Cephalosporins — MCQs

A neonate born at 33 weeks is transferred to the NICU after a complicated pregnancy and C-section. A week after being admitted, he developed a fever and became lethargic and minimally responsive to stimuli. A lumbar puncture is performed that reveals the following: Appearance Cloudy Protein 64 mg/dL Glucose 22 mg/dL Pressure 330 mm H20 Cells 295 cells/mm³ (> 90% PMN) A specimen is sent to microbiology and reveals gram-negative rods. Which of the following is the next appropriate step in management?

A 70-year-old man presents with fever, headache, and vomiting. He says that symptoms onset acutely 2 days ago and have not improved. He also reports associated weakness and chills. Past medical history is significant for occasional heartburn. His temperature is 39.4°C (103.0°F), the pulse rate is 124/min, the blood pressure is 130/84 mm Hg, and the respiratory rate is 22/min. On physical examination, there is significant nuchal rigidity. No signs of raised intracranial pressure are present. A lumbar puncture is performed and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis shows lymphocyte-dominant pleocytosis with increased CSF protein levels. Bacteriological culture of the CSF reveals the growth of Listeria monocytogenes. Which of the following antibiotics is the best choice for the treatment of this patient?

A 72-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with productive cough and fever. A chest radiograph is obtained and shows lobar consolidation. The patient is diagnosed with pneumonia. He has a history of penicillin allergy. The attending physician orders IV levofloxacin as empiric therapy. On morning rounds the next day, the team discovers that the patient was administered ceftriaxone instead of levofloxacin. The patient has already received a full dose of ceftriaxone and had no signs of allergic reaction, and his pneumonia appears to be improving clinically. What is the most appropriate next step?

Blood cultures are sent to the laboratory and empiric treatment with intravenous vancomycin is started. Blood cultures grow gram-negative bacilli identified as Cardiobacterium hominis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

You are treating a neonate with meningitis using ampicillin and a second antibiotic, X, that is known to cause ototoxicity. What is the mechanism of antibiotic X?

A 21-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-day history of abdominal cramps and bloody diarrhea 5 times per day. Her symptoms began after she ate an egg sandwich from a restaurant. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows diffuse abdominal tenderness. Stool culture shows gram-negative rods that produce hydrogen sulfide and do not ferment lactose. Which of the following effects is most likely to occur if she receives antibiotic therapy?

An 82-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of severe pain and joint stiffness in his right knee. The pain started 3 days ago and has worsened despite acetaminophen intake. He has benign prostatic hyperplasia and hypertension. One week ago, he had a urinary tract infection and was treated with nitrofurantoin. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. His current medications include enalapril, hydrochlorothiazide, and tamsulosin. He appears to be in severe pain and has trouble moving his right knee. His temperature is 38.7°C (101.5°F), pulse is 92/min, and blood pressure is 135/90 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a swollen, erythematous, warm right knee; range of motion is limited by pain. Synovial fluid aspiration shows a yellow-green turbid fluid. Gram stain of the synovial aspirate shows numerous leukocytes and multiple gram-negative rods. An x-ray of the right knee shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?

A 37-year-old man with a history of IV drug use presents to the ED with complaints of fevers, chills, and malaise for one week. He admits to recently using IV and intramuscular heroin. Vital signs are as follows: T 40.0 C, HR 120 bpm, BP 110/68 mmHg, RR 14, O2Sat 98%. Examination reveals a new systolic murmur that is loudest at the lower left sternal border. Initial management includes administration of which of the following regimens?

A 32-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital after undergoing an open cholecystectomy under general anesthesia. Preoperatively, the patient was administered a single dose of intravenous ceftriaxone. Now, the anesthetic effects have worn off, and her pain is well managed. The patient has a prior medical history of hypertension which has been well-controlled by captopril for 2 years. Her vitals currently show: blood pressure 134/82 mm Hg, heart rate 84/min, and respiratory rate 16/min. Postoperative laboratory findings are significant for the following: Serum glucose (random) 174 mg/dL Serum electrolytes Sodium 142 mEq/L Potassium 3.9 mEq/L Chloride 101 mEq/L Serum creatinine 0.9 mg/dL Blood urea nitrogen 10 mg/dL Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 150 U/L Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 172 U/L Serum bilirubin (total) 0.9 mg/dL Preoperative labs were all within normal limits. Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for this patient’s abnormal laboratory findings?

A 22-year-old female with no past medical history presents to her primary care physician with a 3-day history of knee pain. She denies any recent injury or trauma. On physical examination her knee is warm, erythematous, and has diminished range of movement. The patient reports having multiple sexual partners over the last year and does not use protection regularly. Her blood pressure is 124/85 mmHg, heart rate is 76/min, and temperature is 38.3℃ (101.0℉). A joint aspiration is performed and a growth of gram-negative diplococci is noted on bacterial culture. What is the treatment of choice for this patient's condition?