All of the following are seen in superior laryngeal nerve palsy except:
Tobey-Ayer test is done for:
Recruitment phenomenon is seen in:
All of the following are seen in Meniere's Disease except:
Most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)
Most common malignancy of maxillary antrum:
Young's operation is done for:
A 15 years old Male presented with history of fever since 2 days, unable to swallow the food with muffled voice. On examination it is noted right tonsil is shifted to midline. What is the diagnosis:
A patient presented with 2 days history of fever. On examination there was a swelling in the neck and one side tonsil was pushed to midline. What is the most likely diagnosis:-
Dip at 4000 Hz in pure tone audiometry indicates:
FMGE 2018 - ENT FMGE Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: All of the following are seen in superior laryngeal nerve palsy except:
- A. Bowed vocal cords
- B. Loss of pitch
- C. Aspiration
- D. Stridor (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Stridor*** - **Superior laryngeal nerve palsy** primarily affects the **cricothyroid muscle** (external branch) and sensation above the vocal cords (internal branch). - Stridor typically results from severe **airway obstruction**, which is not a direct consequence of superior laryngeal nerve palsy as the **vocal cords** are not paralyzed open or closed to cause obstruction. *Aspiration* - The **internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve** provides sensory innervation to the **supraglottic larynx**. - Loss of sensation in this region can impair the protective **cough reflex**, leading to an increased risk of aspiration. *Bowed vocal cords* - **Palsy of the cricothyroid muscle**, innervated by the **external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve**, causes a loss of tension in the vocal cord. - This lack of tension can result in a characteristically **bowed appearance** of the affected vocal cord during phonation. *Loss of pitch* - The **cricothyroid muscle** is responsible for tensing and elongating the vocal cords, which is crucial for **raising vocal pitch**. - Paralysis of this muscle due to **superior laryngeal nerve palsy** directly impairs the ability to achieve higher pitches, leading to a **monotone voice** or loss of pitch.
Question 2: Tobey-Ayer test is done for:
- A. Ketosis
- B. Acantholysis
- C. Lateral sinus thrombosis (Correct Answer)
- D. Hemoglobinuria
Explanation: ***Lateral sinus thrombosis*** - The **Tobey-Ayer test** is used to detect **lateral (transverse) sinus thrombosis**, a serious complication of otogenic infections. - The test involves **lumbar puncture with CSF manometry** while sequentially compressing each **internal jugular vein**. - In a normal response, compression of either jugular vein causes a **rapid rise in CSF pressure** (within 10 seconds) due to venous obstruction, followed by rapid fall on release. - In **lateral sinus thrombosis**, compression of the jugular vein on the **affected side** produces **no rise or delayed/sluggish rise** in CSF pressure, indicating obstruction of venous drainage. - This is distinct from the Queckenstedt-Stookey test, which tests for spinal subarachnoid block. *Ketosis* - **Ketosis** is a metabolic state with elevated **ketone bodies** in blood, detected by urine dipsticks or blood ketone meters. - It has no relation to the Tobey-Ayer test or ENT pathology. *Acantholysis* - **Acantholysis** is loss of intercellular connections between **keratinocytes**, seen in blistering skin diseases like Pemphigus. - It is a histological dermatological finding, completely unrelated to neurological or ENT examination. *Hemoglobinuria* - **Hemoglobinuria** is the presence of free **hemoglobin** in urine due to intravascular hemolysis. - It is detected by urinalysis and has no connection to CSF manometry or lateral sinus assessment.
Question 3: Recruitment phenomenon is seen in:
- A. Otitis media with effusion
- B. Otosclerosis
- C. Acoustic nerve schwannoma
- D. Meniere's disease (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Meniere's disease*** - The recruitment phenomenon, characterized by an abnormal increase in the perception of loudness for a given increase in sound intensity, is a classic finding in **cochlear hearing loss**, often seen in conditions like **Meniere's disease**. - This occurs due to damage to the **outer hair cells** in the cochlea, which normally compress the dynamic range of hearing. *Otitis media with effusion* - This condition involves **conductive hearing loss** due to fluid in the middle ear, and typically does not cause the recruitment phenomenon. - The problem lies in sound transmission, not in the processing of loudness within the cochlea. *Otosclerosis* - This condition causes **conductive hearing loss** due to abnormal bone growth around the stapes footplate, impeding sound transmission to the inner ear. - While it affects hearing, it does not directly lead to altered loudness perception or recruitment, as the cochlea itself is often intact. *Acoustic nerve schwannoma* - This tumor affects the **vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)**, causing **sensorineural hearing loss** that is typically retrocochlear (beyond the cochlea). - While it causes hearing loss, recruitment is usually absent or minimal, as the pathology is neural, not cochlear.
Question 4: All of the following are seen in Meniere's Disease except:
- A. Fullness of ear
- B. Ear Pain (Correct Answer)
- C. Vertigo
- D. Tinnitus
Explanation: ***Ear Pain*** - **Otalgia** (ear pain) is not a typical symptom of **Meniere's disease**. - While patients may experience discomfort due to pressure, sharp or significant pain is generally absent. *Fullness of ear* - A sensation of **aural fullness** or pressure in the affected ear is a characteristic symptom of Meniere's disease, often preceding a vertiginous attack. - This symptom is thought to be due to the buildup of **endolymphatic fluid** within the inner ear. *Vertigo* - **Episodic rotational vertigo** is a hallmark symptom of Meniere's disease, significantly impacting daily activities and often accompanied by nausea and vomiting. - These attacks are typically sudden, severe, and can last from 20 minutes to several hours. *Tinnitus* - **Tinnitus**, often described as a ringing, buzzing, or roaring sound, is a common symptom in patients with Meniere's disease. - It usually fluctuates in intensity and can worsen before or during a vertigo attack.
Question 5: Most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)
- A. Labyrinthitis
- B. Meniere's disease
- C. Presbycusis (Correct Answer)
- D. Vestibular Schwannoma
Explanation: ***Presbycusis*** - **Presbycusis**, or age-related hearing loss, is the most common cause of **sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)**, affecting a significant portion of the elderly population. - It typically results from **degenerative changes** in the inner ear, specifically the hair cells and nerve fibers, leading to a gradual, symmetrical, high-frequency SNHL. *Labyrinthitis* - **Labyrinthitis** is an inflammation of the inner ear that can cause sudden SNHL, often accompanied by **vertigo** and **tinnitus**. - While it causes SNHL, it is an acute condition and not the most common overall cause, especially when considering the prevalence of age-related hearing loss. *Meniere's disease* - **Meniere's disease** is characterized by recurrent episodes of **vertigo, fluctuating low-frequency SNHL, tinnitus**, and aural fullness. - It is a specific condition causing SNHL, but its prevalence is much lower than presbycusis, making it a less common overall cause. *Vestibular Schwannoma* - A **vestibular schwannoma** (acoustic neuroma) is a benign tumor that arises from the Schwann cells of the **vestibulocochlear nerve**. - It can cause **progressive unilateral SNHL**, tinnitus, and balance issues, but it is a relatively rare condition compared to presbycusis.
Question 6: Most common malignancy of maxillary antrum:
- A. Muco-epidermoid Carcinoma
- B. Adenoid cystic Carcinoma
- C. Adenocarcinoma
- D. Squamous cell Carcinoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Squamous cell Carcinoma*** - **Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)** accounts for approximately **80% of all malignant tumors** of the maxillary antrum. - This prevalence is due to the **squamous metaplasia** of the respiratory epithelium lining the sinus, especially in response to chronic irritation or inflammation. *Mucoepidermoid Carcinoma* - While it can occur in the maxillary sinus, **mucoepidermoid carcinoma** is a rare tumor, typically arising from **minor salivary glands**. - It is far **less common** than squamous cell carcinoma in the maxillary antrum. *Adenoid cystic Carcinoma* - **Adenoid cystic carcinoma** is a relatively rare tumor that more commonly affects the **major and minor salivary glands** and is known for its **perineural invasion** and slow growth, but it is not the most common in the maxillary antrum. - Its presence in the maxillary sinus is usually an **extension from adjacent structures** or a primary tumor of minor salivary glands within the sinus. *Adenocarcinoma* - **Adenocarcinoma** of the maxillary antrum is less common than SCC, often associated with exposure to **wood dust** or **leather processing**. - It typically arises from **seromucinous glands** within the sinus lining, but its incidence is significantly lower than that of squamous cell carcinoma.
Question 7: Young's operation is done for:
- A. Allergic rhinitis
- B. Vasomotor rhinitis
- C. Atrophic rhinitis (Correct Answer)
- D. Antrochoanal polyp
Explanation: ***Atrophic rhinitis*** - **Young's operation** is a surgical procedure specifically designed to treat **atrophic rhinitis**. - The goal of the surgery is to narrow the nasal passages by creating a **synechia** (adhesion) to reduce airflow and improve the humidification and temperature of inspired air. *Allergic rhinitis* - Allergic rhinitis is primarily managed with **medical therapy**, including antihistamines, nasal corticosteroids, and allergen avoidance. - Surgical intervention, if considered, typically involves procedures like turbinate reduction, not Young's operation, and is less common for this condition. *Vasomotor rhinitis* - Vasomotor rhinitis is a **non-allergic, non-infectious condition** characterized by fluctuating nasal congestion and rhinorrhea, often triggered by irritants or temperature changes. - Treatment usually involves **medical management** with anticholinergics or nasal corticosteroids, and sometimes turbinate reduction, but not Young's operation. *Antrochoanal polyp* - An antrochoanal polyp is a benign growth originating in the **maxillary sinus** and extending into the choana. - The primary treatment is **surgical removal**, typically via endoscopic sinus surgery, which is distinct from Young's operation.
Question 8: A 15 years old Male presented with history of fever since 2 days, unable to swallow the food with muffled voice. On examination it is noted right tonsil is shifted to midline. What is the diagnosis:
- A. Quincy (Correct Answer)
- B. Acute tonsillitis
- C. Parapharyngeal abscess
- D. Acute retropharyngeal abscess
Explanation: ***Quincy (Peritonsillar abscess)*** - This patient's presentation with **fever**, **dysphagia**, **muffled voice** (hot potato voice), and **tonsil shifted to the midline** is classic for a **peritonsillar abscess (Quincy)**. - The affected tonsil is pushed **medially toward the midline** by the collection of pus between the tonsillar capsule and the superior constrictor muscle. - The uvula is typically deviated to the **contralateral side**, and patients often have **trismus** and difficulty opening the mouth. - This is the **most common deep neck space infection** and typically follows acute tonsillitis. *Parapharyngeal abscess* - A **parapharyngeal abscess** would present with **severe trismus**, **neck swelling**, **torticollis**, and **bulging of the lateral pharyngeal wall**. - While it can push the tonsil medially, it more characteristically causes **anterolateral displacement** of the entire pharyngeal wall rather than isolated tonsillar displacement. - Patients typically have more pronounced **systemic toxicity** and **neck involvement** than seen with peritonsillar abscess. *Acute tonsillitis* - **Acute tonsillitis** presents with **bilateral tonsillar enlargement**, exudates, and pharyngeal erythema. - It does not cause **displacement of the tonsil to the midline** or significant **muffled voice**. - While fever and dysphagia are present, the physical examination finding of tonsillar shift indicates a suppurative complication (abscess formation). *Acute retropharyngeal abscess* - An **acute retropharyngeal abscess** occurs in the retropharyngeal space behind the posterior pharyngeal wall. - It presents with **neck stiffness**, **stridor**, **drooling**, **bulging of the posterior pharyngeal wall**, and **reluctance to extend the neck**. - It would **not cause visible displacement of the tonsil to the midline** as the abscess is in a different anatomical space. - More common in **young children** (under 5 years) than adolescents.
Question 9: A patient presented with 2 days history of fever. On examination there was a swelling in the neck and one side tonsil was pushed to midline. What is the most likely diagnosis:-
- A. Retropharyngeal abscess
- B. Parapharyngeal abscess
- C. Tonsillitis
- D. Quinsy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Quinsy (Peritonsillar abscess)*** - **Quinsy** is a **peritonsillar abscess** that presents with fever, severe throat pain, and the pathognomonic sign of **unilateral tonsil pushed toward the midline**. - The abscess forms in the **peritonsillar space** (between the tonsillar capsule and superior constrictor muscle), causing **medial displacement of the tonsil** and **bulging of the soft palate**. - Patients typically have **trismus, dysphagia, "hot potato voice"** and may have visible neck swelling. - This clinical presentation exactly matches the description: tonsil pushed to midline is the **classic finding for peritonsillar abscess**. *Parapharyngeal abscess* - A **parapharyngeal abscess** involves the deep parapharyngeal space lateral to the pharynx. - While it can cause neck swelling and fever, it typically causes **fullness and induration of the lateral pharyngeal wall** rather than prominent medial displacement of the tonsil itself. - The **tonsil is usually NOT pushed to the midline** in parapharyngeal abscess; instead, there is lateral pharyngeal wall bulging. - Often presents with more prominent external neck swelling below the angle of mandible. *Retropharyngeal abscess* - A **retropharyngeal abscess** occurs in the retropharyngeal space behind the posterior pharyngeal wall. - Presents with **posterior pharyngeal wall bulge**, neck stiffness, and dysphagia. - Does **NOT cause medial displacement of the tonsil** as the abscess is posterior, not lateral to the tonsil. *Tonsillitis* - **Acute tonsillitis** causes bilateral tonsillar inflammation with erythema and exudates. - While both tonsils may be enlarged, there is **no unilateral medial displacement** of one tonsil. - Less likely to cause significant neck swelling compared to deep space infections.
Question 10: Dip at 4000 Hz in pure tone audiometry indicates:
- A. Meniere's disease
- B. Age related hearing loss
- C. Otosclerosis
- D. Noise induced hearing loss (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Noise induced hearing loss*** - A characteristic **"4 kHz Notch"** or dip in the audiogram is a hallmark of **noise-induced hearing loss**, resulting from damage to the **cochlear hair cells** in this frequency range. - This specific frequency is most susceptible to damage from loud noise exposure due to the physical properties of the **basilar membrane**. *Meniere's disease* - Typically presents with **low-frequency hearing loss**, often fluctuating, along with **tinnitus**, **vertigo**, and a feeling of **aural fullness**. - A dip at 4000 Hz is not a characteristic audiometric finding for **Meniere's disease**. *Age related hearing loss* - Also known as **presbycusis**, it is typically a **symmetrical, progressive, sensorineural hearing loss** that primarily affects **higher frequencies**, but it usually presents as a more gradual slope rather than a sharp dip at a specific frequency like 4 kHz. - While high frequencies are affected, the pattern is usually a broader high-frequency loss, not an isolated notch. *Otosclerosis* - This condition is a form of **conductive hearing loss** (though it can have a sensorineural component in advanced stages) due to abnormal bone growth around the **stapes footplate**. - Its classic audiometric finding is a **Carhart notch** around 2000 Hz, with a conductive hearing loss pattern, rather than a sensorineural dip at 4000 Hz.