A 51-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 1-day history of severe pain in her left knee. To lose weight, she recently started jogging for 30 minutes a few times per week. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension treated with metformin and chlorothiazide. Her sister has rheumatoid arthritis. She is sexually active with two partners and uses condoms inconsistently. On examination, her temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 88/min, and blood pressure is 138/87 mm Hg. The left knee is swollen and tender to palpation with a significantly impaired range of motion. A 1.5-cm, painless ulcer is seen on the plantar surface of the left foot. Which of the following is most likely to help establish the diagnosis?
Q902
A 43-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of a headache he has had for the last 6 months. The patient reports that nothing helps to relieve the headache and that it is more severe in the morning. Throughout the last 2 months, he has been unable to maintain an erection and states that his sexual desire is low. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg. Examination shows an enlarged nose, forehead, and jaw and widened hands, fingers, and feet. His hands are sweaty. His serum glucose concentration is 260 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
Q903
A 43-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine examination prior to starting a new job as a nurse. Over the past year, the patient has had mild shortness of breath and a cough productive of white sputum, particularly in the morning. She immigrated to the United States from South Africa with her parents 40 years ago. She received all appropriate immunizations during childhood, including the oral polio and BCG vaccine. She has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 30 years and drinks one glass of wine occasionally. Her only medication is a multivitamin. Her temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), pulse is 74/min, and blood pressure is 124/60 mm Hg. Bilateral wheezing is heard throughout both lung fields. A complete blood count and serum concentrations of electrolytes, urea nitrogen, and creatinine are within the reference range. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to evaluate for tuberculosis in this patient?
Q904
A 68-year-old male presents with several years of progressively worsening pain in his buttocks. Pain is characterized as dull, worse with exertion especially when ascending the stairs. He has a history of diabetes mellitus type II, obesity, coronary artery disease with prior myocardial infarction, and a 44 pack-year smoking history. Current medications include aspirin, atorvastatin, metoprolol, lisinopril, insulin, metformin, and varenicline. Upon further questioning, the patient's wife states that her husband has also recently developed impotence. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 90/min, blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
Q905
A 60-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of sharp chest pain and a nonproductive cough. The pain worsens with deep inspiration and improves when he leans forward. Three weeks ago, the patient was diagnosed with an ST-elevation myocardial infarction and underwent stent implantation of the right coronary artery. His temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F) and blood pressure is 132/85 mm Hg. Cardiac auscultation shows a high-pitched scratching sound during expiration. An x-ray of the chest shows enlargement of the cardiac silhouette and a left-sided pleural effusion. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's current condition?
Q906
A 36-year-old software professional consults a physician to discuss his concerns about small-vessel vasculitis as his mother and sister both have autoimmune small-vessel vasculitides. He has read about vasculitides and recently he came across an article which stated that an analgesic that he often uses for relief from a headache can cause small-vessel vasculitis. Due to his positive family history, he is especially concerned about his risk of developing small-vessel vasculitis. Which of the following clinical presentations is most likely to occur in this man?
Q907
A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because his neck was fixed in lateral flexion. For the past week, the patient has been complaining of low-grade fever, head pain, and neck pain. His partner has also noticed him behaving erratically. His family and personal medical history are not relevant. Upon admission, he is found with a body temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F), and physical examination is unremarkable except for neck pain and fixed lateral flexion of the neck. He is confused, but there are no motor or sensory deficits. Deep tendon reflexes are accentuated. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain shows leptomeningeal and gyral enhancement. Which of the following explains this patient’s condition?
Q908
A 40-year-old Indian female is hospitalized with exertional dyspnea and lower extremity edema. The patient immigrated to the United States at age 15 and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. A mid-diastolic murmur is present and heard best at the apex. Which of the following symptoms would be most consistent with the rest of the patient’s presentation?
Q909
A 58-year-old man with an unknown previous medical history is found on the floor at home by his daughter. During the initial assessment, the patient has left-sided arm weakness and incomprehensible speech. The patient is admitted to the hospital where he is diagnosed with an ischemic stroke where his magnetic resonance image (MRI) scan showed diffusion restriction in the right middle cerebral artery (MCA) territory. Further evaluation reveals the patient had been on the floor for about 2 days before he was found by his daughter. At presentation to the hospital, the blood pressure is 161/88 mm Hg and the heart rate is 104/min and regular. His laboratory values at the time of admission are shown:
BUN 40 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.9 mg/dL
Potassium 5.3 mEq/dL
Sodium 155 mEq/dL
Chloride 100 mEq/dL
HCO3 24 mmol/L
Hemoglobin 13.8 g/dL
Hematocrit 40%
Leukocytes 11,000/mL
Platelets 300,000/µL
Serum creatine kinase 40,000 U/L
Which of the following is most indicated in this patient?
Q910
A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset right hand and right leg weakness. The patient was at home cleaning when his symptoms began. He also complains of diffuse and severe pain throughout his entire body which he states he has experienced before. The patient is an immigrant from South America, and his medical history is not known. His temperature is 98.9°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 128/67 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. CT of the head demonstrates no bleeding. Physical exam is notable for 2/5 strength in the patient's right arm and right leg. Which of the following is the best management in this patient?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 901: A 51-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 1-day history of severe pain in her left knee. To lose weight, she recently started jogging for 30 minutes a few times per week. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension treated with metformin and chlorothiazide. Her sister has rheumatoid arthritis. She is sexually active with two partners and uses condoms inconsistently. On examination, her temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 88/min, and blood pressure is 138/87 mm Hg. The left knee is swollen and tender to palpation with a significantly impaired range of motion. A 1.5-cm, painless ulcer is seen on the plantar surface of the left foot. Which of the following is most likely to help establish the diagnosis?
A. Measure HLA-B27
B. Perform MRI of the knee
C. Perform arthrocentesis (Correct Answer)
D. Perform ultrasonography of the knee
E. Measure rheumatoid factor
Explanation: ***Perform arthrocentesis***
- The patient presents with **acute monoarticular arthritis** (**swollen, tender, impaired range of motion** in one knee) with systemic signs of infection (fever). This clinical picture, especially in a patient with **diabetes** (a risk factor for infection) and a **foot ulcer** (potential source of infection), strongly indicates a **septic joint**.
- **Arthrocentesis** (joint aspiration) is the **gold standard** for diagnosing septic arthritis, allowing for analysis of synovial fluid for cell count, differential, glucose, protein, gram stain, and culture to identify the causative organism.
*Measure HLA-B27*
- While **HLA-B27** is associated with seronegative spondyloarthropathies (e.g., ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis), these conditions typically do not present with acute, severe monoarticular arthritis and fever in this manner, nor do they perfectly explain the foot ulcer as a source of infection.
- Measuring HLA-B27 would not directly address the acute infectious process suspected in this patient.
*Perform MRI of the knee*
- An **MRI** can provide detailed imaging of joint structures, including effusions, cartilage damage, and osteomyelitis, but it is **not the primary diagnostic tool for identifying the cause of septic arthritis**.
- While it might show signs consistent with inflammation, it **cannot identify the pathogen or confirm infection** in the same way fluid analysis can.
*Perform ultrasonography of the knee*
- **Ultrasonography** can confirm the presence of joint effusions (fluid in the joint) and guide aspiration, but it **cannot analyze the fluid itself** to determine the etiology of the effusion.
- While useful for guiding arthrocentesis, it is not diagnostic on its own for septic arthritis.
*Measure rheumatoid factor*
- **Rheumatoid factor (RF)** is typically measured to aid in the diagnosis of **rheumatoid arthritis (RA)**, which usually presents as chronic, symmetrical polyarthritis, not acute monoarthritis with fever.
- The sister having rheumatoid arthritis is a family history clue, but the patient's acute presentation is inconsistent with an initial RA flare. An elevated RF would not explain the patient's acute symptoms or the potential source of infection from the foot ulcer.
Question 902: A 43-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of a headache he has had for the last 6 months. The patient reports that nothing helps to relieve the headache and that it is more severe in the morning. Throughout the last 2 months, he has been unable to maintain an erection and states that his sexual desire is low. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg. Examination shows an enlarged nose, forehead, and jaw and widened hands, fingers, and feet. His hands are sweaty. His serum glucose concentration is 260 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
A. Serum IGF-1 measurement (Correct Answer)
B. Basal prolactin measurement
C. MRI of the brain
D. 24-hour urine cortisol measurement
E. Oral glucose tolerance test
Explanation: ***Serum IGF-1 measurement***
- The patient's symptoms (enlarged nose, forehead, jaw, widened hands/feet, sweaty hands) are classic for **acromegaly**, which is caused by excess **growth hormone (GH)**.
- **Insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1)** levels are directly correlated with GH levels and are a reliable screening test for acromegaly, reflecting average GH secretion over time.
*Basal prolactin measurement*
- While a **pituitary adenoma** (which can cause acromegaly) can sometimes co-secrete **prolactin**, the primary clinical features here point to GH excess, not hyperprolactinemia.
- Elevated prolactin typically causes **galactorrhea** and more pronounced hypogonadism, which are not the primary complaints.
*MRI of the brain*
- An **MRI of the brain** is the gold standard for visualizing a **pituitary adenoma** once acromegaly is biochemically confirmed.
- However, it is not the initial *diagnostic step* to confirm acromegaly itself; hormonal assays are needed first.
*24-hour urine cortisol measurement*
- This test is used to diagnose **Cushing's syndrome**, which is characterized by symptoms like **central obesity, striae, and muscle weakness**, not the features of bony overgrowth seen here.
- Although both can involve pituitary tumors, the symptoms described do not fit cortisol excess.
*Oral glucose tolerance test*
- An **oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)**, with subsequent GH measurement, is considered the confirmatory diagnostic test for acromegaly.
- Glucose normally suppresses GH, so a failure of GH suppression after glucose load confirms the diagnosis, but the **IGF-1 initial screen** is more appropriate due to its stability and convenience.
Question 903: A 43-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine examination prior to starting a new job as a nurse. Over the past year, the patient has had mild shortness of breath and a cough productive of white sputum, particularly in the morning. She immigrated to the United States from South Africa with her parents 40 years ago. She received all appropriate immunizations during childhood, including the oral polio and BCG vaccine. She has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 30 years and drinks one glass of wine occasionally. Her only medication is a multivitamin. Her temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), pulse is 74/min, and blood pressure is 124/60 mm Hg. Bilateral wheezing is heard throughout both lung fields. A complete blood count and serum concentrations of electrolytes, urea nitrogen, and creatinine are within the reference range. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to evaluate for tuberculosis in this patient?
A. X-ray of the chest
B. Sputum culture
C. Tuberculin skin test
D. PCR of the sputum
E. Interferon-gamma release assay (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA)***
- This patient received a **BCG vaccine** in childhood, which can lead to a **false-positive tuberculin skin test (TST)**. An IGRA is preferred in individuals with a history of BCG vaccination because it is not affected by prior BCG vaccination.
- The patient has risk factors for **latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI)**, including immigration from a region where tuberculosis is endemic (South Africa) and chronic respiratory symptoms, making screening for TB appropriate.
*Tuberculin skin test (TST)*
- While TST is a common screening tool for tuberculosis, a history of **BCG vaccination** (as in this patient) can cause a **false-positive result**, making interpretation difficult.
- Due to the potential for false positives with BCG, an IGRA is generally recommended over TST for individuals with prior BCG vaccination.
*X-ray of the chest*
- A chest X-ray is useful for evaluating **active tuberculosis disease** and can show characteristic findings like **infiltrates, cavitations, or ghon complexes**.
- However, it is **not the primary screening tool for latent TB infection** in an asymptomatic individual and would typically follow a positive screening test.
*Sputum culture*
- Sputum culture is the **gold standard for diagnosing active pulmonary tuberculosis**, as it confirms the presence of mycobacteria and allows for susceptibility testing.
- It is not indicated as initial screening for **latent tuberculosis infection** in a patient with mild, non-specific symptoms and no clear signs of active disease.
*PCR of the sputum*
- **PCR of sputum** is a rapid diagnostic test for **active tuberculosis**, detecting mycobacterial DNA.
- Similar to sputum culture, it is used to diagnose active disease, not to screen for **latent TB infection**, and would not be the initial step in this context.
Question 904: A 68-year-old male presents with several years of progressively worsening pain in his buttocks. Pain is characterized as dull, worse with exertion especially when ascending the stairs. He has a history of diabetes mellitus type II, obesity, coronary artery disease with prior myocardial infarction, and a 44 pack-year smoking history. Current medications include aspirin, atorvastatin, metoprolol, lisinopril, insulin, metformin, and varenicline. Upon further questioning, the patient's wife states that her husband has also recently developed impotence. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 90/min, blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 96% on room air. Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
A. Ankle-brachial index (Correct Answer)
B. Pentoxifylline
C. Guided exercise therapy
D. Cilostazol
E. Angiography
Explanation: ***Ankle-brachial index***
- This patient's symptoms (buttock pain, worsening with exertion, impotence) along with multiple risk factors (diabetes, obesity, smoking, CAD) are highly suggestive of **peripheral artery disease (PAD)**, specifically **Leriche syndrome**.
- The **ankle-brachial index (ABI)** is a non-invasive, inexpensive, and highly sensitive and specific diagnostic test for PAD, making it the best initial step for confirmation.
*Pentoxifylline*
- **Pentoxifylline** is a rheologic agent that can improve blood flow by reducing blood viscosity and enhancing red blood cell flexibility.
- While it was previously used for claudication, it is **less effective** than cilostazol and generally **not considered a first-line treatment** for PAD.
*Guided exercise therapy*
- **Supervised exercise programs** are a cornerstone in the management of PAD symptoms and improve walking distance and quality of life.
- However, performing a **diagnostic test like ABI** is crucial to confirm the diagnosis and determine the extent of PAD **before initiating treatment**.
*Cilostazol*
- **Cilostazol** is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor with antiplatelet and vasodilatory effects, proven to **improve walking distance** in patients with intermittent claudication.
- While an effective treatment, it should be prescribed **after the diagnosis of PAD is confirmed** and after Lifestyle modifications (including exercise therapy) are considered.
*Angiography*
- **Angiography** (CT angiography, MR angiography, or conventional angiography) provides detailed imaging of arterial anatomy and is essential for **pre-procedural planning** of revascularization (e.g., stenting, bypass surgery).
- It is a **more invasive and expensive test** that is typically performed **after the diagnosis of PAD is established** by ABI and conservative measures have been tried or when revascularization is being considered.
Question 905: A 60-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of sharp chest pain and a nonproductive cough. The pain worsens with deep inspiration and improves when he leans forward. Three weeks ago, the patient was diagnosed with an ST-elevation myocardial infarction and underwent stent implantation of the right coronary artery. His temperature is 38.4°C (101.1°F) and blood pressure is 132/85 mm Hg. Cardiac auscultation shows a high-pitched scratching sound during expiration. An x-ray of the chest shows enlargement of the cardiac silhouette and a left-sided pleural effusion. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's current condition?
A. Occlusion of coronary artery stent
B. Immune response to cardiac antigens (Correct Answer)
C. Rupture of interventricular septum
D. Embolism to left pulmonary artery
E. Outpouching of ventricular wall
Explanation: ***Immune response to cardiac antigens***
- The patient's symptoms (chest pain worsening with inspiration and improving with leaning forward, fever, pericardial friction rub, enlarged cardiac silhouette, pleural effusion) occurring 3 weeks after an MI and stent implantation are classic for **Dressler's syndrome**, a **late post-myocardial infarction pericarditis**.
- Dressler's syndrome is believed to be an **autoimmune reaction** involving antibodies targeting cardiac muscle cells that have been damaged during the MI.
*Occlusion of coronary artery stent*
- **Stent occlusion** would typically present with recurrent ischemic chest pain, often severe and oppressive, and potentially new ECG changes suggestive of ischemia or infarction, rather than pleuritic pain and pericardial signs.
- While it's a serious complication, it doesn't explain the fever, pericardial friction rub, or pleural effusion seen in this patient.
*Rupture of interventricular septum*
- **Ventricular septal rupture** is a mechanical complication of MI that usually presents with sudden onset of a new, loud holosystolic murmur, hypotension, and signs of heart failure (e.g., dyspnea, pulmonary edema).
- It would not typically cause the pleuritic chest pain, pericardial friction rub, or fever observed in this case.
*Embolism to left pulmonary artery*
- A **pulmonary embolism** typically causes sudden onset of dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and sometimes hemoptysis. While it can cause pleuritic chest pain, it wouldn't explain the pericardial friction rub, the typical positional relief of pain, or the enlarged cardiac silhouette.
- The patient's presentation is more indicative of pericardial inflammation rather than pulmonary infarction.
*Outpouching of ventricular wall*
- An **outpouching of the ventricular wall**, known as a ventricular aneurysm, is a late complication of MI. It can cause heart failure, arrhythmias, or mural thrombus formation, but it is not typically associated with acute pleuritic chest pain, fever, or a pericardial friction rub.
- An aneurysm might cause an enlarged cardiac silhouette but wouldn't explain the other acute inflammatory symptoms.
Question 906: A 36-year-old software professional consults a physician to discuss his concerns about small-vessel vasculitis as his mother and sister both have autoimmune small-vessel vasculitides. He has read about vasculitides and recently he came across an article which stated that an analgesic that he often uses for relief from a headache can cause small-vessel vasculitis. Due to his positive family history, he is especially concerned about his risk of developing small-vessel vasculitis. Which of the following clinical presentations is most likely to occur in this man?
A. Infarction of an internal organ
B. Aneurysm of an artery
C. Palpable purpura (Correct Answer)
D. Stroke
E. Absence of pulses in the upper extremity
Explanation: ***Correct: Palpable purpura***
- **Palpable purpura** is a classic manifestation of **small-vessel vasculitis** because inflammation and damage to small blood vessels lead to extravasation of red blood cells into the skin, forming palpable lesions.
- The vasculitis discussed in the scenario is likely **drug-induced vasculitis**, often presenting as a **leukocytoclastic vasculitis** affecting small vessels in the skin, resulting in purpura.
*Incorrect: Infarction of an internal organ*
- **Infarction of internal organs** is more commonly associated with **medium or large-vessel vasculitides** due to the occlusion of larger arteries supplying these organs.
- While small-vessel vasculitis can affect internal organs, **infarction** is less typical than skin manifestations.
*Incorrect: Aneurysm of an artery*
- **Aneurysm formation** is characteristic of **large and medium-vessel vasculitides**, such as **Kawasaki disease** or **polyarteritis nodosa**, which involve the structural weakening of arterial walls.
- **Small-vessel vasculitides** primarily cause inflammation and necrosis of vessel walls, leading to purpura or hemorrhage, not routinely aneurysms.
*Incorrect: Stroke*
- **Stroke** can occur in vasculitis, but it is typically associated with **vasculitis affecting cerebral arteries** (often medium or large vessels) or conditions that cause emboli due to cardiac involvement (e.g., in Takayasu arteritis).
- While small-vessel vasculitis can impact the central nervous system, **palpable purpura** is a more direct and common skin manifestation.
*Incorrect: Absence of pulses in the upper extremity*
- **Absence of pulses** in the upper extremities is a hallmark of **large-vessel vasculitis**, particularly **Takayasu arteritis**, where granulomatous inflammation leads to stenosis or occlusion of the aorta and its major branches.
- This finding is inconsistent with **small-vessel vasculitis**, which does not typically affect major arterial blood flow in this manner.
Question 907: A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because his neck was fixed in lateral flexion. For the past week, the patient has been complaining of low-grade fever, head pain, and neck pain. His partner has also noticed him behaving erratically. His family and personal medical history are not relevant. Upon admission, he is found with a body temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F), and physical examination is unremarkable except for neck pain and fixed lateral flexion of the neck. He is confused, but there are no motor or sensory deficits. Deep tendon reflexes are accentuated. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain shows leptomeningeal and gyral enhancement. Which of the following explains this patient’s condition?
A. Exposure to D2-antagonists
B. Trochlear nerve palsy
C. Viral infection
D. Genetic mutation
E. Acid-fast bacilli infection (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Acid-fast bacilli infection***
- The patient's presentation with **torticollis (fixed lateral flexion of the neck)**, low-grade fever, headache, altered mental status (**confusion**, erratic behavior), and **leptomeningeal and gyral enhancement** on MRI are highly suggestive of **tuberculous meningitis**.
- **Accentuated deep tendon reflexes** can be seen in meningitis due to increased intracranial pressure or diffuse cerebral irritation.
*Exposure to D2-antagonists*
- **D2-antagonists**, such as antipsychotics, can cause **acute dystonic reactions**, including torticollis.
- However, the presence of **fever, headache, confusion, and leptomeningeal enhancement** on MRI are not typical features of drug-induced dystonia.
*Trochlear nerve palsy*
- **Trochlear nerve (CN IV) palsy** typically causes **vertical diplopia** and compensatory **head tilt** to correct vision.
- It does not cause fever, headache, altered mental status, or imaging findings of diffuse meningeal inflammation.
*Viral infection*
- While viral infections can cause meningitis or encephalitis with fever and headache, the specific presentation of **prominent torticollis** and **leptomeningeal and gyral enhancement** is more classic for tuberculous meningitis.
- Furthermore, the clinical course and severity often differ.
*Genetic mutation*
- **Genetic mutations** are associated with various neurological disorders, but they are generally not linked to an **acute presentation** with fever, headache, altered mental status, and inflammatory MRI findings.
- Conditions like hereditary dystonia typically have a different onset and progression.
Question 908: A 40-year-old Indian female is hospitalized with exertional dyspnea and lower extremity edema. The patient immigrated to the United States at age 15 and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or drugs. A mid-diastolic murmur is present and heard best at the apex. Which of the following symptoms would be most consistent with the rest of the patient’s presentation?
A. Asymmetric ventricular hypertrophy
B. Increased intracranial pressure
C. Hirsutism
D. Pulsus paradoxus
E. Hoarseness (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hoarseness***
- This patient presents with symptoms suggestive of **mitral stenosis** (exertional dyspnea, edema, mid-diastolic apical murmur) likely due to a history of **rheumatic fever** prevalent in developing countries.
- **Hoarseness (Ortner's syndrome)** can occur in severe mitral stenosis due to the dilated left atrium compressing the **left recurrent laryngeal nerve**.
*Asymmetric ventricular hypertrophy*
- This is a hallmark of **hypertrophic cardiomyopathy**, which typically presents with a harsh systolic murmur that increases with Valsalva, not a mid-diastolic murmur.
- It involves hypertrophy of the interventricular septum, leading to outflow tract obstruction, which is inconsistent with the findings of mitral stenosis.
*Increased intracranial pressure*
- Symptoms like headache, papilledema, or altered mental status are associated with increased intracranial pressure, which has no direct link to mitral stenosis or the described cardiac symptoms.
- While heart failure can lead to cerebral edema in extreme cases, it's not a primary or direct symptom of mitral stenosis itself.
*Hirsutism*
- Hirsutism is the excessive growth of dark, coarse hair in a male-like pattern in women, often due to **androgen excess** (e.g., PCOS).
- This symptom is unrelated to the cardiovascular pathology suggested by the patient's presentation of exertional dyspnea, edema, and a mid-diastolic murmur.
*Pulsus paradoxus*
- This refers to an abnormally large decrease in **systolic blood pressure** during inspiration, most commonly seen in conditions like **cardiac tamponade**, severe asthma, or COPD.
- It is not a characteristic finding of mitral stenosis; rather, a small pulse pressure can be seen due to reduced cardiac output.
Question 909: A 58-year-old man with an unknown previous medical history is found on the floor at home by his daughter. During the initial assessment, the patient has left-sided arm weakness and incomprehensible speech. The patient is admitted to the hospital where he is diagnosed with an ischemic stroke where his magnetic resonance image (MRI) scan showed diffusion restriction in the right middle cerebral artery (MCA) territory. Further evaluation reveals the patient had been on the floor for about 2 days before he was found by his daughter. At presentation to the hospital, the blood pressure is 161/88 mm Hg and the heart rate is 104/min and regular. His laboratory values at the time of admission are shown:
BUN 40 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.9 mg/dL
Potassium 5.3 mEq/dL
Sodium 155 mEq/dL
Chloride 100 mEq/dL
HCO3 24 mmol/L
Hemoglobin 13.8 g/dL
Hematocrit 40%
Leukocytes 11,000/mL
Platelets 300,000/µL
Serum creatine kinase 40,000 U/L
Which of the following is most indicated in this patient?
A. Forced diuresis with intravenous (IV) fluids (Correct Answer)
B. Stress echocardiography
C. Intravenous n-acetyl-cysteine
D. Transfusion of fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
E. Rhythm control with metoprolol
Explanation: ***Forced diuresis with intravenous (IV) fluids***
- The patient's **elevated serum creatine kinase (CK)** of 40,000 U/L, along with prolonged immobility ("on the floor for about 2 days"), severe dehydration (Na 155 mEq/dL, BUN 40 mg/dL, Cr 1.9 mg/dL), and hyperkalemia (K 5.3 mEq/dL), strongly suggests **rhabdomyolysis**.
- **Aggressive intravenous fluids** are crucial to prevent and treat acute kidney injury (AKI) by flushing myoglobin from the renal tubules. **Forced diuresis** helps to maintain adequate urine output and dilute potential nephrotoxic substances.
*Stress echocardiography*
- This test is used to evaluate **coronary artery disease** or myocardial ischemia, which is not the immediate life-threatening concern in this patient.
- While cardiac evaluation may be important later for stroke etiology, addressing the **rhabdomyolysis and AKI risk** is the highest immediate priority.
*Intravenous n-acetyl-cysteine*
- **N-acetylcysteine (NAC)** is primarily used to treat **acetaminophen overdose** or to prevent contrast-induced nephropathy.
- It does not have a primary role in the management of **rhabdomyolysis** or associated acute kidney injury.
*Transfusion of fresh frozen plasma (FFP)*
- **Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)** is indicated for patients with **coagulopathies** and active bleeding or before invasive procedures, or for genetic coagulation factor deficiencies.
- There is no evidence in the clinical presentation or lab values to suggest a coagulopathy requiring FFP transfusion.
*Rhythm control with metoprolol*
- Metoprolol is a beta-blocker used for **rate and rhythm control** in conditions like atrial fibrillation or tachycardia.
- Although the patient has a heart rate of 104/min, this is likely secondary to dehydration and systemic stress, and restoring euvolemia is generally the primary intervention before considering specific rhythm control medications.
Question 910: A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset right hand and right leg weakness. The patient was at home cleaning when his symptoms began. He also complains of diffuse and severe pain throughout his entire body which he states he has experienced before. The patient is an immigrant from South America, and his medical history is not known. His temperature is 98.9°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 128/67 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. CT of the head demonstrates no bleeding. Physical exam is notable for 2/5 strength in the patient's right arm and right leg. Which of the following is the best management in this patient?
A. Aspirin
B. Morphine and IV fluids
C. Heparin
D. Tissue plasminogen activator
E. Exchange transfusion (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Exchange transfusion***
- This patient presents with **acute stroke** (sudden right-sided weakness) in the setting of **sickle cell disease** (history of recurrent severe pain, South American origin where SCD is prevalent).
- **Exchange transfusion** is the **definitive and urgent treatment** for acute stroke in sickle cell disease, aiming to rapidly reduce HbS to <30% and increase HbA levels.
- This is a **neurological emergency** requiring immediate intervention to prevent further ischemic injury and improve outcomes.
- Per ASH guidelines, exchange transfusion should be initiated as soon as possible for acute stroke in SCD patients.
*Morphine and IV fluids*
- While **pain management** and **hydration** are essential components of managing uncomplicated vaso-occlusive crisis, they are **insufficient** for acute stroke.
- These are supportive measures but do not address the underlying pathophysiology of acute cerebral infarction in SCD.
- In the context of acute stroke (a neurological emergency), more definitive intervention is required.
*Tissue plasminogen activator*
- **Thrombolytic therapy** is generally **contraindicated** in sickle cell-related stroke due to the different pathophysiology (small vessel occlusion, not large vessel thrombosis).
- SCD patients have increased bleeding risk, making tPA potentially dangerous.
- Exchange transfusion is the preferred intervention with better risk-benefit profile.
*Heparin*
- **Anticoagulation** is not indicated for acute stroke in sickle cell disease.
- The mechanism is vaso-occlusion from sickled cells, not thromboembolism.
- Could increase bleeding risk without addressing the underlying pathology.
*Aspirin*
- **Antiplatelet therapy** does not address the acute emergency of stroke in SCD.
- While it may have a role in secondary prevention, it is not appropriate acute management.
- The immediate priority is exchange transfusion to rapidly reduce sickling.