outer layer of the trophoblast that surrounds the blastocyst and later the chorionic villi. - It is responsible for the secretion of various hormones, including **beta-hCG**, which is crucial for maintaining the corpus luteum and pregnancy. *Yolk sac* - The **yolk sac** is involved in early nutrient transfer, hematopoiesis, and germ cell formation. - It does not produce **beta-hCG**. *Liver* - The **liver** is a major organ of metabolism, detoxification, and protein synthesis. - It does not produce **beta-hCG**, which is specific to pregnancy. *Umbilical cord* - The **umbilical cord** connects the fetus to the placenta, facilitating nutrient and oxygen exchange. - It does not have endocrine functions and does not secrete **beta-hCG**.
Question 4: In a patient with ectopic tubal pregnancy which is the earliest to rupture?
- A. Infundibulum
- B. Isthmus (Correct Answer)
- C. Ampulla
- D. Interstitial
Explanation: ***Isthmus*** - The **isthmus** is the **narrowest part** of the fallopian tube with the **least distensibility** and thin muscular wall. - Due to its limited capacity to accommodate the growing pregnancy, ectopic pregnancies in the isthmus rupture **earliest**, typically between **6-8 weeks of gestation**. - Rupture is often severe due to the narrow lumen and limited ability to expand. *Ampulla* - The **ampulla** is the most common site for ectopic pregnancies (approximately **70%** of cases). - It is wider and more distensible than the isthmus, allowing the pregnancy to grow for a longer period. - Rupture typically occurs **later**, between **8-12 weeks of gestation**. *Interstitial* - The **interstitial** (or cornual) portion is located within the **uterine wall**, surrounded by myometrium and rich vascular supply. - This location allows significant distensibility, so rupture occurs **latest** among tubal sites, typically at **12-16 weeks of gestation**. - When rupture occurs, it is **most catastrophic** with severe hemorrhage and highest risk of **maternal morbidity and mortality** due to the vascular supply. *Infundibulum* - Ectopic pregnancies in the **infundibulum** or fimbrial end are very rare. - Due to the wide opening, these pregnancies typically present as **tubal abortion** through the fimbria rather than rupture. - The area is less muscular, making contained rupture uncommon.
Question 5: A 29 year old female presented with infertility. There is history of abdominal pain, dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, menorrhagia. Most likely cause:
- A. Adenomyosis
- B. Endometriosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Cervicitis
- D. Myomas
Explanation: ***Endometriosis*** - The classic triad of symptoms in this 29-year-old female—**dysmenorrhea**, **dyspareunia**, and **infertility**—is highly suggestive of endometriosis. - **Ectopic endometrial tissue** can cause chronic abdominal pain, menorrhagia, and inflammation, contributing to infertility. *Adenomyosis* - This condition involves the presence of **endometrial tissue within the myometrium**, leading to a thickened uterine wall. - While it can cause dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia, **infertility** is not its primary presentation, and it is less commonly associated with severe dyspareunia compared to endometriosis. *Cervicitis* - **Inflammation of the cervix** typically presents with vaginal discharge, post-coital bleeding, or pelvic pain. - It is not a common cause of primary infertility, severe dysmenorrhea, or dyspareunia as described. *Myomas* - Uterine **fibroids (leiomyomas)** are benign tumors that can cause heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia), pelvic pressure, and sometimes infertility. - However, they are less commonly associated with the triad of severe dysmenorrhea and dyspareunia as prominently as seen in endometriosis.
Question 6: Highest Contraceptive failure is reported in
- A. Implant
- B. IUD
- C. Oral contraceptive pills
- D. Spermicidal methods (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Spermicidal methods*** - **Spermicides** have a significantly higher failure rate compared to other contraceptive methods because their effectiveness relies heavily on **correct and consistent application** before each act of intercourse. - Their efficacy is often compromised by improper use, short duration of action, or failure to adequately kill sperm, leading to a higher chance of **unintended pregnancy**. *Implant* - Contraceptive **implants** (e.g., etonogestrel implant) are among the most effective contraceptive methods, with a very low failure rate due to **continuous hormone release**. - They offer **long-acting reversible contraception (LARC)**, eliminating user error upon insertion. *IUD* - **Intrauterine devices (IUDs)**, both hormonal and copper, are highly effective LARC methods with very low failure rates. - Their effectiveness is independent of user adherence after insertion, making them **highly reliable**. *Oral contraceptive pills* - **Oral contraceptive pills** are effective when used perfectly, but their typical use effectiveness is lower than implants or IUDs due to the possibility of **user error**, such as missing pills. - **Adherence** to a daily regimen is crucial for their efficacy.
Question 7: Which of these types of fibroid may be removed at the time of a cesarean section?
- A. Pedunculated fibroid (Correct Answer)
- B. Broad ligament fibroid
- C. Cervical fibroid
- D. Intramural
Explanation: ***Pedunculated fibroid*** - **Pedunculated subserosal fibroids** are the safest type to remove during cesarean section, particularly those on a **narrow stalk** - They can be easily accessed through the abdominal incision without disrupting the uterine wall integrity - The stalk can be **clamped, ligated, and divided** with minimal risk of hemorrhage if proper hemostatic technique is used - Removal does not compromise the **hysterotomy closure** or future uterine integrity - This is the **only type of fibroid** routinely considered safe for removal during C-section if clinically indicated *Intramural fibroid* - **Intramural fibroids** are embedded within the myometrial wall and their removal is **generally contraindicated** during cesarean section - Myomectomy during C-section carries significant risk of **severe hemorrhage** from the highly vascular pregnant uterus - Removal can compromise **uterine wall integrity** and interfere with proper hysterotomy closure - May increase risk of **uterine rupture** in subsequent pregnancies - Standard obstetric practice is to **avoid myomectomy at cesarean** unless the fibroid is directly obstructing delivery *Broad ligament fibroid* - **Broad ligament fibroids** are located between the layers of the broad ligament, often in close proximity to the **ureter** and **uterine vessels** - Removal carries extremely high risk of **ureteral injury** and **massive hemorrhage** from pedicle vessels - Their excision is **absolutely contraindicated** during cesarean section *Cervical fibroid* - **Cervical fibroids** are located in the cervix with its **rich vascular supply** from cervical branches of uterine arteries - Removal during C-section risks **uncontrollable hemorrhage** and can cause **cervical incompetence** - Excision is **contraindicated** during cesarean section and should be managed separately if needed
Question 8: True about endometriosis:
- A. Presence of endometrial gland in deep myometrium
- B. Presence of endometrium at ectopic locations (Correct Answer)
- C. Treated preferably with hysterectomy
- D. Seen in multiparous women
Explanation: ***Presence of endometrium at ectopic locations*** - **Endometriosis** is defined as the presence of endometrial glands and stroma outside of the uterine cavity. - These ectopic endometrial implants respond to hormonal changes, leading to cyclical pain and inflammation. *Presence of endometrial gland in deep myometrium* - This describes **adenomyosis**, a condition where endometrial tissue invades the muscular wall of the uterus (myometrium). - While both can cause pelvic pain, endometriosis specifically refers to endometrial tissue *outside* the uterus. *Treated preferably with hysterectomy* - Hysterectomy is a definitive treatment option, especially for severe cases or when fertility is not desired, but it is not the *preferred* initial treatment for all patients. - Initial management often includes **pain relievers**, **hormonal therapy**, or **laparoscopic excision** of endometriotic implants. *Seen in multiparous women* - Endometriosis is more commonly diagnosed in **nulliparous (never given birth)** or women who delay childbearing. - While it can occur in multiparous women, it is not a characteristic association.
Question 9: A G4P2 lady presented with history of two abortions at 16 weeks and 20 weeks POG. Which of the following could be the most likely reason for these abortions?
- A. Thyroid abnormality
- B. Cervical incompetence (Correct Answer)
- C. Chromosomal abnormality
- D. Placenta previa
Explanation: ***Cervical incompetence*** - **Recurrent second-trimester pregnancy losses** (16 and 20 weeks) with a history of two previous abortions are highly suggestive of cervical incompetence, where the cervix dilates prematurely. - This condition is characterized by painless, progressive cervical dilation leading to **fetal expulsion** without contractions, which aligns with the presentation of repeated mid-trimester abortions. *Thyroid abnormality* - While **untreated hypothyroidism** or **hyperthyroidism** can increase the risk of miscarriage, these typically lead to **earlier first-trimester losses** or other obstetric complications, not recurrent mid-trimester abortions. - Abortion due to thyroid dysfunction is often associated with other signs and symptoms of thyroid disease, which are not mentioned. *Chromosomal abnormality* - **Chromosomal abnormalities** are the most common cause of **first-trimester miscarriages**, accounting for about 50% of them. - While they can cause later losses, recurrent mid-trimester abortions are less commonly attributed solely to chromosomal issues, especially in the absence of other malformations. *Placenta previa* - **Placenta previa** is a condition where the placenta partially or totally covers the cervix, causing painless vaginal bleeding in the **late second or third trimester**. - It increases the risk of preterm birth but is not a direct cause of recurrent fetal loss at 16 and 20 weeks gestation in the manner described.
Question 10: After a normal delivery, when can combined oral contraceptives be started for a non-breastfeeding mother?
- A. Immediately after delivery
- B. 6 weeks (Correct Answer)
- C. 2 weeks
- D. 12 weeks
Explanation: ***6 weeks*** - For **non-breastfeeding mothers**, combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are most safely initiated at **6 weeks postpartum** according to WHO Medical Eligibility Criteria. - At 6 weeks postpartum, the risk of **venous thromboembolism (VTE)** has returned to baseline, making this the safest timing (WHO MEC Category 1 - no restriction). - This timing balances both safety and effective contraception for mothers not breastfeeding. *Immediately after delivery* - Starting COCs immediately postpartum significantly increases the risk of **venous thromboembolism (VTE)** due to the hypercoagulable state after delivery. - This timing is contraindicated for combined hormonal methods (WHO MEC Category 3-4). *2 weeks* - At 2 weeks (14 days) postpartum, the VTE risk remains elevated in the early postpartum period. - Combined hormonal contraceptives are generally not recommended before 3 weeks (21 days) postpartum for non-breastfeeding women. - This timing does not meet standard safety guidelines. *12 weeks* - While 12 weeks postpartum is medically safe for initiating COCs, it is unnecessarily delayed. - This extended waiting period increases the risk of unintended pregnancy when effective contraception could be safely provided earlier at 6 weeks.