All are true about Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis (ABPA) except?
All the following are feature of polycystic disease of kidneys except:-
Which of the following is not a component of Jones criteria for diagnosing acute rheumatic fever?
Which is the primary organ involved in Goodpasture syndrome?
Gastric lavage is contraindicated in?
A patient presented with sudden onset of thunderclap headache & dilated pupils. Findings are consistent with:
Treatment of choice for recurrent thyrotoxicosis after surgery is:-
MC cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults:-
A 35-year-old lady who presented with a 6-month painless fluctuant, non-transilluminant swelling with a thin watery discharge. Clinical diagnosis is?
FMGE 2018 - Internal Medicine FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: All are true about Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis (ABPA) except?
- A. Serum precipitins to Aspergillus
- B. Increased IgE Levels
- C. Seen in asthmatics
- D. Distal bronchiectasis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Distal bronchiectasis*** - This statement is incorrect as ABPA typically causes **central bronchiectasis**, affecting the proximal airways. - The inflammatory response to *Aspergillus* in ABPA mainly targets larger airways, leading to their dilation. *Serum precipitins to Aspergillus* - The presence of **serum precipitins** (IgG antibodies) against *Aspergillus* antigens is a major diagnostic criterion for ABPA. - This indicates a significant immune response to the fungus, which is characteristic of the disease. *Increased IgE Levels* - **Elevated serum total IgE levels** are a hallmark of ABPA, reflecting the allergic hypersensitivity reaction [1]. - This is a key diagnostic criterion, with levels often exceeding 1000 IU/mL. *Seen in asthmatics* - ABPA is predominantly seen in patients with **asthma** (and less commonly, cystic fibrosis), as an exacerbation or complication [1]. - The fungus *Aspergillus* colonizes the airways, triggering an allergic inflammatory response in susceptible individuals.
Question 22: All the following are feature of polycystic disease of kidneys except:-
- A. Renal failure
- B. Erythrocytosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Hematuria
- D. Hypertension
Explanation: Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is an autosomal dominant condition where multiple cysts enlarge slowly, compressing and damaging surrounding kidney tissue [1]. ***Erythrocytosis*** - **Polycystic kidney disease (PKD)** typically leads to **anemia** due to reduced erythropoietin production by the damaged kidneys [2]. - **Erythrocytosis** (an abnormally high red blood cell count) is not a common feature of PKD; it is more often associated with conditions like **renal cell carcinoma** or certain chronic hypoxic states. *Renal failure* - **Progressive cyst growth** in PKD eventually destroys functional kidney tissue, leading to a decline in renal function and often culminating in **end-stage renal disease**, which occurs in about 50% of PKD1 patients [1]. - **Renal failure** is a common and serious complication of PKD, necessitating dialysis or kidney transplantation. *Hematuria* - **Cysts in PKD** can rupture into the collecting system, leading to **gross hematuria** (visible blood in urine) or microscopic hematuria [1]. - Trauma to the flank or infection within a cyst can trigger an episode of **hematuria** [1]. *Hypertension* - **Hypertension** is a very common early manifestation of PKD, often preceding any significant decline in glomerular filtration rate. - It results from activation of the **renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)** due to renal ischemia caused by cyst enlargement [1].
Question 23: Which of the following is not a component of Jones criteria for diagnosing acute rheumatic fever?
- A. Erythema nodosum (Correct Answer)
- B. Sydenham chorea
- C. Pancarditis
- D. Migratory polyarthritis
Explanation: ***Erythema nodosum*** - **Erythema nodosum** is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction characterized by tender, red nodules, typically on the shins, but it is **not a major or minor criterion** in the Jones criteria for acute rheumatic fever. - While it can be associated with various inflammatory conditions, including streptococcal infections, its presence alone does not establish a diagnosis of **acute rheumatic fever (ARF)**. *Sydenham chorea* - **Sydenham chorea** is a major manifestation of ARF, characterized by involuntary, purposeless movements, and it is a key diagnostic criterion [1]. - It results from central nervous system involvement due to **autoimmune reaction** against basal ganglia. *Pancarditis* - **Pancarditis** (inflammation of all layers of the heart) is a major criterion for ARF, often leading to valvular damage, especially mitral stenosis [1]. - It can manifest as **pericarditis**, **myocarditis**, or **endocarditis** [1]. *Migratory polyarthritis* - **Migratory polyarthritis** is a major criterion for ARF, involving painful inflammation that moves from one joint to another. - It typically affects large joints such as the **knees, ankles, elbows, and wrists**.
Question 24: Which is the primary organ involved in Goodpasture syndrome?
- A. Adrenals
- B. Liver
- C. Brain
- D. Kidney (Correct Answer)
Explanation: Kidney - Goodpasture syndrome is an autoimmune disease primarily characterized by the production of antibodies against the alpha-3 chain of type IV collagen in the glomerular basement membrane (GBM) and alveolar basement membrane [1]. - This leads to rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis and pulmonary hemorrhage, making the kidneys and lungs the main affected organs, with the kidneys being the primary and universally involved organ [1]. Adrenals - The adrenal glands are not directly involved in the pathogenesis or primary pathology of Goodpasture syndrome. - Conditions like Addison's disease or Cushing's syndrome affect the adrenals, which are distinct from Goodpasture syndrome. Liver - The liver is not a target organ for the antibodies involved in Goodpasture syndrome. - Diseases like autoimmune hepatitis or primary biliary cholangitis primarily affect the liver. Brain - The brain is not affected by the specific autoantibodies targeting type IV collagen in Goodpasture syndrome. - Neurological conditions such as vasculitis of the central nervous system or multiple sclerosis involve the brain.
Question 25: Gastric lavage is contraindicated in?
- A. Bicarbonate
- B. Hydrocarbons (Correct Answer)
- C. Organo-Phosphosphate poisoning
- D. PCM toxicity
Explanation: ***Hydrocarbons*** - Gastric lavage is contraindicated in **hydrocarbon poisoning** due to the high risk of **aspiration** [2]. - Aspiration of hydrocarbons can lead to severe **chemical pneumonitis**, which is often more life-threatening than the systemic toxicity from ingestion [2]. *Bicarbonate* - Ingesting a large amount of bicarbonate can cause **alkalosis** and electrolyte imbalances. - While gastric lavage is not typically the primary treatment for mild bicarbonate overdose, it is not absolutely contraindicated in cases of massive ingestion where there is a clear benefit to removing unabsorbed substance, especially if performed with proper airway protection [1], [3]. *Organo-Phosphosphate poisoning* - Gastric lavage is generally recommended for **organophosphate poisoning** if the patient presents within 1-2 hours of ingestion and is awake with an intact gag reflex, or with a protected airway [2]. - This helps remove unabsorbed poison and can reduce the systemic absorption of these highly toxic compounds. *PCM toxicity* - For **paracetamol (PCM) toxicity**, gastric lavage can be considered if the patient presents within 1-2 hours of ingestion and has ingested a potentially toxic dose, especially when activated charcoal is not immediately available or contraindicated [4]. - The primary treatment for PCM toxicity involves **N-acetylcysteine (NAC)**, but gastric emptying can play a role in reducing initial absorption [4].
Question 26: A patient presented with sudden onset of thunderclap headache & dilated pupils. Findings are consistent with:
- A. Brain stem encephalitis
- B. Acute aneurismal hemorrhage (Correct Answer)
- C. Acute ischemia of midbrain
- D. Meningitis
Explanation: ***Acute aneurismal hemorrhage*** - **Thunderclap headache** is the hallmark symptom, often described as the "worst headache of life," due to sudden elevation of intracranial pressure [2]. - **Dilated pupils**, especially unilateral, can indicate compression of the **oculomotor nerve (CN III)** by an expanding aneurysm in the posterior communicating artery region, a direct effect of subarachnoid hemorrhage [1]. *Brain stem encephalitis* - This condition involves inflammation of the brainstem, which typically presents with a range of neurological deficits such as **ataxia**, **cranial nerve palsies**, and **altered consciousness**. - While headaches can occur, a characteristic **thunderclap headache** is not a typical feature, and pupillary abnormalities would be more varied depending on the extent of brainstem involvement. *Acute ischemia of midbrain* - **Midbrain ischemia** would present with brainstem symptoms like **vertigo**, **diplopia**, **hemiparesis**, or **oculomotor nerve palsy** [3]. - Although it could lead to pupillary changes if the oculomotor nucleus is affected, it typically does not cause a sudden, severe **thunderclap headache**. *Meningitis* - **Meningitis** presents with headache, fever, **neck stiffness**, and altered mental status [2]. - While headache is common, a sudden **thunderclap headache** is less typical, and **dilated pupils** are not a primary diagnostic feature unless there is severe herniation or other complications.
Question 27: Treatment of choice for recurrent thyrotoxicosis after surgery is:-
- A. Observation & follow-up
- B. Radioiodine (Correct Answer)
- C. Radioiodine followed by surgery
- D. Further surgery
Explanation: ***Radioiodine*** - **Radioiodine therapy (RAI)** is the preferred treatment for recurrent **thyrotoxicosis** after prior surgery, especially if the patient is elderly or has comorbidities, due to its effectiveness and safety profile. [1] - It works by destroying overactive thyroid cells, reducing hormone production and mitigating the risk of further surgical complications. *Observation & follow-up* - This approach is generally **insufficient** for managing recurrent thyrotoxicosis, which requires active treatment to control hormone levels. - Delaying proper treatment can lead to serious complications such as **cardiac arrhythmias**, **osteoporosis**, and **thyroid storm**. *Radioiodine followed by surgery* - Administering radioiodine followed by surgery is **not typically a standard approach** for recurrent thyrotoxicosis and may increase patient burden and risk. - Surgery after radioiodine therapy is usually reserved for cases of **malignancy** or large goiters with compressive symptoms that persist despite RAI. [1] *Further surgery* - **Repeat thyroid surgery** carries a significantly **higher risk of complications** such as recurrent laryngeal nerve injury, hypoparathyroidism, and excessive bleeding due to altered anatomy and scar tissue from the initial surgery. [1] - The efficacy may also be reduced compared to RAI, particularly in diffuse or widespread recurrence.
Question 28: MC cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults:-
- A. Minimal change disease
- B. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Good-pasture syndrome
- D. Membranous GN
Explanation: **Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis** - **Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)** is the most common cause of **primary nephrotic syndrome in adults**, particularly in African Americans and individuals with HIV or obesity [1]. - It involves **scarring** of some glomeruli (focal) and only parts of affected glomeruli (segmental), leading to **proteinuria** and progression to end-stage renal disease [2]. *Minimal change disease* - While it is the most common cause of **nephrotic syndrome in children**, it accounts for a smaller proportion of adult cases [1]. - Characterized by normal-appearing glomeruli on light microscopy but **effacement of foot processes** on electron microscopy. *Good-pasture syndrome* - This is an **autoimmune disease** causing rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, often associated with **pulmonary hemorrhage** [3]. - It is a much rarer cause of nephrotic syndrome and is characterized by **anti-GBM antibodies** [3]. *Membranous GN* - It is a common cause of **nephrotic syndrome in adults**, particularly in Caucasians, but **Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)** has surpassed it as the overall most common primary cause. - Characterized by thickening of the **glomerular basement membrane** due to immune complex deposition, often detected by **anti-PLA2R antibodies** [2].
Question 29: A 35-year-old lady who presented with a 6-month painless fluctuant, non-transilluminant swelling with a thin watery discharge. Clinical diagnosis is?
- A. Brachial cyst
- B. Secondaries
- C. Lymphoma
- D. TB (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***TB*** - **Tuberculosis (TB)** lymphadenopathy often presents as a **painless, fluctuant, non-transilluminant cervical swelling** (scrofula) with possible **thin, watery discharge** from a sinus tract [1]. - The 6-month duration indicates a **chronic process**, consistent with the indolent nature of TB infection [1]. *Brachial cyst* - A **branchial cleft cyst** typically presents as a **smooth, movable, and sometimes fluctuant neck mass**, but it is usually **transilluminant** unless infected. - While it can discharge, the fluid is often mucoid, and the discharge is less commonly described as thin and watery; also it typically develops during childhood or early adulthood. *Secondaries* - **Metastatic lymph nodes (secondaries)** are generally **firm, non-fluctuant, and non-tender**, and do not typically discharge thin watery fluid unless there is necrosis or ulceration of the overlying skin. - The absence of associated primary malignancy symptoms also makes this less likely. *Lymphoma* - **Lymphoma** presents as often **painless rubbery, firm, and non-fluctuant lymph node enlargement**, and discharge is not a typical feature unless there is skin involvement or ulceration in advanced stages. - The described fluctuance and watery discharge are not characteristic of simple lymphoma.