A 65-year-old man comes to the physician because of fatigue and nausea for 1 week. Over the past six months, he has had to get up twice every night to urinate. Occasionally, he has had discomfort during urination. He has arterial hypertension. His father died of renal cell carcinoma. Current medications include ramipril. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 88/min, and blood pressure is 124/78 mm Hg. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Cardiac and pulmonary examinations show no abnormalities. Rectal examination shows a symmetrically enlarged and smooth prostate. Serum studies show:
Hemoglobin 14.9 g/dL
Leukocyte count 7500/mm3
Platelet count 215,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 136 mEq/L
Cl- 101 mEq/L
K+ 4.9 mEq/L
HCO3- 23 mEq/L
Glucose 95 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 25 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.9 mg/dL
PSA 2.1 ng/mL (normal <4 ng/mL)
Urine
Blood negative
Protein 1+
Glucose negative
RBC casts negative
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q932
A 33-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of a 9-month history of weight loss, fatigue, and a general sense of malaise. She additionally complains of an unusual sensation in her chest upon rapidly rising from a supine to a standing position. Current vitals include a temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse of 72/min, blood pressure of 118/63 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 15/min. Her BMI is 21 kg/m2. Auscultation demonstrates an early-mid diastole low-pitched sound at the apex of the heart. A chest X-ray reveals a poorly demarcated abnormality in the heart and requires CT imaging for further analysis. What would most likely be seen on CT imaging?
Q933
A 32-year-old HIV positive female known to be non-adherent to her treatment regimen, presents to the hospital with the complaint of new-onset headaches. Her vital signs are only significant for a low-grade fever. Neurological examination reveals right-sided upper motor neuron signs, as well as inattention and difficulty with concentration. The patient currently does not have a primary medical provider. A CT of the patients head is shown in the image below. What is the next best step in management for this patient?
Q934
A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with pain and frequent urination. She states she has felt uncomfortable with frequent small-volume urinary voids for the past 3 days, which have progressively worsened. The patient has no past medical history. She currently smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day and engages in unprotected sex with 2 male partners. Her temperature is 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure is 127/68 mmHg, pulse is 97/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal exams are within normal limits. There is tenderness upon palpation of the left costovertebral angle and the left flank. Urine is collected and a pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q935
A 47-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents for a primary care visit. His diabetes is well controlled on metformin, with fasting glucose concentrations between 110–150 mg/dl. His blood pressure on multiple office visits are between 115-130/75-85 mmHg. Today his temperature is 98°F (36.7 °C), blood pressure is 125/80 mmHg, pulse is 86/min, and respirations are 15/min. Labs are obtained with the following results:
Hemoglobin A1c: 6.7%
Glucose: 120 mg/dl
Cholesterol (plasma): 190 mg/dL
Urine albumin: 60mg/24hr
Which of the following treatments is effective in slowing the progression of the most likely cause of this patient's abnormal albumin result?
Q936
A 45-year-old chronic smoker presents to the physician with a complaint of worsening left shoulder pain for several months which has become acutely worse the past 2 weeks and now radiates down his left arm. Physical examination reveals a palpable 2 x 1.5 cm supraclavicular lymph node along with decreased grip strength in his left hand. Examination of the face reveals partial ptosis of the left eyelid and miosis of the left eye. Laboratory testing shows the following values:
Sodium (Na+) 135 mEq/L
Potassium (K+) 3.6 mEq/L
Chloride (Cl-) 100 mEq/L
BUN 12 mg/dL
Creatinine (Cr) 0.6 mg/dL
Magnesium (Mg2+) 1.5 mg/dL
Phosphate 3 mg/dL
Calcium (Ca2+) 8.5 mg/dL
An X-ray of the chest reveals a soft tissue mass at the apex of the left lung with possible involvement of the first rib. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q937
A 33-year-old Honduran woman presents to your clinic with shortness of breath. She reports that her symptoms have progressed over the past several months and are now impacting her quality of life because she cannot complete her usual exercise routine. She recalls "normal" childhood illnesses, including sore throats and fevers, but never required hospitalization. Vital signs are temperature 37 degrees Celsius, blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg, heart rate 109/min, respiratory rate 22/min, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals a holosystolic, high-pitched, blowing murmur at the cardiac apex. One would expect that this murmur would also:
Q938
A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of worsening shortness of breath and a productive cough for 3 days. He sustained trauma to the right hemithorax during a fight 3 weeks ago. He had significant pain and mild shortness of breath following the incident but did not seek medical care. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. He is a construction worker. His temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F), pulse is 95/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 120/75 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 96%. Pulmonary examination shows decreased breath sounds over the right lower lung fields. CT scan of the chest shows fractures of the right 7th and 8th ribs, right pleural splitting and thickening, and a dense fluid collection in the pleural space. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q939
A 23-year-old man comes to the emergency department for 2 days of severe headaches. The pain is most intense on his left forehead and eye. He had similar symptoms last summer. He has been taking indomethacin every 6 hours for the last 24 hours but has not had any relief. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the past 5 years. He works as an accountant and describes his work as very stressful. Physical examination shows drooping of the left eyelid, tearing of the left eye, and rhinorrhea. The left pupil is 2 mm and the right pupil is 4 mm. There is localized tenderness along the right supraspinatus muscle. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q940
A 22-year-old patient presents to the rural medicine clinic for a physical examination. She has a past medical history of major depressive disorder. The patient has a history of smoking 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 5 years. She states that she is not currently sexually active, but had sexual intercourse in the past. Her paternal grandfather died of a heart attack at the age of 60. She takes citalopram by mouth once every morning. The blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, the heart rate is 76/min, and the respiratory rate is 12/min. Her physical examination reveals a well-nourished, alert, and oriented female. While auscultating the heart, a 2/6 holosystolic murmur at the left upper sternal border is present. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for this patient?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 931: A 65-year-old man comes to the physician because of fatigue and nausea for 1 week. Over the past six months, he has had to get up twice every night to urinate. Occasionally, he has had discomfort during urination. He has arterial hypertension. His father died of renal cell carcinoma. Current medications include ramipril. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 88/min, and blood pressure is 124/78 mm Hg. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Cardiac and pulmonary examinations show no abnormalities. Rectal examination shows a symmetrically enlarged and smooth prostate. Serum studies show:
Hemoglobin 14.9 g/dL
Leukocyte count 7500/mm3
Platelet count 215,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 136 mEq/L
Cl- 101 mEq/L
K+ 4.9 mEq/L
HCO3- 23 mEq/L
Glucose 95 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 25 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.9 mg/dL
PSA 2.1 ng/mL (normal <4 ng/mL)
Urine
Blood negative
Protein 1+
Glucose negative
RBC casts negative
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Ureteral stenting
B. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
C. Renal ultrasonography (Correct Answer)
D. Four-glass test
E. Transrectal ultrasonography
Explanation: ***Renal ultrasonography***
- This patient presents with **fatigue**, **nausea**, and **nocturia**, along with elevated **creatinine** (1.9 mg/dL) and symptoms of lower urinary tract dysfunction (discomfort during urination, symmetrically enlarged prostate). These symptoms, particularly the elevated creatinine, suggest a possible **obstructive uropathy**.
- Renal ultrasonography is the most appropriate initial imaging study to evaluate for **hydronephrosis**, which would confirm an obstructive process and help identify its level. This non-invasive test would also assess kidney size and cortical thickness.
*Ureteral stenting*
- Ureteral stenting is an **interventional procedure** to relieve ureteral obstruction. It is not a diagnostic step.
- This procedure would be considered *after* an obstruction is confirmed and its cause is identified, not as the initial diagnostic step.
*CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis*
- A CT scan can provide more detailed anatomical information than an ultrasound but is generally reserved for situations where ultrasound is inconclusive or more detailed characterization of a mass or complex obstruction is required.
- It involves **radiation exposure** and is typically not the first-line imaging modality for suspected urinary outflow obstruction due to its invasive nature.
*Four-glass test*
- The four-glass test is used to localize the site of **genitourinary infection** (urethritis, prostatitis, or cystitis) by analyzing urine and prostatic secretions.
- While the patient has some urinary discomfort, his primary concern is **fatigue**, **nausea**, and **elevated creatinine**, which point towards renal dysfunction rather than a localized infection as the most immediate concern.
*Transrectal ultrasonography*
- **Transrectal ultrasonography (TRUS)** is primarily used to evaluate the prostate gland for conditions like prostate cancer or chronic prostatitis, and often guided biopsies.
- While the patient has an enlarged prostate, his **PSA is normal** (2.1 ng/mL). The elevated creatinine and systemic symptoms indicate a need to assess the entire urinary tract for obstruction more broadly than just the prostate itself.
Question 932: A 33-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of a 9-month history of weight loss, fatigue, and a general sense of malaise. She additionally complains of an unusual sensation in her chest upon rapidly rising from a supine to a standing position. Current vitals include a temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse of 72/min, blood pressure of 118/63 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 15/min. Her BMI is 21 kg/m2. Auscultation demonstrates an early-mid diastole low-pitched sound at the apex of the heart. A chest X-ray reveals a poorly demarcated abnormality in the heart and requires CT imaging for further analysis. What would most likely be seen on CT imaging?
A. Connection between the pulmonary artery and aorta
B. Fistula between the right and left atria
C. Normal cardiac imaging
D. Tumor within the right atrium
E. Tumor within the left atrium (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Tumor within the left atrium***
- The patient's symptoms of **weight loss, fatigue, malaise**, and **orthostatic symptoms** (unusual chest sensation upon rising) are classic for a **cardiac myxoma**, particularly one arising in the left atrium.
- The auscultation finding of an **early-mid diastole low-pitched sound at the apex** (often called a "tumor plop") is highly suggestive of a left atrial myxoma prolapsing into the mitral valve orifice during diastole.
*Tumor within the right atrium*
- While cardiac myxomas can occur in the right atrium, left atrial myxomas are significantly more common (approximately 75% of cases).
- A right atrial tumor would typically cause symptoms related to **right-sided heart failure** (e.g., peripheral edema, jugular venous distension) and would likely present with a different auscultatory finding, such as a right-sided "tumor plop" or tricuspid flow murmur.
*Connection between the pulmonary artery and aorta*
- This describes a **patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)**, a congenital heart defect.
- A PDA typically presents with a **continuous "machinery-like" murmur** and symptoms like exertional dyspnea or failure to thrive, not the systemic symptoms or "tumor plop" described.
*Fistula between the right and left atria*
- This describes an **atrial septal defect (ASD)**.
- ASDs typically cause a **fixed split S2** and can lead to right heart enlargement and pulmonary hypertension over time, but they do not cause a "tumor plop" or the constellation of systemic symptoms seen here.
*Normal cardiac imaging*
- Given the patient's clear symptoms, the suggestive auscultation finding, and an abnormal chest X-ray, it is highly unlikely that cardiac imaging would be normal.
- The clinical picture strongly points to a structural cardiac abnormality, making normal imaging a very improbable finding.
Question 933: A 32-year-old HIV positive female known to be non-adherent to her treatment regimen, presents to the hospital with the complaint of new-onset headaches. Her vital signs are only significant for a low-grade fever. Neurological examination reveals right-sided upper motor neuron signs, as well as inattention and difficulty with concentration. The patient currently does not have a primary medical provider. A CT of the patients head is shown in the image below. What is the next best step in management for this patient?
A. Begin treatment with pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine (Correct Answer)
B. Begin treatment with acyclovir
C. Perform an analysis for 14-3-3 protein levels
D. Begin treatment with albendazole and corticosteroids
E. Perform a biopsy of the lesion
Explanation: ***Begin treatment with pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine***
- Given the patient's **HIV-positive status**, non-adherence to treatment, **new-onset headaches**, neurological deficits (upper motor neuron signs, inattention), and the typical CT findings (multiple ring-enhancing lesions in the basal ganglia or corticomedullary junction), **cerebral toxoplasmosis** is the most likely diagnosis.
- **Empiric treatment** with **pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine** is the recommended first step in this setting, as diagnosing and treating toxoplasmosis quickly can be life-saving.
*Begin treatment with acyclovir*
- **Acyclovir** is used to treat **herpes simplex encephalitis (HSE)**. While HSE can cause focal neurological deficits, it typically presents with more acute and severe symptoms, including fever, seizures, and an altered mental status, and imaging might show temporal lobe involvement.
- The clinical picture provided, especially with an HIV-positive patient, makes **toxoplasmosis a more likely initial diagnosis** than HSE, which would be considered if the patient did not respond to toxoplasmosis treatment.
*Perform an analysis for 14-3-3 protein levels*
- Measuring **14-3-3 protein levels** in the CSF is primarily used to diagnose **Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)**, a rare, rapidly progressive, and fatal neurodegenerative disorder.
- CJD presents with rapidly progressive dementia, myoclonus, and other neurological signs, which do not align well with the patient's presentation of headaches and focal neurological signs.
*Begin treatment with albendazole and corticosteroids*
- **Albendazole** is an anti-parasitic drug primarily used for **neurocysticercosis**, a parasitic infection of the brain caused by the larvae of *Taenia solium*. While it can cause headaches and focal neurological deficits, it's less common in HIV-positive patients than toxoplasmosis in many regions.
- **Corticosteroids** may be used to reduce inflammation and edema, but they are not a primary treatment for the underlying infection and are often given adjunctive to specific anti-parasitic treatment.
*Perform a biopsy of the lesion*
- A **brain biopsy** is considered if the patient does not respond to empiric treatment for toxoplasmosis within 10-14 days, or if there is atypical imaging findings or rapidly progressing neurological deterioration.
- Given the high suspicion for toxoplasmosis in an HIV-positive non-adherent patient, **starting empiric treatment is prioritized** over an immediate invasive procedure like a biopsy, which carries risks.
Question 934: A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with pain and frequent urination. She states she has felt uncomfortable with frequent small-volume urinary voids for the past 3 days, which have progressively worsened. The patient has no past medical history. She currently smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day and engages in unprotected sex with 2 male partners. Her temperature is 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure is 127/68 mmHg, pulse is 97/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal exams are within normal limits. There is tenderness upon palpation of the left costovertebral angle and the left flank. Urine is collected and a pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Ceftriaxone and hospital admission
B. Analgesics, encourage oral fluid intake, and discharge
C. Levofloxacin and outpatient follow-up (Correct Answer)
D. Abscess drainage and IV antibiotics
E. Nitrofurantoin
Explanation: ***Levofloxacin and outpatient follow-up***
- The patient presents with symptoms and signs consistent with **pyelonephritis**, including fever (103°F/39.4°C), flank pain (tenderness upon palpation of the left costovertebral angle and left flank), and urinary symptoms (frequent small-volume urinary voids).
- Given her otherwise stable vitals, lack of severe comorbidities, and negative pregnancy test, **outpatient treatment with oral antibiotics** such as levofloxacin (a fluoroquinolone) is appropriate for uncomplicated pyelonephritis.
*Ceftriaxone and hospital admission*
- Uncomplicated pyelonephritis typically does not require hospital admission or intravenous antibiotics unless the patient is severely ill, unable to tolerate oral intake, or has complicating factors (e.g., pregnancy, urosepsis, underlying kidney disease).
- While ceftriaxone is an effective antibiotic for pyelonephritis, it is typically used for initial parenteral treatment in hospitalized patients or those needing a single dose prior to oral agents.
*Analgesics, encourage oral fluid intake, and discharge*
- This approach is appropriate for mild, uncomplicated cystitis, not pyelonephritis, which is an upper urinary tract infection and carries a higher risk of systemic complications if not adequately treated with antibiotics.
- Ignoring the infection and only managing symptoms would lead to worsening of the condition and potential complications.
*Abscess drainage and IV antibiotics*
- **Renal abscesses** are a potential complication of pyelonephritis but are not indicated by the initial presentation. This diagnosis typically requires imaging studies (e.g., CT scan) to confirm.
- Abscess drainage would only be considered if an abscess were identified and contributing to treatment failure with antibiotics.
*Nitrofurantoin*
- Nitrofurantoin is primarily used for **uncomplicated cystitis** (bladder infection) as it achieves therapeutic concentrations in the bladder but not in the kidney tissue.
- It is ineffective for pyelonephritis due to its poor penetration into renal parenchyma.
Question 935: A 47-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents for a primary care visit. His diabetes is well controlled on metformin, with fasting glucose concentrations between 110–150 mg/dl. His blood pressure on multiple office visits are between 115-130/75-85 mmHg. Today his temperature is 98°F (36.7 °C), blood pressure is 125/80 mmHg, pulse is 86/min, and respirations are 15/min. Labs are obtained with the following results:
Hemoglobin A1c: 6.7%
Glucose: 120 mg/dl
Cholesterol (plasma): 190 mg/dL
Urine albumin: 60mg/24hr
Which of the following treatments is effective in slowing the progression of the most likely cause of this patient's abnormal albumin result?
A. No effective treatments
B. Aspirin
C. Metformin
D. Enalapril (Correct Answer)
E. Simvastatin
Explanation: ***Enalapril***
- The patient's urine albumin of **60 mg/24hr** indicates **microalbuminuria**, a sign of early **diabetic nephropathy**. Enalapril, an **ACE inhibitor**, is effective in slowing its progression by reducing intraglomerular pressure and proteinuria.
- **ACE inhibitors** are first-line agents in diabetic patients with microalbuminuria due to their **renoprotective effects**, independent of blood pressure control.
*No effective treatments*
- This is incorrect as **ACE inhibitors** (like enalapril) and **ARBs** are well-established treatments for slowing the progression of diabetic nephropathy once microalbuminuria is present.
- While complete reversal may not always occur, these medications significantly mitigate kidney damage and reduce the risk of progressing to **macroalbuminuria** and **end-stage renal disease**.
*Aspirin*
- **Aspirin** is used for primary or secondary prevention of **cardiovascular events**, but it does not directly treat or slow the progression of **diabetic nephropathy** or microalbuminuria.
- Its role in diabetes is primarily related to its **antiplatelet effects** in patients at high cardiovascular risk.
*Metformin*
- **Metformin** is an **oral hypoglycemic** agent used to control **blood glucose levels** in type 2 diabetes. While good glycemic control is crucial for preventing diabetic complications, metformin itself does not directly treat or slow the progression of existing **diabetic nephropathy**.
- Its primary action is to reduce **hepatic glucose production** and improve **insulin sensitivity**, thereby lowering blood sugar.
*Simvastatin*
- **Simvastatin** is a **lipid-lowering agent** (statin) used to manage **dyslipidemia** and reduce cardiovascular risk. It does not directly impact the progression of **diabetic nephropathy** or microalbuminuria.
- While managing cholesterol is important for overall cardiovascular health in diabetic patients, it is not the primary treatment for **albuminuria**.
Question 936: A 45-year-old chronic smoker presents to the physician with a complaint of worsening left shoulder pain for several months which has become acutely worse the past 2 weeks and now radiates down his left arm. Physical examination reveals a palpable 2 x 1.5 cm supraclavicular lymph node along with decreased grip strength in his left hand. Examination of the face reveals partial ptosis of the left eyelid and miosis of the left eye. Laboratory testing shows the following values:
Sodium (Na+) 135 mEq/L
Potassium (K+) 3.6 mEq/L
Chloride (Cl-) 100 mEq/L
BUN 12 mg/dL
Creatinine (Cr) 0.6 mg/dL
Magnesium (Mg2+) 1.5 mg/dL
Phosphate 3 mg/dL
Calcium (Ca2+) 8.5 mg/dL
An X-ray of the chest reveals a soft tissue mass at the apex of the left lung with possible involvement of the first rib. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Mesothelioma
B. Pancoast tumor (Correct Answer)
C. Pulmonary hamartoma
D. Subclavian aneurysm
E. Osteophyte
Explanation: **Pancoast tumor**
- The patient presents with **shoulder pain**, **Horner's syndrome** (ptosis, miosis), **lymph node involvement**, **decreased grip strength** (due to brachial plexus involvement), and a **mass at the lung apex on X-ray**. These are classic signs of a Pancoast tumor, a type of **non-small cell lung cancer** often seen in **chronic smokers**.
- The location of the tumor at the **lung apex** allows it to invade surrounding structures such as the **brachial plexus** (causing arm pain and weakness), adjacent ribs, vertebrae, and the **sympathetic chain** (leading to Horner's syndrome).
*Mesothelioma*
- **Mesothelioma** is a rare and aggressive cancer primarily associated with **asbestos exposure**, not typically presenting as an apical lung mass.
- It usually affects the **pleura** and can cause shortness of breath and chest pain, but not specifically the constellation of symptoms observed here.
*Pulmonary hamartoma*
- A **pulmonary hamartoma** is a benign lung tumor that is typically **asymptomatic** and discovered incidentally.
- It does not typically cause symptoms such as **Horner's syndrome**, **shoulder pain**, or **lymphadenopathy** as described in the patient's presentation.
*Subclavian aneurysm*
- A **subclavian aneurysm** could cause arm pain due to nerve compression or embolization, but it would not explain the **lung mass**, **Horner's syndrome**, or **supraclavicular lymph node** found in this patient.
- It is a vascular abnormality, not a primary lung lesion.
*Osteophyte*
- An **osteophyte**, or bone spur, is a bony outgrowth typically associated with **osteoarthritis** and can cause pain due to nerve compression or joint impingement.
- While it can cause arm pain, it does not explain the **lung mass**, **Horner's syndrome**, or **lymph node involvement** seen in this case.
Question 937: A 33-year-old Honduran woman presents to your clinic with shortness of breath. She reports that her symptoms have progressed over the past several months and are now impacting her quality of life because she cannot complete her usual exercise routine. She recalls "normal" childhood illnesses, including sore throats and fevers, but never required hospitalization. Vital signs are temperature 37 degrees Celsius, blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg, heart rate 109/min, respiratory rate 22/min, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals a holosystolic, high-pitched, blowing murmur at the cardiac apex. One would expect that this murmur would also:
A. Also have a mid-systolic click loudest at S2
B. Increase with inspiration
C. Radiate to the neck
D. Have a characteristic machine-like sound
E. Increase with squatting or handgrip (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Increase with squatting or handgrip***
- The patient's symptoms (shortness of breath, history of repeated sore throats, and a **holosystolic, high-pitched, blowing murmur at the cardiac apex**) are highly suggestive of **mitral regurgitation**, likely due to **rheumatic heart disease**.
- **Dynamic maneuvers** like **squatting** (increases preload and afterload) and **handgrip** (increases afterload) will **increase the intensity** of the murmur in mitral regurgitation as they increase left ventricular volume and pressure.
*Also have a mid-systolic click loudest at S2*
- A **mid-systolic click** followed by a late systolic murmur is characteristic of **mitral valve prolapse**, not typically severe mitral regurgitation.
- The description of a **holosystolic murmur** at the apex does not fit the timing and quality of a mitral valve prolapse murmur.
*Increase with inspiration*
- Murmurs that typically **increase with inspiration** are those originating from the **right side of the heart**, such as tricuspid regurgitation.
- A mitral regurgitation murmur, originating from the left side, is generally **unaffected or slightly decreased** by inspiration.
*Radiate to the neck*
- Murmurs that classically **radiate to the neck** are those of **aortic stenosis**, due to the turbulent flow ejecting into the carotid arteries.
- Mitral regurgitation typically **radiates to the axilla** or left sternal border, not the neck.
*Have a characteristic machine-like sound*
- A **continuous, machinery-like murmur** is the classic description of a **patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)**.
- This murmur is typically heard in congenital heart disease and is distinct from the holosystolic murmur of mitral regurgitation.
Question 938: A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of worsening shortness of breath and a productive cough for 3 days. He sustained trauma to the right hemithorax during a fight 3 weeks ago. He had significant pain and mild shortness of breath following the incident but did not seek medical care. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. He is a construction worker. His temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F), pulse is 95/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 120/75 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 96%. Pulmonary examination shows decreased breath sounds over the right lower lung fields. CT scan of the chest shows fractures of the right 7th and 8th ribs, right pleural splitting and thickening, and a dense fluid collection in the pleural space. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chylothorax
B. Mesothelioma
C. Lung abscess
D. Viral pleurisy
E. Pleural empyema (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pleural empyema***
- The patient's history of **chest trauma** with **rib fractures** followed by a febrile illness, **productive cough**, and a **dense fluid collection with pleural thickening and splitting** on CT is highly suggestive of a pleural empyema.
- Chest trauma can lead to the formation of a **hemothorax**, which, if not drained, can become infected and progress to an empyema.
*Chylothorax*
- Characterized by the accumulation of **lymph fluid** in the pleural space, typically caused by disruption of the **thoracic duct**.
- While trauma can cause chylothorax, the presence of **fever**, **productive cough**, and a "dense" fluid collection (implying pus) makes empyema more likely.
*Mesothelioma*
- A rare and aggressive cancer associated with **asbestos exposure**, typically occurring decades after exposure.
- Presents with chronic symptoms like chest pain, dyspnea, and weight loss, and usually involves a **nodular pleural thickening** rather than a dense fluid collection.
*Lung abscess*
- A localized area of **suppurative necrosis** within the lung parenchyma, often with a cavity containing pus.
- While it can cause fever and productive cough, the CT findings describe a **pleural effusion** with thickening and splitting, indicating involvement of the pleural space, not exclusively the lung parenchyma.
*Viral pleurisy*
- Inflammation of the pleura due to a viral infection, causing **pleuritic chest pain** and sometimes a small, self-resolving effusion.
- It would not typically present with a **dense fluid collection**, significant pleural thickening, or a purulent cough as described.
Question 939: A 23-year-old man comes to the emergency department for 2 days of severe headaches. The pain is most intense on his left forehead and eye. He had similar symptoms last summer. He has been taking indomethacin every 6 hours for the last 24 hours but has not had any relief. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the past 5 years. He works as an accountant and describes his work as very stressful. Physical examination shows drooping of the left eyelid, tearing of the left eye, and rhinorrhea. The left pupil is 2 mm and the right pupil is 4 mm. There is localized tenderness along the right supraspinatus muscle. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Giant cell arteritis
B. Medication overuse headache
C. Tension headache
D. Cluster headache (Correct Answer)
E. Trigeminal neuralgia
Explanation: ***Cluster headache***
- This patient presents with **recurrent, unilateral, severe headaches** localized to the forehead and eye, accompanied by **autonomic symptoms** (miosis of the left pupil, left eyelid drooping, tearing, rhinorrhea), which are classic features of cluster headache.
- The episodic nature (similar symptoms last summer), lack of response to NSAIDs like indomethacin, and presentation in a young male (more common in men) further support this diagnosis.
*Giant cell arteritis*
- This typically affects **older individuals (usually >50 years old)** and is associated with systemic symptoms like jaw claudication, visual disturbances, and tenderness over the temporal artery.
- The patient's age (23 years old) and absence of these specific symptoms make giant cell arteritis unlikely.
*Medication overuse headache*
- This condition arises from the **frequent and excessive use of acute headache medications** and presents as a chronic daily headache, often diffuse and lacking specific autonomic features.
- While the patient has been taking indomethacin, his symptoms are episodic and highly characteristic of a primary headache disorder, not solely due to medication overuse.
*Tension headache*
- Tension headaches are typically described as a **bilateral, pressing, or tightening pain** of mild to moderate intensity, often without associated autonomic symptoms.
- The unilateral, severe, piercing pain and prominent autonomic features in this case are inconsistent with a tension headache.
*Trigeminal neuralgia*
- This condition causes **brief, intense, shock-like pain episodes** in the distribution of one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve, often triggered by touch, chewing, or talking.
- The patient's continuous severe headache with autonomic features is distinct from the lancinating pain of trigeminal neuralgia.
Question 940: A 22-year-old patient presents to the rural medicine clinic for a physical examination. She has a past medical history of major depressive disorder. The patient has a history of smoking 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 5 years. She states that she is not currently sexually active, but had sexual intercourse in the past. Her paternal grandfather died of a heart attack at the age of 60. She takes citalopram by mouth once every morning. The blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, the heart rate is 76/min, and the respiratory rate is 12/min. Her physical examination reveals a well-nourished, alert, and oriented female. While auscultating the heart, a 2/6 holosystolic murmur at the left upper sternal border is present. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for this patient?
A. Reassurance and follow up in 6 months
B. Observation and reassurance
C. Echocardiogram (Correct Answer)
D. Electrocardiogram
E. Referral to cardiology
Explanation: ***Echocardiogram***
- A **holosystolic murmur** at the **left upper sternal border** in a young patient warrants further investigation to rule out potential cardiac abnormalities that could lead to heart failure or pulmonary hypertension later in life.
- An **echocardiogram** is the definitive diagnostic tool to visualize cardiac structures, assess valve function, and identify the cause of the murmur.
*Reassurance and follow up in 6 months*
- Reassurance alone is inappropriate as a systolic murmur, especially one described as 2/6, should be further evaluated to determine its etiology.
- Delaying investigation could miss a significant cardiac condition that could worsen over time.
*Observation and reassurance*
- While some murmurs are benign, a **holosystolic murmur** is often indicative of a structural issue requiring definitive diagnosis rather than just observation.
- This approach is insufficient given the potential for underlying pathology.
*Electrocardiogram*
- An **ECG** can detect electrical abnormalities, arrhythmias, or chamber enlargement but does not provide direct information about valve function or structural heart defects causing a murmur.
- It is often a complementary test but not the primary diagnostic test for a murmur.
*Referral to cardiology*
- While a referral to cardiology may be necessary, especially if the echocardiogram reveals a significant issue, the immediate next step is to obtain diagnostic imaging to inform the cardiologist's assessment.
- An **echocardiogram** is typically performed first or ordered by the primary care physician before a referral, depending on local practice and urgency.