In a routine medical examination, an otherwise healthy 12-year-old boy is noted to have tall stature with a wide arm span and slight scoliosis. Chest auscultation reveals a heart murmur. Transthoracic echocardiography shows an enlarged aortic root and aortic valve insufficiency. Mutations in fibrillin-1 gene are positive. Plasma homocysteine levels are not elevated. This patient is at high risk for which of the following complications?
Q882
A 46-year-old man comes to the physician for routine physical examination. His blood pressure is 158/96 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show a potassium concentration of 3.1 mEq/L. His plasma aldosterone concentration (PAC) to plasma renin activity (PRA) ratio is 47 (N < 10). A saline infusion test fails to suppress aldosterone secretion. A CT scan of the abdomen shows bilateral adrenal gland abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q883
A 78-year-old man with advanced lung cancer with metastases to the brain is brought to the physician by his daughter, with whom he lives. The daughter reports that her father's condition has been slowly deteriorating over the past 2 months. His seizures have been poorly controlled despite maximal medical therapy. He has had progressive loss of mobility, a decrease in executive function, and worsening pain. The patient has Medicaid insurance. Current medications include high-dose corticosteroids and immediate-release opioid analgesics. The need for increased assistance has been distressing to the family, and they are concerned about the patient's overall comfort. The daughter asks the physician about her father's eligibility for hospice care. Which of the following responses from the physician about this model of care is most appropriate?
Q884
A 43-year-old man with a history of untreated HIV presents with fever, shortness of breath, and a nonproductive cough for the past week. Past medical history is significant for HIV diagnosed 10 years ago and never treated. His most recent CD4+ T cell count was 105/µL. Physical examination reveals bilateral crepitus over all lobes. No lymphadenopathy is present. A chest radiograph reveals bilateral infiltrates. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?
Q885
A 55-year-old man is seen in the hospital for new onset shortness of breath. The patient was hospitalized 5 days ago after initially presenting with chest pain. He was found to have an ST-elevation myocardial infarction. He underwent percutaneous coronary intervention with stent placement with resolution of his chest pain. He states that he was doing well until yesterday when he developed dyspnea while walking around the hall and occasionally when getting out of bed to use the bathroom. His shortness of breath has since progressed, and he is now having trouble breathing even at rest. His medical history is also significant for type II diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolemia. He takes aspirin, clopidogrel, metformin, and atorvastatin. His temperature is 97°F (36.1°C), blood pressure is 133/62, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 20/min, and oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. On physical examination, there is a holosystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla and an S3 heart sound. Coarse crackles are heard bilaterally. An electrocardiogram, a chest radiograph, and cardiac enzyme levels are pending. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q886
A 36-year-old right-handed man presents with complaints of difficulty writing for the past 6 months. He denies right-hand weakness, numbness, pain, and trauma. He can do most normal activities with his right hand, but whenever he holds a pen and starts to write, he experiences painful muscle spasms in his hand and arm. He is an account clerk by profession, and this problem causes him so much distress that he has started writing with his left hand. He is physically active. Sleep and appetite are normal. Past medical history is unremarkable. Physical examination is completely within normal limits with normal muscle tone, strength, and deep tendon reflexes. When he is asked to hold a pen and write, his hand becomes twisted with abnormal posturing while attempting to write. What is the next step in the management of this patient?
Q887
A 33-year-old woman presents to a walk-in clinic for evaluation of some bumps around her eyes. The bumps are not itchy or painful. They have been getting larger since appearing last year. She has no other complaints. She has not sought out medical attention for the last 20 years due to lack of insurance coverage. Her medical history reveals no problems and she takes no medications. Her periods are regular. A review of systems reveals no other concerns. She does not drink, smoke, or use illicit drugs. Her vital signs show a heart rate of 86/min, respirations of 14/min, and blood pressure of 124/76 mm Hg. On examination, the rash is a series of small papules and plaques around her eyes. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. Which of the following initial blood tests are most appropriate at this time?
Q888
A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department due to new-onset symptoms of asthma. She reports that the asthmatic attacks started a week ago. The past medical history includes gastroesophageal reflux disease and hepatitis B. On physical examination, the patient has bilateral foot drop as well as numbness and tingling sensation in all extremities. A complete blood count is relevant for eosinophilia of 9.1 × 10^9/L. Which of the markers below could explain all of the patient's current symptoms?
Q889
A 37-year-old woman presents to clinic for routine checkup. She has no complaints with the exception of occasional "shortness of breath." Her physical examination is unremarkable with the exception of a "snap"-like sound after S2, followed by a rumbling murmur. You notice that this murmur is heard best at the cardiac apex. A history of which of the following are you most likely to elicit upon further questioning of this patient?
Q890
Twelve hours after undergoing a femoral artery embolectomy, an 84-year-old man is found unconscious on the floor by his hospital bed. He had received a patient-controlled analgesia pump after surgery. He underwent 2 coronary bypass surgeries, 2 and 6 years ago. He has coronary artery disease, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, gastroesophageal reflux, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. His current medications include metoprolol, atorvastatin, lisinopril, sublingual nitrate, and insulin. He appears pale. His temperature is 36.1°C (97°F), pulse is 120/min, respirations are 24/min, and blood pressure 88/60 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 85%. The patient does not respond to commands and withdraws his extremities to pain. The pupils are constricted bilaterally. Examination shows cold, clammy skin and jugular venous distention. There is ecchymosis on the right temple and maxilla. There is a surgical incision over the right thigh that shows no erythema or discharge. Crackles are heard at both lung bases. A new grade 2/6 systolic murmur is heard at the apex. He is intubated and mechanically ventilated. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 881: In a routine medical examination, an otherwise healthy 12-year-old boy is noted to have tall stature with a wide arm span and slight scoliosis. Chest auscultation reveals a heart murmur. Transthoracic echocardiography shows an enlarged aortic root and aortic valve insufficiency. Mutations in fibrillin-1 gene are positive. Plasma homocysteine levels are not elevated. This patient is at high risk for which of the following complications?
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Infertility
C. Aortic aneurysm (Correct Answer)
D. Thrombotic events
E. Arterial and visceral rupture
Explanation: ***Aortic aneurysm***
- The constellation of **tall stature**, **wide arm span**, **scoliosis**, an **enlarged aortic root**, and **aortic valve insufficiency** in the presence of **fibrillin-1 gene mutations** is characteristic of **Marfan syndrome**.
- Patients with Marfan syndrome, due to defective **fibrillin-1**, are at high risk for **progressive aortic dilation** and subsequent **aortic aneurysm** formation or dissection.
*Pheochromocytoma*
- This condition is a tumor of the adrenal gland that secretes **catecholamines**, leading to symptoms like **hypertension**, sweating, and palpitations.
- It is not directly associated with **Marfan syndrome** or the findings described in the patient.
*Infertility*
- While some genetic conditions can cause infertility, infertility is **not a typical complication** or characteristic feature of **Marfan syndrome**.
- The described symptoms primarily relate to musculoskeletal and cardiovascular systems.
*Thrombotic events*
- Elevated plasma **homocysteine levels** are a risk factor for thrombotic events, which differentiates it from **Marfan syndrome**.
- The patient's **normal homocysteine levels** rule out conditions like homocystinuria, which often presents with similar skeletal and ocular features but significant thrombotic risk.
*Arterial and visceral rupture*
- While **aortic dissection** (a type of arterial rupture) is a major complication of **Marfan syndrome**, the general term "arterial and visceral rupture" is more characteristic of **Ehlers-Danlos syndrome type IV** (vascular type).
- Ehlers-Danlos syndrome type IV is caused by mutations in **collagen type III**, leading to fragile blood vessels and organs, which is distinct from the **fibrillin-1 defect** in Marfan syndrome.
Question 882: A 46-year-old man comes to the physician for routine physical examination. His blood pressure is 158/96 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show a potassium concentration of 3.1 mEq/L. His plasma aldosterone concentration (PAC) to plasma renin activity (PRA) ratio is 47 (N < 10). A saline infusion test fails to suppress aldosterone secretion. A CT scan of the abdomen shows bilateral adrenal gland abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Unilateral adrenalectomy
B. Eplerenone therapy (Correct Answer)
C. Propranolol therapy
D. Bilateral adrenalectomy
E. Amiloride therapy
Explanation: ***Eplerenone therapy***
- The patient presents with **hypertension**, **hypokalemia**, an elevated **PAC/PRA ratio** (47, normal < 10), and a failed saline suppression test, all consistent with **primary hyperaldosteronism**.
- Given the **bilateral adrenal gland abnormalities** on CT scan, **bilateral adrenal hyperplasia (BAH)** is the most likely cause, for which medical management with a **mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist** like eplerenone or spironolactone is the preferred treatment.
*Unilateral adrenalectomy*
- This intervention is indicated for patients with **unilateral aldosterone-producing adenoma (Conn's syndrome)**, which is typically visualized as a solitary lesion on adrenal imaging.
- The patient's CT scan indicates **bilateral adrenal abnormalities**, making unilateral adrenalectomy an inappropriate choice as the source of aldosterone overproduction is likely multifocal or generalized.
*Propranolol therapy*
- **Propranolol** is a non-selective **beta-blocker** primarily used to treat hypertension by reducing heart rate and cardiac output, and suppressing renin release.
- It does not directly target the excessive aldosterone production or its effects in primary hyperaldosteronism, and thus would not adequately address the underlying pathology.
*Bilateral adrenalectomy*
- **Bilateral adrenalectomy** is an extreme measure reserved for cases of primary hyperaldosteronism due to **bilateral adrenal hyperplasia** that are refractory to medical therapy or in cases of **adrenocortical carcinoma**.
- It results in lifelong requirement for **glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement**, making it a less desirable initial treatment compared to medical management.
*Amiloride therapy*
- **Amiloride** is a **potassium-sparing diuretic** that blocks epithelial sodium channels in the distal tubule and collecting duct.
- While it can help correct hypokalemia and reduce blood pressure in primary hyperaldosteronism, it does not directly antagonize aldosterone's effects at the mineralocorticoid receptor and is generally less effective than eplerenone or spironolactone for long-term management of this condition.
Question 883: A 78-year-old man with advanced lung cancer with metastases to the brain is brought to the physician by his daughter, with whom he lives. The daughter reports that her father's condition has been slowly deteriorating over the past 2 months. His seizures have been poorly controlled despite maximal medical therapy. He has had progressive loss of mobility, a decrease in executive function, and worsening pain. The patient has Medicaid insurance. Current medications include high-dose corticosteroids and immediate-release opioid analgesics. The need for increased assistance has been distressing to the family, and they are concerned about the patient's overall comfort. The daughter asks the physician about her father's eligibility for hospice care. Which of the following responses from the physician about this model of care is most appropriate?
A. Your father cannot enter hospice care if there is a definitive cure for his disease.
B. Your father would have to be moved from home to a center that specializes in hospice care.
C. Your father is only eligible if his life expectancy is less than 6 months. (Correct Answer)
D. Your father's current medication regimen is incompatible with hospice care because of the risk of respiratory depression.
E. Hospice care is likely to hasten your father's death.
Explanation: ***Your father is only eligible if his life expectancy is less than 6 months.***
- This is the **primary criterion** for hospice eligibility under most insurance plans, including Medicaid. The patient's advanced lung cancer with brain metastases, uncontrolled seizures, and progressive decline suggest he may meet this criterion.
- Hospice care focuses on **palliative management** for patients with a limited prognosis, emphasizing comfort and quality of life rather than curative treatment.
*Your father cannot enter hospice care if there is a definitive cure for his disease.*
- While true that hospice is for patients with **terminal illnesses** where curative treatment is no longer the focus, the statement implies a "definitive cure" is still an option, which is not the case for advanced metastatic lung cancer.
- The patient's condition (advanced lung cancer with metastases, uncontrolled seizures, and significant functional decline) indicates that **curative treatments are no longer effective** or pursued.
*Your father would have to be moved from home to a center that specializes in hospice care.*
- **Most hospice care is provided in the patient's home**, or in long-term care facilities, allowing individuals to remain in a familiar environment.
- While inpatient hospice facilities exist for complex symptom management, they are not a mandatory requirement for all hospice patients.
*Your father's current medication regimen is incompatible with hospice care because of the risk of respiratory depression.*
- Hospice care actively manages symptoms, including pain, and **opioids are a cornerstone of pain management** in terminal illness. The goal is comfort, not avoidance of effective medications.
- The risk of respiratory depression is managed through careful titration and monitoring, and it does not preclude hospice admission, especially when pain is severe.
*Hospice care is likely to hasten your father's death.*
- Hospice care is focused on **comfort and quality of life** and does not intentionally hasten death. It provides **palliative care**, symptom management, and support for patients and families.
- Studies have shown that hospice care can sometimes **prolong life** by improving symptom control and reducing hospitalizations, rather than shortening it.
Question 884: A 43-year-old man with a history of untreated HIV presents with fever, shortness of breath, and a nonproductive cough for the past week. Past medical history is significant for HIV diagnosed 10 years ago and never treated. His most recent CD4+ T cell count was 105/µL. Physical examination reveals bilateral crepitus over all lobes. No lymphadenopathy is present. A chest radiograph reveals bilateral infiltrates. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?
A. Amphotericin B
B. Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)
C. Azithromycin
D. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Correct Answer)
E. Ganciclovir
Explanation: ***Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole***
- The patient's presentation with **fever**, **shortness of breath**, **nonproductive cough**, **bilateral crepitus**, **bilateral infiltrates on chest X-ray**, and a **CD4+ T cell count of 105/µL** is highly suggestive of **Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP)**, which is best treated with **trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole**.
- This medication is the **first-line treatment** for PCP due to its efficacy against the organism.
*Amphotericin B*
- This is an **antifungal medication** primarily used to treat severe **systemic fungal infections** such as histoplasmosis or cryptococcosis.
- While HIV patients are susceptible to fungal infections, the clinical presentation is more consistent with PCP, not a typical fungal pneumonia.
*Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)*
- **HAART** is crucial for managing HIV infection by suppressing viral replication and improving immune function, but it is **not an immediate treatment for acute opportunistic infections** like PCP.
- While it should be initiated once the acute infection is stable, the immediate priority is to treat the life-threatening pneumonia.
*Azithromycin*
- **Azithromycin** is an antibiotic typically used for bacterial infections, including some **atypical pneumonias** and for **PCP prophylaxis** in some cases, but it is not the primary treatment for active PCP.
- It is also used as part of a regimen for **Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) prophylaxis**, which presents differently.
*Ganciclovir*
- This is an **antiviral medication** primarily used to treat infections caused by **cytomegalovirus (CMV)**, which can cause retinitis, colitis, or pneumonitis in immunocompromised individuals.
- The symptoms described are not characteristic of CMV pneumonitis, and ganciclovir would not be effective against PCP.
Question 885: A 55-year-old man is seen in the hospital for new onset shortness of breath. The patient was hospitalized 5 days ago after initially presenting with chest pain. He was found to have an ST-elevation myocardial infarction. He underwent percutaneous coronary intervention with stent placement with resolution of his chest pain. He states that he was doing well until yesterday when he developed dyspnea while walking around the hall and occasionally when getting out of bed to use the bathroom. His shortness of breath has since progressed, and he is now having trouble breathing even at rest. His medical history is also significant for type II diabetes mellitus and hypercholesterolemia. He takes aspirin, clopidogrel, metformin, and atorvastatin. His temperature is 97°F (36.1°C), blood pressure is 133/62, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 20/min, and oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. On physical examination, there is a holosystolic murmur that radiates to the axilla and an S3 heart sound. Coarse crackles are heard bilaterally. An electrocardiogram, a chest radiograph, and cardiac enzyme levels are pending. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Interventricular septum rupture
B. Thickened mitral valve leaflets
C. Dressler syndrome
D. Free wall rupture
E. Papillary muscle rupture (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Papillary muscle rupture**
- **Acute mitral regurgitation** due to papillary muscle rupture post-MI classically presents with new-onset **shortness of breath**, **crackles** (indicating pulmonary edema), an **S3 heart sound**, and a **holosystolic murmur** radiating to the axilla.
- Rupture of the papillary muscle, often occurring 2-7 days post-MI, leads to severe mitral valve dysfunction and rapid **hemodynamic compromise**, accounting for the patient's rapidly worsening dyspnea and hypoxemia.
*Interventricular septum rupture*
- While a post-MI complication presenting with a **holosystolic murmur**, this murmur is typically best heard along the **left sternal border** and is associated with a palpable thrill, not radiating to the axilla.
- Patients often develop **biventricular heart failure** and a step-up in oxygen saturation from the right atrium to the right ventricle, which is not suggested by the findings.
*Thickened mitral valve leaflets*
- **Mitral stenosis** due to thickened leaflets typically presents with a **diastolic murmur**, not a holosystolic murmur, and is often a chronic condition rather than an acute post-MI complication.
- The patient's acute presentation within days of an MI makes a pre-existing chronic valvular issue less likely to be the primary cause of his acute decompensation.
*Dressler syndrome*
- This is a form of **post-cardiac injury syndrome** (pericarditis) that typically occurs weeks to months after an MI, not within days.
- Symptoms include **pleuritic chest pain** and **fever**, along with a **pericardial friction rub**, which are not described in this patient.
*Free wall rupture*
- Free wall rupture is a catastrophic complication that typically leads to **cardiac tamponade** and **sudden death**, or rapid circulatory collapse with pulseless electrical activity.
- The patient's presentation with progressive shortness of breath and a holosystolic murmur is not consistent with the acute, usually fatal, course of a free wall rupture.
Question 886: A 36-year-old right-handed man presents with complaints of difficulty writing for the past 6 months. He denies right-hand weakness, numbness, pain, and trauma. He can do most normal activities with his right hand, but whenever he holds a pen and starts to write, he experiences painful muscle spasms in his hand and arm. He is an account clerk by profession, and this problem causes him so much distress that he has started writing with his left hand. He is physically active. Sleep and appetite are normal. Past medical history is unremarkable. Physical examination is completely within normal limits with normal muscle tone, strength, and deep tendon reflexes. When he is asked to hold a pen and write, his hand becomes twisted with abnormal posturing while attempting to write. What is the next step in the management of this patient?
A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
B. Refer to the psychiatry clinic
C. Botulinum injection (Correct Answer)
D. Electroencephalogram
E. Wrist splint
Explanation: ***Botulinum injection***
- The patient's symptoms are highly suggestive of **Writer's cramp**, a form of **focal task-specific dystonia**, which is characterized by involuntary muscle spasms and abnormal posturing specifically during writing.
- **Botulinum toxin injections** are the **first-line treatment** for focal dystonias, effectively relaxing the overactive muscles involved in the abnormal movements.
*Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor*
- **SSRIs** are primarily used to treat **depression and anxiety disorders**, which are not the primary presenting symptoms in this patient.
- While psychological stress can exacerbate dystonia, SSRIs do not directly address the underlying **motor control dysfunction** characteristic of writer's cramp.
*Refer to the psychiatry clinic*
- Although writer's cramp can cause significant distress and impact quality of life, the primary pathology is neurological, not psychiatric.
- A referral to psychiatry would be appropriate if there were co-occurring mental health disorders that required specific treatment, but it is not the **next step** for the *motor symptoms*.
*Electroencephalogram*
- An **EEG** measures **electrical activity in the brain** and is primarily used to diagnose conditions like **seizures** or **encephalopathy**.
- It would not provide diagnostic or therapeutic information for writer's cramp, which is a **movement disorder** rather than an epileptic condition.
*Wrist splint*
- A **wrist splint** provides **immobilization and support** for conditions like carpal tunnel syndrome, tenosynovitis, or wrist sprains.
- It would not be effective for writer's cramp because the problem is with **involuntary muscle contractions** during a specific task, not simple joint instability or inflammation.
Question 887: A 33-year-old woman presents to a walk-in clinic for evaluation of some bumps around her eyes. The bumps are not itchy or painful. They have been getting larger since appearing last year. She has no other complaints. She has not sought out medical attention for the last 20 years due to lack of insurance coverage. Her medical history reveals no problems and she takes no medications. Her periods are regular. A review of systems reveals no other concerns. She does not drink, smoke, or use illicit drugs. Her vital signs show a heart rate of 86/min, respirations of 14/min, and blood pressure of 124/76 mm Hg. On examination, the rash is a series of small papules and plaques around her eyes. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. Which of the following initial blood tests are most appropriate at this time?
A. Fasting lipid profile alone (Correct Answer)
B. Thyroid stimulating hormone alone
C. Fasting blood glucose and lipid profile
D. Fasting blood glucose, lipid profile, and thyroid stimulating hormone
E. Fasting blood glucose alone
Explanation: ***Fasting lipid profile alone***
- The description of **papules and plaques around the eyes** strongly suggests **xanthelasma palpebrarum**, which is a cutaneous manifestation of **lipid disorders**.
- A **fasting lipid profile** is the most appropriate initial test to evaluate for **hyperlipidemia**, which is often asymptomatic until complications arise.
- Approximately **50% of patients with xanthelasma** have underlying dyslipidemia, making this the most direct and appropriate initial investigation.
*Thyroid stimulating hormone alone*
- While **hypothyroidism** can be associated with hyperlipidemia, the patient has no other symptoms or signs suggestive of thyroid dysfunction, making TSH alone less appropriate as the primary initial test for the presenting complaint.
- Her **regular periods** and lack of other systemic complaints argue against significant thyroid pathology.
*Fasting blood glucose and lipid profile*
- Although **diabetes mellitus** (evaluated by fasting blood glucose) can be associated with dyslipidemia, there are no specific symptoms in this patient suggesting diabetes, such as **polyuria**, polydipsia, or unexplained weight changes.
- Adding a **fasting blood glucose** test is not the most direct or necessary initial step for the evaluation of **xanthelasma**.
*Fasting blood glucose, lipid profile, and thyroid stimulating hormone*
- This option involves performing a wide array of tests without clear indications for all of them based on the presenting symptoms.
- While these conditions can be related to metabolic health, the most direct and specific investigation for **xanthelasma** is the **lipid profile**.
*Fasting blood glucose alone*
- There are **no symptoms of diabetes** mentioned in the patient's history, such as frequent urination, increased thirst, or unexplained weight loss, making this test less relevant as the initial investigation for the described skin lesions.
- The **papules and plaques around the eyes** are highly suggestive of a lipid metabolism issue, not primarily a glucose metabolism issue.
Question 888: A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department due to new-onset symptoms of asthma. She reports that the asthmatic attacks started a week ago. The past medical history includes gastroesophageal reflux disease and hepatitis B. On physical examination, the patient has bilateral foot drop as well as numbness and tingling sensation in all extremities. A complete blood count is relevant for eosinophilia of 9.1 × 10^9/L. Which of the markers below could explain all of the patient's current symptoms?
A. ESR
B. p-ANCA (Correct Answer)
C. HLA B-27
D. Anti-Ro/SSA
E. Anti-histone antibodies
Explanation: ***p-ANCA***
- The patient's presentation with new-onset **asthma**, **eosinophilia**, bilateral **foot drop** (suggesting mononeuritis multiplex), and neuropathic symptoms is highly indicative of **Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (EGPA)**, formerly known as Churg-Strauss syndrome.
- Approximately 40-70% of patients with EGPA are **p-ANCA positive**, making it a key diagnostic marker.
*ESR*
- **Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)** is a non-specific marker of inflammation and would likely be elevated in EGPA as well as many other inflammatory conditions.
- An elevated ESR alone does not explain the specific constellation of asthma, eosinophilia, and neuropathy.
*HLA B-27*
- **HLA-B27** is associated with spondyloarthropathies (e.g., ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis) and acute anterior uveitis.
- This marker is not related to the patient's symptoms of new-onset asthma, eosinophilia, and polyneuropathy.
*Anti-Ro/SSA*
- **Anti-Ro/SSA antibodies** are typically associated with Sjögren's syndrome and systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
- These conditions do not commonly present with new-onset asthma, peripheral neuropathy (foot drop), and significant eosinophilia.
*Anti-histone antibodies*
- **Anti-histone antibodies** are primarily associated with drug-induced lupus erythematosus.
- The clinical picture presented (asthma, eosinophilia, neuropathy) is not characteristic of drug-induced lupus.
Question 889: A 37-year-old woman presents to clinic for routine checkup. She has no complaints with the exception of occasional "shortness of breath." Her physical examination is unremarkable with the exception of a "snap"-like sound after S2, followed by a rumbling murmur. You notice that this murmur is heard best at the cardiac apex. A history of which of the following are you most likely to elicit upon further questioning of this patient?
A. Repeated episodes of streptococcal pharyngitis as a child (Correct Answer)
B. Hyperflexibility, vision problems, and pneumothorax
C. Systolic click auscultated on physical exam 10 years prior
D. Family history of aortic valve replacement at a young age
E. Cutaneous flushing, diarrhea, and bronchospasm
Explanation: **Repeated episodes of streptococcal pharyngitis as a child**
- The described auscultation findings of a snap after S2 followed by a rumbling murmur loudest at the apex are classic for **mitral stenosis**.
- The most common cause of acquired mitral stenosis is **rheumatic heart disease**, which develops after repeated episodes of **streptococcal pharyngitis**.
*Hyperflexibility, vision problems, and pneumothorax*
- These symptoms are characteristic of **Marfan syndrome**, which is associated with **mitral valve prolapse** or aortic root dilation and dissection, not mitral stenosis.
- Marfan syndrome can cause mitral regurgitation, which presents as a holosystolic murmur, not a late diastolic rumbling murmur.
*Systolic click auscultated on physical exam 10 years prior*
- A systolic click is characteristic of **mitral valve prolapse**, which in its severe form can lead to mitral regurgitation, not mitral stenosis.
- While mitral valve prolapse can sometimes progress, it typically does not evolve into the specific auscultatory findings of mitral stenosis.
*Family history of aortic valve replacement at a young age*
- A family history of early aortic valve replacement suggests a congenital **bicuspid aortic valve** or other inherited aortic valve disease.
- This would manifest as an aortic murmur (e.g., aortic stenosis or regurgitation) and not the apical, diastolic murmur seen with mitral stenosis.
*Cutaneous flushing, diarrhea, and bronchospasm*
- These symptoms are classic for **carcinoid syndrome**, which can cause **tricuspid regurgitation** or **pulmonary stenosis** affecting the right side of the heart.
- Carcinoid heart disease typically does not involve the mitral valve in its primary presentation.
Question 890: Twelve hours after undergoing a femoral artery embolectomy, an 84-year-old man is found unconscious on the floor by his hospital bed. He had received a patient-controlled analgesia pump after surgery. He underwent 2 coronary bypass surgeries, 2 and 6 years ago. He has coronary artery disease, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, gastroesophageal reflux, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. His current medications include metoprolol, atorvastatin, lisinopril, sublingual nitrate, and insulin. He appears pale. His temperature is 36.1°C (97°F), pulse is 120/min, respirations are 24/min, and blood pressure 88/60 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 85%. The patient does not respond to commands and withdraws his extremities to pain. The pupils are constricted bilaterally. Examination shows cold, clammy skin and jugular venous distention. There is ecchymosis on the right temple and maxilla. There is a surgical incision over the right thigh that shows no erythema or discharge. Crackles are heard at both lung bases. A new grade 2/6 systolic murmur is heard at the apex. He is intubated and mechanically ventilated. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Positive procalcitonin and interleukin-6 levels
B. Transudate within the pericardial layers
C. Improved mental status after naloxone administration
D. Pulsatile abdominal mass at the level of the umbilicus
E. A new left bundle branch block on an ECG (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***A new left bundle branch block on an ECG***
- The patient exhibits classic signs of **acute myocardial infarction (AMI)**, including **hypotension**, **tachycardia**, **pulmonary edema** (crackles), new **systolic murmur** (mitral regurgitation due to papillary muscle dysfunction), and **unconsciousness** following a stressful event like surgery. A new left bundle branch block (LBBB) on ECG in this context is highly indicative of an ongoing AMI due to **ischemia**.
- The patient has extensive cardiac risk factors (CAD, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, diabetes, prior bypass surgeries) and recently underwent vascular surgery, increasing the risk of thrombotic events due to surgical stress and inflammatory response.
*Positive procalcitonin and interleukin-6 levels*
- **Procalcitonin** and **interleukin-6** are markers for **bacterial sepsis**. While the patient is unwell, there are no overt signs of infection like fever (temperature is low), and the clinical picture is more suggestive of cardiovascular collapse.
- Though sepsis can cause hypotension and organ dysfunction, the presence of **jugular venous distention** and crackles points more towards **cardiogenic shock** with heart failure.
*Transudate within the pericardial layers*
- A **pericardial effusion** with transudate is consistent with **heart failure**, which this patient is experiencing. However, the acute presentation with circulatory collapse, new murmur, and neurological changes points more strongly to an acute ischemic event causing the heart failure.
- While possible, it's a less specific finding than an ECG change like LBBB in the context of acute cardiac events and the patient's history.
*Improved mental status after naloxone administration*
- The patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump suggests the use of opioids, and **constricted pupils** and **unconsciousness** are signs of opioid overdose. However, the severe **hypotension**, **tachycardia**, **jugular venous distention**, **pulmonary crackles**, and **new systolic murmur** are not typical for isolated opioid overdose, which usually causes bradycardia and respiratory depression, but not usually heart failure signs.
- While opioid toxicity should be considered and naloxone might be given empirically, it's unlikely to fully explain the entire clinical presentation, especially the signs of profound cardiogenic shock.
*Pulsatile abdominal mass at the level of the umbilicus*
- A **pulsatile abdominal mass** could indicate an **abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)** rupture. This would cause hypotension and shock, but typically presents with acute, severe abdominal or back pain, and a palpable mass, which is not described.
- Ecchymosis on the temple and maxilla suggests a fall or head trauma, potentially secondary to a syncopal event from the underlying cardiovascular collapse, rather than a primary AAA rupture.