A 68-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. His wife has noticed that his left eye looks smaller than his right eye. He has had left shoulder and arm pain for 3 months. He has hypertension and coronary artery disease. Current medications include enalapril, metoprolol, aspirin, and atorvastatin. His medical history is significant for gonorrhea, for which he was treated in his 30's. He has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 35 years. He does not drink alcohol. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 71/min, and blood pressure is 126/84 mm Hg. The pupils are unequal; when measured in dim light, the left pupil is 3 mm and the right pupil is 5 mm. There is drooping of the left eyelid. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Application of apraclonidine drops in both eyes results in a left pupil size of 5 mm and a right pupil size of 4 mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q982
A 30-year-old African American man comes to the doctor's office for an annual checkup. He feels healthy and his only concern is an occasional headache after work. Past medical history is significant for an appendectomy 10 years ago and a fractured arm playing football in high school. His mother has type 2 diabetes mellitus, while his father and grandfather both have hypertension. He does not drink alcohol, smoke cigarettes, or use drugs. His vital signs include: pulse 78/min and regular, respiratory rate 16/min, and temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F). Physical examination reveals an overweight African American man 167 cm (5 ft 6 in) tall and weighing 80 kg (176 lb) with a protuberant belly. BMI is 28.7 kg/m2. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. During his last 2 visits, his blood pressure readings have been 140/86 mm Hg and 136/82 mm Hg. Today his blood pressure is 136/86 mm Hg and his laboratory tests show:
Serum Glucose (fasting) 90.0 mg/dL
Serum Electrolytes:
Sodium 142.0 mEq/L
Potassium 3.9 mEq/L
Chloride 101.0 mEq/L
Serum Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Blood urea nitrogen 9.0 mg/dL
Urinalysis:
Glucose Negative
Ketones Negative
Leukocytes Negative
Nitrite Negative
RBCs Negative
Casts Negative
Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Q983
A 72-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her daughter because of left-sided weakness for 1 hour. She does not have headache or blurring of vision. She has hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, type 2 diabetes, and coronary artery disease. She has smoked one half-pack of cigarettes daily for 45 years. Her medications include atorvastatin, amlodipine, metformin, and aspirin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 92/min, and blood pressure is 168/90 mm Hg. Examination shows a left facial droop. Muscle strength is decreased on the left side. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ on the left. Sensation to pinprick, light touch, and vibration as well as two-point discrimination are normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
Q984
A 69-year-old man is brought to the emergency department for severe tearing lower back pain for 12 hours. The pain radiates to the flank and he describes it as 8 out of 10 in intensity. He has nausea and has vomited several times. He has no fever, diarrhea, or urinary symptoms. When he stands up suddenly, he becomes light-headed and has to steady himself for approximately 1 to 2 minutes before he is able to walk. He has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Two years ago, he had a myocardial infarction and underwent coronary artery bypass grafting of his right coronary artery. He has smoked one and a half packs of cigarettes daily for 40 years and drinks 1 to 2 beers daily. His current medications include chlorthalidone, atorvastatin, lisinopril, and aspirin. He appears acutely ill. His temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F), pulse is 130/min and regular, respirations are 35/min, and blood pressure is 80/55 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 85%. Examination shows a pulsatile mass in the abdomen. Intravenous fluids and high-flow oxygen are started. Thirty minutes later, the patient dies. Which of the following was the strongest predisposing factor for the condition leading to this patient's death?
Q985
A 19-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. She appears well. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Cardiac auscultation shows a mid-systolic click and a grade 3/6, late-systolic, crescendo murmur that is best heard at the cardiac apex in the left lateral recumbent position. After the patient stands up suddenly, the click is heard during early systole and the intensity of the murmur increases. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's examination findings?
Q986
A 30-year-old woman is brought to the clinic at her husband's insistence for sleep disturbances. Most nights of the week she repeatedly gets out of bed to pace around their apartment before returning to bed. The woman says that while she's lying in bed, she becomes overwhelmed by a "creepy-crawly" feeling in her legs that she can only relieve by getting out of bed. Past medical history is noncontributory and physical exam is unremarkable. Which of the following laboratory studies is most likely abnormal in this patient?
Q987
A 70-year-old male with a 10-year history of COPD visits his pulmonologist for a checkup. Physical examination reveals cyanosis, digital clubbing, and bilateral lung wheezes are heard upon auscultation. The patient has a cough productive of thick yellow sputum. Which of the following findings is most likely present in this patient?
Q988
A 57-year-old woman is admitted to the intensive care unit for management of shock. Her pulse is feeble and blood pressure is 86/45 mm Hg. The patient undergoes pulmonary artery catheterization which shows an elevated pulmonary capillary wedge pressure and increased systemic vascular resistance. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
Q989
A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe respiratory distress. He was diagnosed with metastatic pancreatic cancer 6 months ago and underwent 2 rounds of chemotherapy. He says that he has had a cough and flu-like symptoms for the past week. During the interview, he is having progressive difficulty answering questions and suddenly becomes obtunded with decreased motor reflexes. His temperature is 38.8°C (102.0°F), blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, pulse is 94/min, and respirations are 22/min. Pulse oximetry is 82% on room air. The patient’s medical record contains an advanced directive stating that he would like all interventions except for cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q990
A 74-year-old man is brought from a nursing home to the emergency room for progressive confusion. The patient has a history of stroke 3 years ago, which rendered him wheelchair-bound. He was recently started on clozapine for schizoaffective disorder. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 38.7°C (101.66°F), a blood pressure of 100/72 mm Hg, and a pulse of 105/minute. On physical examination, he is disoriented to place and time. Initial lab work-up results are shown:
Serum glucose: 945 mg/dL
Serum sodium: 120 mEq/L
Serum urea: 58 mg/dL
Serum creatinine: 2.2 mg/dL
Serum osmolality: 338 mOsm/kg
Serum beta-hydroxybutyrate: negative
Urinalysis reveals: numerous white blood cells and trace ketones
Which of the following manifestations is more likely to be present in this patient?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 981: A 68-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. His wife has noticed that his left eye looks smaller than his right eye. He has had left shoulder and arm pain for 3 months. He has hypertension and coronary artery disease. Current medications include enalapril, metoprolol, aspirin, and atorvastatin. His medical history is significant for gonorrhea, for which he was treated in his 30's. He has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 35 years. He does not drink alcohol. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 71/min, and blood pressure is 126/84 mm Hg. The pupils are unequal; when measured in dim light, the left pupil is 3 mm and the right pupil is 5 mm. There is drooping of the left eyelid. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Application of apraclonidine drops in both eyes results in a left pupil size of 5 mm and a right pupil size of 4 mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B. CT scan of the chest (Correct Answer)
C. Applanation tonometry
D. Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies
E. Rapid plasma reagin
Explanation: ***CT scan of the chest***
- The patient presents with **Horner's syndrome** (miosis, ptosis, and anhidrosis - though anhidrosis isn't explicitly mentioned, miosis and ptosis are clearly present)
- The combination of Horner's syndrome, **70 pack-year smoking history**, and **shoulder/arm pain** is highly suspicious for a **Pancoast tumor** (superior sulcus tumor) compressing the sympathetic chain
- The **apraclonidine test** confirms **postganglionic Horner's syndrome** (reversal of anisocoria), consistent with a compressive lesion
- **CT scan of the chest** is the most appropriate next step to evaluate for an apical lung mass
*Erythrocyte sedimentation rate*
- ESR is a non-specific inflammatory marker that would not directly diagnose the underlying cause of Horner's syndrome
- While it may be elevated in malignancies or inflammatory conditions, it doesn't provide the specific anatomical information needed to identify a Pancoast tumor
*Applanation tonometry*
- This test measures intraocular pressure and is used to screen for glaucoma
- Not relevant to the evaluation of Horner's syndrome or the patient's other concerning symptoms
*Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies*
- These antibodies are used to diagnose **myasthenia gravis**, an autoimmune neuromuscular disorder
- Myasthenia gravis can cause ptosis and fatigable muscle weakness, but it does **not** cause miosis or anisocoria
- The positive apraclonidine test confirms this is Horner's syndrome, not myasthenia gravis
*Rapid plasma reagin*
- RPR is a screening test for syphilis
- While the patient has a history of gonorrhea (different STI), there are no current symptoms suggestive of syphilis
- Neurosyphilis would not explain the specific pattern of postganglionic Horner's syndrome or the shoulder pain in this smoking patient
Question 982: A 30-year-old African American man comes to the doctor's office for an annual checkup. He feels healthy and his only concern is an occasional headache after work. Past medical history is significant for an appendectomy 10 years ago and a fractured arm playing football in high school. His mother has type 2 diabetes mellitus, while his father and grandfather both have hypertension. He does not drink alcohol, smoke cigarettes, or use drugs. His vital signs include: pulse 78/min and regular, respiratory rate 16/min, and temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F). Physical examination reveals an overweight African American man 167 cm (5 ft 6 in) tall and weighing 80 kg (176 lb) with a protuberant belly. BMI is 28.7 kg/m2. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. During his last 2 visits, his blood pressure readings have been 140/86 mm Hg and 136/82 mm Hg. Today his blood pressure is 136/86 mm Hg and his laboratory tests show:
Serum Glucose (fasting) 90.0 mg/dL
Serum Electrolytes:
Sodium 142.0 mEq/L
Potassium 3.9 mEq/L
Chloride 101.0 mEq/L
Serum Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Blood urea nitrogen 9.0 mg/dL
Urinalysis:
Glucose Negative
Ketones Negative
Leukocytes Negative
Nitrite Negative
RBCs Negative
Casts Negative
Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Start him on hydrochlorothiazide.
B. Recommend weight loss, more exercise, and a salt-restricted diet. (Correct Answer)
C. Start him on lisinopril.
D. Order a glycosylated hemoglobin test (HbA1c).
E. Start him on hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril together.
Explanation: ***Recommend weight loss, more exercise, and a salt-restricted diet.***
- The patient's blood pressure readings over three visits (140/86, 136/82, and 136/86 mm Hg) indicate **hypertension**, with the first reading meeting criteria for **Stage 2 hypertension** (systolic ≥140 mm Hg) and subsequent readings in the **Stage 1 range** (130-139/80-89 mm Hg).
- However, this patient is young (30 years old) with **no evidence of end-organ damage** and likely has a **low 10-year ASCVD risk** (<10%), making him appropriate for initial management with **lifestyle modifications alone**.
- **Lifestyle modifications** are the cornerstone of initial hypertension management and include: weight loss (BMI 28.7 with central obesity), regular physical activity, dietary changes (DASH diet with salt restriction <2.3g sodium/day), and limiting alcohol.
- Per **2017 ACC/AHA guidelines**, for patients with Stage 1 hypertension and low CV risk, or those with borderline readings like this patient, lifestyle modification should be attempted first with reassessment in 3-6 months before initiating pharmacotherapy.
*Start him on hydrochlorothiazide.*
- While **thiazide diuretics** are first-line pharmacotherapy for hypertension and particularly effective in African American patients, medication is typically initiated when: (1) blood pressure is consistently ≥140/90 mm Hg **and** patient has high CV risk (≥10% ASCVD risk), or (2) lifestyle modifications fail after 3-6 months.
- This patient has not yet attempted lifestyle modifications and likely has low CV risk given his young age and absence of other cardiovascular risk factors beyond family history and overweight status.
- Starting medication immediately without counseling on lifestyle changes would bypass a critical and potentially effective intervention.
*Start him on lisinopril.*
- **ACE inhibitors** like lisinopril are first-line agents for hypertension, particularly beneficial in patients with compelling indications such as diabetes, chronic kidney disease, heart failure, or post-MI—none of which this patient currently has.
- As with thiazide diuretics, initiation of an ACE inhibitor would typically follow an unsuccessful trial of **lifestyle modification** in a young, low-risk patient with borderline hypertension.
*Order a glycosylated hemoglobin test (HbA1c).*
- While the patient has a family history of diabetes and is overweight, his **fasting glucose is 90 mg/dL**, which is completely normal (<100 mg/dL).
- An HbA1c test would be indicated if fasting glucose was ≥100 mg/dL (impaired fasting glucose) or if there were clinical signs of diabetes, which are not present.
- Although diabetes screening may be reasonable given his risk factors, addressing his **confirmed hypertension** is the more pressing clinical priority at this visit.
*Start him on hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril together.*
- **Combination therapy** with two antihypertensive agents is typically reserved for patients with **Stage 2 hypertension (≥140/90 mm Hg) with high CV risk** or those who do not achieve blood pressure targets with monotherapy plus lifestyle modifications.
- Initiating two medications simultaneously in a young patient who has not attempted lifestyle changes is an overly aggressive approach that increases the risk of side effects and cost without clear benefit.
Question 983: A 72-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her daughter because of left-sided weakness for 1 hour. She does not have headache or blurring of vision. She has hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, type 2 diabetes, and coronary artery disease. She has smoked one half-pack of cigarettes daily for 45 years. Her medications include atorvastatin, amlodipine, metformin, and aspirin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 92/min, and blood pressure is 168/90 mm Hg. Examination shows a left facial droop. Muscle strength is decreased on the left side. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ on the left. Sensation to pinprick, light touch, and vibration as well as two-point discrimination are normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
A. Lipohyalinosis of lenticulostriate arteries (Correct Answer)
B. Rupture of an intracranial aneurysm
C. Dissection of the vertebral artery
D. Embolism from the left atrium
E. Atherosclerosis of the internal carotid artery
Explanation: ***Lipohyalinosis of lenticulostriate arteries***
- This patient presents with a **pure motor deficit** (left-sided weakness and facial droop) without sensory changes, a classic presentation for a **lacunar stroke**.
- **Lipohyalinosis** affects small, penetrating arteries like the lenticulostriate arteries, often caused by chronic **hypertension** and **diabetes**, both present in this patient.
*Rupture of an intracranial aneurysm*
- An aneurysm rupture typically causes a **subarachnoid hemorrhage**, presenting with a sudden, severe **thunderclap headache**, meningismus, and altered mental status, which are absent here.
- While it can cause neurological deficits, the pure motor presentation without headache is less characteristic of an acute rupture.
*Dissection of the vertebral artery*
- Vertebral artery dissection often presents with **posterior circulation symptoms** such as vertigo, ataxia, diplopia, and neck pain, none of which are described.
- While it can lead to stroke, the isolated motor deficit without other brainstem signs makes it less likely.
*Embolism from the left atrium*
- Cerebral embolism usually results in a **cortical stroke** with a broader range of symptoms including aphasia, neglect, or sensory deficits in addition to motor weakness, depending on the affected large vessel territory.
- While the patient has risk factors for atrial fibrillation (CAD, hypertension), the isolated motor deficit is more typical of a small vessel occlusion.
*Atherosclerosis of the internal carotid artery*
- Severe carotid atherosclerosis can cause strokes due to **artery-to-artery embolism** or hemodynamically significant stenosis, typically affecting larger cerebral arteries leading to cortical signs.
- Symptoms often include **amaurosis fugax** or broader neurological deficits localized to the anterior circulation, which differ from the pure motor lacunar syndrome seen here.
Question 984: A 69-year-old man is brought to the emergency department for severe tearing lower back pain for 12 hours. The pain radiates to the flank and he describes it as 8 out of 10 in intensity. He has nausea and has vomited several times. He has no fever, diarrhea, or urinary symptoms. When he stands up suddenly, he becomes light-headed and has to steady himself for approximately 1 to 2 minutes before he is able to walk. He has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Two years ago, he had a myocardial infarction and underwent coronary artery bypass grafting of his right coronary artery. He has smoked one and a half packs of cigarettes daily for 40 years and drinks 1 to 2 beers daily. His current medications include chlorthalidone, atorvastatin, lisinopril, and aspirin. He appears acutely ill. His temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F), pulse is 130/min and regular, respirations are 35/min, and blood pressure is 80/55 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 85%. Examination shows a pulsatile mass in the abdomen. Intravenous fluids and high-flow oxygen are started. Thirty minutes later, the patient dies. Which of the following was the strongest predisposing factor for the condition leading to this patient's death?
A. Hyperlipidemia
B. Smoking (Correct Answer)
C. Male sex
D. Hypertension
E. Advanced age
Explanation: ***Smoking***
- **Smoking** is the strongest predisposing factor for **abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs)**, which is the most likely cause of this patient's death due to rupture. It significantly accelerates **atherosclerosis** and causes **degeneration of the arterial wall**.
- Smokers have a **four to five times higher risk** of developing an AAA compared to non-smokers, and the risk increases with the duration and intensity of smoking.
*Hyperlipidemia*
- While **hyperlipidemia** contributes to **atherosclerosis** and is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, its direct association with AAA formation is less significant than smoking.
- **Statins** (like atorvastatin, which the patient is taking) are used to manage hyperlipidemia and can slow the progression of atherosclerosis, but they do not reverse the underlying damage.
*Male sex*
- **Male sex** is a risk factor for AAAs, with men being **4 to 5 times more likely** to develop them compared to women.
- However, compared to smoking, which causes significant biochemical and structural changes in the arterial wall, being male is a less modifiable and less potent individual risk factor.
*Hypertension*
- **Hypertension** is a risk factor for AAA development and rupture, as **elevated blood pressure** places increased stress on the arterial wall.
- While important, its influence on AAA formation is generally considered secondary to the direct damaging effects of smoking on arterial wall integrity.
*Advanced age*
- **Advanced age** is a significant risk factor for AAAs because the arterial walls naturally **weaken and stiffen** over time due to degenerative changes.
- Although age is a strong association, modifiable risk factors like smoking contribute more to the *initiation and progression* of AAA pathology than age alone.
Question 985: A 19-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. She appears well. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Cardiac auscultation shows a mid-systolic click and a grade 3/6, late-systolic, crescendo murmur that is best heard at the cardiac apex in the left lateral recumbent position. After the patient stands up suddenly, the click is heard during early systole and the intensity of the murmur increases. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's examination findings?
A. Congenital interventricular communication
B. Myxomatous degeneration (Correct Answer)
C. Dystrophic valvular calcification
D. Congenital valvular fusion
E. Myosin heavy chain defect
Explanation: ***Myxomatous degeneration***
- The classic auscultation findings of a **mid-systolic click** followed by a **late-systolic crescendo murmur** heard best at the apex are characteristic of **mitral valve prolapse (MVP)**.
- The change in timing of the click to early systole and increased murmur intensity upon standing are due to decreased left ventricular volume, which accentuates MVP by causing the mitral valve leaflets to prolapse earlier and more severely. These findings are the result of **myxomatous degeneration** of the mitral valve leaflets.
*Congenital interventricular communication*
- This condition (e.g., **ventricular septal defect**) typically presents with a **holosystolic murmur** best heard at the lower left sternal border and is usually detected earlier in life.
- It would not cause a mid-systolic click or a late-systolic crescendo murmur that changes with position in this manner.
*Dystrophic valvular calcification*
- **Dystrophic calcification** is a common cause of **aortic stenosis** in older individuals and is not typically associated with mitral valve prolapse in a young patient.
- Aortic stenosis produces a **crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur** loudest at the right upper sternal border, often radiating to the carotids, without a mid-systolic click.
*Congenital valvular fusion*
- **Congenital valvular fusion** usually leads to **stenosis** (e.g., congenital aortic stenosis or bicuspid aortic valve) or **regurgitation**, depending on the valve involved.
- While it can cause murmurs, it does not typically present with the specific mid-systolic click and late-systolic crescendo murmur characteristic of mitral valve prolapse, especially with its dynamic changes.
*Myosin heavy chain defect*
- A **myosin heavy chain defect** is a common genetic cause of **hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)**.
- HCM typically produces a **crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur** that increases with Valsalva maneuver (due to decreased preload) and decreases with squatting (due to increased preload and afterload), but it does not feature a mid-systolic click.
Question 986: A 30-year-old woman is brought to the clinic at her husband's insistence for sleep disturbances. Most nights of the week she repeatedly gets out of bed to pace around their apartment before returning to bed. The woman says that while she's lying in bed, she becomes overwhelmed by a "creepy-crawly" feeling in her legs that she can only relieve by getting out of bed. Past medical history is noncontributory and physical exam is unremarkable. Which of the following laboratory studies is most likely abnormal in this patient?
A. Hemoglobin A1c
B. Nerve conduction studies
C. Liver function tests
D. Lumbar puncture
E. Complete blood count (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Complete blood count***
- The patient's symptoms are highly suggestive of **restless legs syndrome (RLS)**, characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs, often accompanied by uncomfortable sensations that worsen at rest and improve with movement, and are worse in the evening or night [1].
- **Iron deficiency** is a common and treatable secondary cause of RLS [2]. While **serum ferritin** is the most specific test for iron stores (and should be checked in all RLS patients), a **complete blood count (CBC)** is the most appropriate initial screening test among the given options.
- CBC may reveal **microcytic anemia** (low MCV, low hemoglobin) suggesting iron deficiency [3], though iron deficiency can exist without anemia. In clinical practice, CBC abnormalities would prompt further iron studies including ferritin, serum iron, TIBC, and transferrin saturation.
*Hemoglobin A1c*
- While **diabetes mellitus** can be associated with peripheral neuropathy causing leg discomfort, diabetic neuropathy typically presents with different symptoms: numbness, tingling, or burning pain in a stocking-glove distribution.
- Diabetic neuropathy symptoms are **not relieved by movement** in the characteristic way seen in RLS, and symptoms don't specifically worsen at rest or in the evening.
*Nerve conduction studies*
- These studies evaluate peripheral nerve function and can detect neuropathy or nerve damage.
- While secondary RLS can occasionally be associated with peripheral neuropathy, the classic presentation described here suggests **primary RLS** or iron deficiency-related RLS, neither of which would show abnormal nerve conduction studies [1].
- Nerve conduction studies would only be considered if there were additional neurological findings suggesting neuropathy.
*Liver function tests*
- **Chronic liver disease** can occasionally be associated with RLS, but this is uncommon and there are no clinical indicators of liver dysfunction in this patient (no jaundice, no ascites, no hepatomegaly, unremarkable physical exam).
- LFTs are not part of the routine workup for RLS.
*Lumbar puncture*
- A **lumbar puncture** analyzes cerebrospinal fluid and is used to diagnose CNS infections, inflammatory conditions, or demyelinating diseases.
- RLS is a movement disorder related to dopaminergic dysfunction and iron metabolism, not a CNS inflammatory or infectious process. Lumbar puncture has no role in RLS diagnosis and would not show abnormalities.
Question 987: A 70-year-old male with a 10-year history of COPD visits his pulmonologist for a checkup. Physical examination reveals cyanosis, digital clubbing, and bilateral lung wheezes are heard upon auscultation. The patient has a cough productive of thick yellow sputum. Which of the following findings is most likely present in this patient?
A. Increased pH of the arterial blood
B. Decreased arterial carbon dioxide content
C. Increased pulmonary arterial resistance (Correct Answer)
D. Increased right ventricle compliance
E. Increased cerebral vascular resistance
Explanation: ***Increased pulmonary arterial resistance***
- Chronic **hypoxia** due to advanced COPD (cyanosis, digital clubbing) leads to widespread **pulmonary vasoconstriction**.
- This persistent vasoconstriction increases **pulmonary arterial resistance**, eventually causing **pulmonary hypertension** and **cor pulmonale**.
*Increased pH of the arterial blood*
- Patients with severe COPD and chronic respiratory insufficiency typically develop **respiratory acidosis** due to CO2 retention, causing a decreased or normal-low pH, not an increased pH.
- An increased pH (alkalosis) would suggest hyperventilation or metabolic conditions not indicated by the symptoms of advanced COPD.
*Decreased arterial carbon dioxide content*
- COPD, especially with features like cyanosis and productive cough, often leads to **impaired gas exchange** and **CO2 retention**, resulting in an **increased arterial carbon dioxide content (hypercapnia)**, not a decrease.
- A decreased CO2 content would typically be seen in hyperventilation.
*Increased right ventricle compliance*
- Chronic pulmonary hypertension, a common complication of severe COPD, puts increased pressure on the right ventricle, leading to **hypertrophy** and eventually **dilation** and **decreased compliance** (stiffening), not increased compliance.
- Increased compliance would imply a more easily distensible ventricle, which is not characteristic of cor pulmonale.
*Increased cerebral vascular resistance*
- **Hypercapnia** (increased arterial CO2), common in severe COPD, causes **cerebral vasodilation** to increase blood flow to the brain, leading to **decreased cerebral vascular resistance**, not increased.
- Increased cerebral vascular resistance is typically seen in conditions like severe vasoconstriction or edema.
Question 988: A 57-year-old woman is admitted to the intensive care unit for management of shock. Her pulse is feeble and blood pressure is 86/45 mm Hg. The patient undergoes pulmonary artery catheterization which shows an elevated pulmonary capillary wedge pressure and increased systemic vascular resistance. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
A. Bronchospasm due to excessive histamine release
B. Mottled skin due to release of endotoxins
C. Bradycardia due to neurologic dysfunction
D. Cold skin due to loss of intravascular fluid volume
E. Confusion due to decreased stroke volume (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Confusion due to decreased stroke volume***
- The presented symptoms (low BP, elevated PCWP, increased SVR) indicate **cardiogenic shock**, where the heart's pumping ability is impaired, leading to reduced cardiac output and **decreased stroke volume**.
- **Decreased stroke volume** directly results in reduced perfusion to vital organs, including the brain, which manifests as **confusion** due to cerebral hypoperfusion.
*Bronchospasm due to excessive histamine release*
- **Bronchospasm** is not directly indicated by the hemodynamic profile of cardiogenic shock; it is more characteristic of **anaphylactic shock**.
- While some inflammatory mediators can be released in shock, widespread **histamine release** leading to bronchospasm is not a primary feature of cardiogenic shock.
*Mottled skin due to release of endotoxins*
- **Mottled skin** can occur in various shock states due to poor peripheral perfusion but is often more prominent in **septic shock** where **endotoxins** play a significant role.
- The hemodynamic profile (elevated PCWP, increased SVR) is inconsistent with typical **septic shock**, which usually presents with low SVR and normal or low PCWP.
*Bradycardia due to neurologic dysfunction*
- **Bradycardia** is generally not a primary compensatory mechanism in shock; the body usually attempts to increase heart rate to maintain cardiac output.
- While severe neurologic dysfunction can cause bradycardia, in shock, **tachycardia** is a more common compensatory response unless there are specific pre-existing conditions or severe terminal stages.
*Cold skin due to loss of intravascular fluid volume*
- **Cold skin** is indeed common in cardiogenic shock due to increased SVR and vasoconstriction, however, the primary problem is a failing heart pump, not **loss of intravascular fluid volume**.
- **Loss of intravascular fluid volume** would indicate hypovolemic shock, which is characterized by a low PCWP (due to decreased preload) unlike the elevated PCWP seen in this patient.
Question 989: A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe respiratory distress. He was diagnosed with metastatic pancreatic cancer 6 months ago and underwent 2 rounds of chemotherapy. He says that he has had a cough and flu-like symptoms for the past week. During the interview, he is having progressive difficulty answering questions and suddenly becomes obtunded with decreased motor reflexes. His temperature is 38.8°C (102.0°F), blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, pulse is 94/min, and respirations are 22/min. Pulse oximetry is 82% on room air. The patient’s medical record contains an advanced directive stating that he would like all interventions except for cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Administer intravenous antibiotics and draw blood for testing.
B. Intubate and administer intravenous antibiotics. (Correct Answer)
C. Intubate only.
D. Observe and monitor vital signs for improvement.
E. Administer intravenous fluids.
Explanation: ***Intubate and administer intravenous antibiotics.***
- The patient presents with **severe respiratory distress**, **hypoxia (82% SpO2)**, **fever**, **hypotension**, and **altered mental status**, indicating **septic shock** with **respiratory failure**. **Intubation** is necessary to secure the airway and provide ventilatory support given his rapidly deteriorating respiratory status and obtundation.
- Given the signs of severe infection (fever, flu-like symptoms, sepsis), **empiric intravenous antibiotics** are crucial to treat the suspected underlying infection, likely pneumonia given the respiratory symptoms. The advanced directive specifically excludes CPR but allows "all interventions," which would include intubation and antibiotics.
*Administer intravenous antibiotics and draw blood for testing.*
- While immediate **intravenous antibiotics** and **blood tests** are appropriate for sepsis, this option does not address the patient's **acute respiratory failure** and **obtundation**, which require immediate airway management.
- Delaying intubation could lead to further respiratory compromise, cardiorespiratory arrest, or irreversible organ damage.
*Intubate only.*
- This option correctly identifies the need for **intubation** due to acute respiratory failure and altered mental status.
- However, it fails to address the underlying severe infection and septic shock, which requires immediate **antibiotic administration** to improve outcomes.
*Observe and monitor vital signs for improvement.*
- This patient is in **severe respiratory distress** and **septic shock** with rapidly deteriorating vital signs and altered mental status. **Observation** alone would be inappropriate and could lead to rapid clinical decline and death.
- Immediate aggressive intervention is required to stabilize the patient.
*Administer intravenous fluids.*
- **Intravenous fluids** are necessary to manage **septic shock** and hypotension, but they are not the most immediate or comprehensive next step given the patient's **acute respiratory failure** and need for airway management.
- This option solely addresses circulation and neglects the critical respiratory and infectious components.
Question 990: A 74-year-old man is brought from a nursing home to the emergency room for progressive confusion. The patient has a history of stroke 3 years ago, which rendered him wheelchair-bound. He was recently started on clozapine for schizoaffective disorder. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 38.7°C (101.66°F), a blood pressure of 100/72 mm Hg, and a pulse of 105/minute. On physical examination, he is disoriented to place and time. Initial lab work-up results are shown:
Serum glucose: 945 mg/dL
Serum sodium: 120 mEq/L
Serum urea: 58 mg/dL
Serum creatinine: 2.2 mg/dL
Serum osmolality: 338 mOsm/kg
Serum beta-hydroxybutyrate: negative
Urinalysis reveals: numerous white blood cells and trace ketones
Which of the following manifestations is more likely to be present in this patient?
A. Nausea or vomiting
B. Abdominal pain
C. Rapid deep breathing
D. Fruity odor of the breath
E. Seizures (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Seizures***
- The patient exhibits features of **Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)**, including severe hyperglycemia (>600 mg/dL), elevated serum osmolality (>320 mOsm/kg), and significant dehydration, all of which increase the risk of neurological complications like **seizures**.
- **Hyponatremia** (120 mEq/L) also contributes to cerebral edema and neurological dysfunction, further increasing the risk of seizures in HHS.
*Nausea or vomiting*
- While non-specific, **nausea and vomiting** are **less common** and less prominent in HHS compared to Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA).
- The absence of significant ketonemia (negative serum beta-hydroxybutyrate) makes DKA less likely, where these gastrointestinal symptoms are more typical.
*Abdominal pain*
- **Abdominal pain** is a more characteristic symptom of **Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)**, often associated with severe acidosis.
- In HHS, abdominal pain is generally **infrequent** unless an underlying precipitating event, such as an acute abdomen or pancreatitis, is present.
*Rapid deep breathing*
- **Rapid deep breathing (Kussmaul respirations)** is a compensatory mechanism for **metabolic acidosis**, typically seen in DKA due to severe ketoacid production.
- In HHS, there is usually **no significant metabolic acidosis** (due to minimal ketonemia), so Kussmaul respirations are not expected.
*Fruity odor of the breath*
- A **fruity odor of the breath** is indicative of **ketone body production**, specifically acetone, which is a hallmark of DKA.
- The patient's **negative serum beta-hydroxybutyrate** and trace ketones in the urine (likely due to starvation or catabolism from illness) rule out significant ketosis, making this manifestation unlikely.