A 32-year-old man presents to the physician for a check-up as part of his immigration application. On auscultation, there is a mild rumble heard at the cardiac apex preceded by an opening snap. His blood pressure is 132/76 and heart rate is 78/min. The patient suffers from occasional asthma attacks but has noticed that he becomes short of breath on exertion over the past 2 years. He is otherwise healthy. He does not recall if he had any serious infections during childhood, and there is no family history of congenital diseases. Which of the following could have been used to prevent the development of this condition?
Q862
A 29-year-old nulliparous woman is found upon transthoracic echocardiography to have a dilated aorta and mitral valve prolapse. The patient has a history of joint pain, and physical examination reveals pectus excavatum and stretch marks on the skin. She does not take any medications and has no history of past drug use. The patient’s findings are most likely associated with which of the following underlying diagnoses?
Q863
A 40-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of episodic headaches for 5 months. The headaches involve both temples and are 4/10 in intensity. The patient has been taking acetaminophen, but the headaches did not subside. He has also had visual disturbances, including double vision. He has no nausea, temperature intolerance, or weight changes. The patient does not smoke. He drinks 2–3 beers on weekends. He appears pale. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 75/min, and blood pressure 125/80 mm Hg. Ophthalmologic examination shows impaired peripheral vision bilaterally. An MRI scan of the head with contrast shows a 16 × 11 × 9 mm intrasellar mass. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q864
A 24-year-old woman comes to the physician because of progressively worsening joint pain. She has had diffuse, aching pain in her knees, shoulders, and hands bilaterally for the past few months, but the pain has become much more severe in the past few weeks. She also reports night sweats and generalized malaise. On physical examination, radial and pedal pulses are weak. There are erythematous nodules over the legs that measure 3–5 cm. Laboratory studies show:
Hematocrit 33.2%
Hemoglobin 10.7 g/dL
Leukocyte count 11,300/mm3
Platelet count 615,000/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 94 mm/h
Serum
C-reactive protein 40 mg/dL (N=0.08–3.1)
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q865
A 55-year-old man presents to the physician with a cough which he has had for the last 5 years. He also mentions that he has been feeling breathless when playing any active sport for the last 1 year. He is a manager in a corporate company and has been a regular smoker for 10 years. He has visited multiple physicians and undergone multiple diagnostic evaluations, without permanent benefit. On physical examination his temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), the heart rate is 88/min, the blood pressure is 122/80 mm Hg, and the respiratory rate is 20/min. Inspection suggests a barrel chest and auscultation reveals the presence of bilateral end-expiratory wheezing and scattered rhonchi. He undergoes a detailed diagnostic evaluation which includes a complete blood count, chest radiogram, arterial blood gas analysis, and pulmonary function tests, all of which confirm a diagnosis of chronic obstructive lung disease. After analyzing all the clinical information and diagnostic workup, the physician differentiates between emphysema and chronic bronchitis based on a single clue. Which of the following is the most likely clue that helped the physician in making the differential diagnosis?
Q866
A 60-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of nausea, headache, and generalized fatigue for 2 days. He has not vomited. He was diagnosed with small cell lung cancer and liver metastases around 3 months ago and is currently receiving chemotherapy with cisplatin and etoposide. His last chemotherapy cycle ended one week ago. He has chronic obstructive lung disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Current medications include insulin and a salmeterol-fluticasone inhaler. He appears malnourished. He is oriented to time, place, and person. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 87/min, respirations are 13/min, and blood pressure is 132/82 mm Hg. There is no edema. Examination shows decreased breath sounds over the left lung. Cardiac examination shows an S4. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Neurological examination shows no focal findings. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 11.6 g/dL
Leukocyte count 4,300/mm3
Platelet count 146,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 125 mEq/L
Cl− 105 mEq/L
K+ 4.5 mEq/L
HCO3− 24 mEq/L
Glucose 225 mg/dL
Total bilirubin 1.1 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 80 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT) 78 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT) 90 U/L
Further evaluation of this patient is likely to show which of the following sets of laboratory findings?
(Serum osmolality / Urine osmolality / Urinary sodium excretion)
Q867
A 71-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of worsening cough and a 4.5-kg (10-lb) weight loss. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years. Physical examination shows wheezing over the right lung fields. Laboratory studies show a serum calcium concentration of 12.5 mg/dL. X-rays of the chest are shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q868
A 19-year-old Caucasian college student is home for the summer. Her parents note that she has lost quite a bit of weight. The daughter explains that the weight loss was unintentional. She also notes an increase in thirst, hunger, and urine output. Her parents decide to take her to their family physician, who suspects finding which of the following?
Q869
A 14-year-old boy is brought to the physician for generalized fatigue and mild shortness of breath on exertion for 3 months. He has a history of recurrent patellar dislocations. He is at the 99th percentile for height and at the 30th percentile for weight. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 99/min, and blood pressure is 140/50 mm Hg. Examination shows scoliosis, a protruding breast bone, thin extremities, and flat feet. Ocular examination shows upwards displacement of bilateral lenses. A grade 3/6 early diastolic murmur is heard along the left sternal border. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following?
Q870
A 52-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-week history of pain in her right knee. The pain is worse at the end of the day and when she walks. She says that it has become difficult for her to walk up the flight of stairs to reach her apartment. She has hypertension and psoriasis. Her sister has rheumatoid arthritis. She drinks 2–3 beers daily. Current medications include hydrochlorothiazide, topical betamethasone, and a multivitamin. She is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 92 kg (202 lb); BMI is 36 kg/m2. She appears anxious. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 87/min, and blood pressure is 135/83 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examinations shows no abnormalities. There are several scaly plaques over the patient's upper and lower extremities. The right knee is not tender nor erythematous; range of motion is limited. Crepitus is heard on flexion and extension of the knee. Her hemoglobin concentration is 12.6 g/dL, leukocyte count is 9,000/mm3, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 16 mm/h. An x-ray of the right knee is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 861: A 32-year-old man presents to the physician for a check-up as part of his immigration application. On auscultation, there is a mild rumble heard at the cardiac apex preceded by an opening snap. His blood pressure is 132/76 and heart rate is 78/min. The patient suffers from occasional asthma attacks but has noticed that he becomes short of breath on exertion over the past 2 years. He is otherwise healthy. He does not recall if he had any serious infections during childhood, and there is no family history of congenital diseases. Which of the following could have been used to prevent the development of this condition?
A. Aspirin
B. Sulfasalazine
C. Indomethacin
D. Alprostadil
E. Penicillin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Penicillin***
- The patient's symptoms (mild rumble at the cardiac apex, opening snap, dyspnea on exertion) are classic for **mitral stenosis**, most commonly caused by **rheumatic heart disease**.
- **Penicillin** is used for the primary prevention of **streptococcal pharyngitis** (strep throat), which can lead to acute rheumatic fever and subsequent rheumatic heart disease if left untreated.
*Aspirin*
- **Aspirin** is an anti-inflammatory and anti-platelet agent, used to manage symptoms of acute rheumatic fever (arthralgia, fever) and prevent thrombus formation in conditions like atrial fibrillation complicating mitral stenosis, but it does not prevent the initial development of the valvular damage.
- It would be used as a treatment *after* the initial infection and subsequent inflammation have occurred, not for primary prevention.
*Sulfasalazine*
- **Sulfasalazine** is an anti-inflammatory drug primarily used in the treatment of inflammatory bowel disease (Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis) and rheumatoid arthritis.
- It has no role in preventing bacterial infections like streptococcal pharyngitis or the development of rheumatic heart disease.
*Indomethacin*
- **Indomethacin** is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) often used to treat conditions like gout, ankylosing spondylitis, and to close a patent ductus arteriosus in neonates.
- It does not prevent bacterial infections or the development of rheumatic heart disease.
*Alprostadil*
- **Alprostadil** is a prostaglandin E1 analog used to maintain the patency of the ductus arteriosus in neonates with certain congenital heart defects prior to corrective surgery.
- It has no relevance to the prevention of rheumatic heart disease.
Question 862: A 29-year-old nulliparous woman is found upon transthoracic echocardiography to have a dilated aorta and mitral valve prolapse. The patient has a history of joint pain, and physical examination reveals pectus excavatum and stretch marks on the skin. She does not take any medications and has no history of past drug use. The patient’s findings are most likely associated with which of the following underlying diagnoses?
A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
B. DiGeorge syndrome
C. Marfan syndrome (Correct Answer)
D. Friedrich’s ataxia
E. Turner syndrome
Explanation: ***Marfan syndrome***
- This patient's presentation with **dilated aorta**, **mitral valve prolapse**, **joint pain**, **pectus excavatum**, and **stretch marks** is highly characteristic of **Marfan syndrome**, an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder affecting **fibrillin-1**.
- **Fibrillin-1 deficiency** leads to defective elastic fibers, which explains the cardiovascular, musculoskeletal, and ocular manifestations.
*Ehlers-Danlos syndrome*
- While Ehlers-Danlos syndrome also affects connective tissue and can involve **joint hypermobility** and **skin stretch marks**, it is less typically associated with significant **aortic dilation** as the primary cardiovascular feature compared to Marfan syndrome.
- The classic cardiovascular manifestation of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, particularly type IV, is arterial rupture, not primarily aortic dilation or mitral valve prolapse (though these can occur).
*DiGeorge syndrome*
- DiGeorge syndrome is characterized by **congenital heart defects** (e.g., truncus arteriosus, tetralogy of Fallot), **hypocalcemia** due to parathyroid aplasia, and **T-cell immunodeficiency** due to thymic hypoplasia.
- It does not typically present with the specific combination of aortic dilation, mitral valve prolapse, pectus excavatum, or joint pains seen in this patient.
*Friedrich's ataxia*
- Friedrich's ataxia is a **neurodegenerative disorder** characterized by progressive **gait ataxia**, dysarthria, and **cardiomyopathy** (typically hypertrophic).
- It does not cause aortic dilation, mitral valve prolapse, pectus excavatum, or joint pain as its primary features.
*Turner syndrome*
- Turner syndrome (XO) primarily affects females and is characterized by **short stature**, **primary amenorrhea**, **webbed neck**, and specific cardiovascular defects like **bicuspid aortic valve** and **aortic coarctation**.
- It is not typically associated with a dilated aorta, mitral valve prolapse, pectus excavatum, or joint pain in this combination.
Question 863: A 40-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of episodic headaches for 5 months. The headaches involve both temples and are 4/10 in intensity. The patient has been taking acetaminophen, but the headaches did not subside. He has also had visual disturbances, including double vision. He has no nausea, temperature intolerance, or weight changes. The patient does not smoke. He drinks 2–3 beers on weekends. He appears pale. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 75/min, and blood pressure 125/80 mm Hg. Ophthalmologic examination shows impaired peripheral vision bilaterally. An MRI scan of the head with contrast shows a 16 × 11 × 9 mm intrasellar mass. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Erectile dysfunction
B. Abdominal striae
C. Diffuse goiter
D. Galactorrhea (Correct Answer)
E. Coarse facial features
Explanation: ***Galactorrhea***
- The presence of an **intrasellar mass** causing **bitemporal headaches** and **impaired peripheral vision** (bitemporal hemianopsia) is highly suggestive of a **pituitary adenoma**, specifically a **prolactinoma** given the patient's age and general presentation.
- **Galactorrhea** is a common symptom of a prolactinoma due to **hyperprolactinemia**, as elevated prolactin levels can stimulate breast milk production even in men.
*Erectile dysfunction*
- While **erectile dysfunction** can be associated with pituitary tumors, it is often due to hypogonadism secondary to compression of gonadotrophs or inhibition by high prolactin levels; however, **galactorrhea** is a more direct and specific manifestation of hyperprolactinemia.
- Other causes of erectile dysfunction are more common and would need to be ruled out before attributing it solely to the pituitary mass.
*Abdominal striae*
- **Abdominal striae**, particularly purple striae, are characteristic of **Cushing's disease**, which is caused by an ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma.
- This patient's symptoms (headaches, visual disturbances) are more consistent with mass effect and hyperprolactinemia rather than excess cortisol.
*Diffuse goiter*
- A **diffuse goiter** indicates thyroid enlargement, typically associated with **thyroid disorders** such as Graves' disease or iodine deficiency.
- While pituitary tumors can rarely affect thyroid function by compressing thyrotrophs, galactorrhea is a more direct and common manifestation of increased prolactin.
*Coarse facial features*
- **Coarse facial features** are a hallmark of **acromegaly**, caused by a growth hormone-secreting pituitary adenoma.
- The patient's presentation does not include other signs of acromegaly such as enlarged hands, feet, or prognathism.
Question 864: A 24-year-old woman comes to the physician because of progressively worsening joint pain. She has had diffuse, aching pain in her knees, shoulders, and hands bilaterally for the past few months, but the pain has become much more severe in the past few weeks. She also reports night sweats and generalized malaise. On physical examination, radial and pedal pulses are weak. There are erythematous nodules over the legs that measure 3–5 cm. Laboratory studies show:
Hematocrit 33.2%
Hemoglobin 10.7 g/dL
Leukocyte count 11,300/mm3
Platelet count 615,000/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 94 mm/h
Serum
C-reactive protein 40 mg/dL (N=0.08–3.1)
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Temporal arteritis
B. Polyarteritis nodosa
C. Takayasu arteritis (Correct Answer)
D. Microscopic polyangiitis
E. Thromboangiitis obliterans
Explanation: ***Takayasu arteritis***
- The patient's age (24-year-old woman), **diffuse joint pain**, night sweats, malaise, elevated inflammatory markers (ESR, CRP), and particularly the **weak radial and pedal pulses** suggest **large-vessel vasculitis**.
- **Erythematous nodules** could represent a cutaneous manifestation of systemic inflammation or a secondary condition like **erythema nodosum**, which can be associated with inflammatory disorders.
*Temporal arteritis*
- This typically affects **older adults** (over 50 years old) and presents with symptoms like **headache**, **jaw claudication**, and **visual disturbances**.
- While it is a large-vessel vasculitis with elevated inflammatory markers, the patient's young age and the specific systemic symptoms do not align with temporal arteritis.
*Polyarteritis nodosa*
- This is a **medium-vessel vasculitis** that often presents with **neurological symptoms**, abdominal pain, renal involvement, and sometimes **cutaneous nodules**.
- However, **weak pulses** are not a characteristic feature of polyarteritis nodosa, as it does not primarily affect the large elastic arteries.
*Microscopic polyangiitis*
- This is a **small-vessel vasculitis** characterized by **glomerulonephritis**, pulmonary capillaritis, and often ANCA positivity.
- It does not typically involve large artery occlusions causing weak pulses, and the joint pain is usually less prominent compared to the systemic vasculitic symptoms.
*Thromboangiitis obliterans*
- This is a **segmental inflammatory non-atherosclerotic occlusive disease** of small- and medium-sized arteries and veins, almost exclusively affecting **smokers**.
- It presents with **ischemia** of the digits and extremities, but not the widespread systemic symptoms, diffuse joint pain, or large artery involvement leading to weak central pulses seen in this patient.
Question 865: A 55-year-old man presents to the physician with a cough which he has had for the last 5 years. He also mentions that he has been feeling breathless when playing any active sport for the last 1 year. He is a manager in a corporate company and has been a regular smoker for 10 years. He has visited multiple physicians and undergone multiple diagnostic evaluations, without permanent benefit. On physical examination his temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), the heart rate is 88/min, the blood pressure is 122/80 mm Hg, and the respiratory rate is 20/min. Inspection suggests a barrel chest and auscultation reveals the presence of bilateral end-expiratory wheezing and scattered rhonchi. He undergoes a detailed diagnostic evaluation which includes a complete blood count, chest radiogram, arterial blood gas analysis, and pulmonary function tests, all of which confirm a diagnosis of chronic obstructive lung disease. After analyzing all the clinical information and diagnostic workup, the physician differentiates between emphysema and chronic bronchitis based on a single clue. Which of the following is the most likely clue that helped the physician in making the differential diagnosis?
A. Decreased diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide (DLCO) (Correct Answer)
B. Increased hematocrit in hematologic evaluation
C. History of long-term exposure to cigarette smoke
D. Presence of chronic respiratory acidosis in arterial blood gas analysis
E. Flattened diaphragm on chest X-ray
Explanation: ***Decreased diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide (DLCO)***
- A **decreased DLCO** is characteristic of **emphysema** due to the destruction of alveolar-capillary membranes, which impairs gas exchange.
- In contrast, **chronic bronchitis** primarily affects the airways and typically presents with a **normal or only slightly reduced DLCO**.
*Increased hematocrit in hematologic evaluation*
- **Increased hematocrit** (polycythemia) can occur in both emphysema and chronic bronchitis as a compensatory response to chronic hypoxemia, making it less specific for differentiation.
- This finding reflects the body's attempt to increase oxygen-carrying capacity due to insufficient oxygen supply.
*History of long-term exposure to cigarette smoke*
- A **history of smoking** is a major risk factor for both **emphysema** and **chronic bronchitis**, so it does not help differentiate between the two conditions.
- The patient's 10-year smoking history contributes to his overall COPD diagnosis but isn't specific to one subtype.
*Presence of chronic respiratory acidosis in arterial blood gas analysis*
- **Chronic respiratory acidosis** (elevated PaCO2 and compensated pH) often suggests significant hypoventilation, which is more typical in **chronic bronchitis** ("blue bloaters").
- While it can occur in severe emphysema, it is not the primary distinguishing factor and is more characteristic of the "bronchitic" phenotype.
*Flattened diaphragm on chest X-ray*
- A **flattened diaphragm** is an X-ray sign of **hyperinflation**, which is commonly seen in both moderate to severe emphysema and chronic bronchitis.
- This finding indicates air trapping but does not specifically differentiate between the predominant pathological changes of emphysema versus chronic bronchitis.
Question 866: A 60-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of nausea, headache, and generalized fatigue for 2 days. He has not vomited. He was diagnosed with small cell lung cancer and liver metastases around 3 months ago and is currently receiving chemotherapy with cisplatin and etoposide. His last chemotherapy cycle ended one week ago. He has chronic obstructive lung disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Current medications include insulin and a salmeterol-fluticasone inhaler. He appears malnourished. He is oriented to time, place, and person. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 87/min, respirations are 13/min, and blood pressure is 132/82 mm Hg. There is no edema. Examination shows decreased breath sounds over the left lung. Cardiac examination shows an S4. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Neurological examination shows no focal findings. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 11.6 g/dL
Leukocyte count 4,300/mm3
Platelet count 146,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 125 mEq/L
Cl− 105 mEq/L
K+ 4.5 mEq/L
HCO3− 24 mEq/L
Glucose 225 mg/dL
Total bilirubin 1.1 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 80 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT) 78 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT) 90 U/L
Further evaluation of this patient is likely to show which of the following sets of laboratory findings?
(Serum osmolality / Urine osmolality / Urinary sodium excretion)
Explanation: **B) Serum osmolality 269 mOsm/kg H2O, Urine osmolality 269 mOsm/kg H2O, Urinary sodium excretion 82 mEq/L**
- The patient's **hyponatremia** (Na+ 125 mEq/L) in the context of small cell lung cancer (SCLC) and chemotherapy with cisplatin raises suspicion for **SIADH**. In SIADH, the kidneys continue to excrete sodium appropriately or even excessively, leading to relatively high urine sodium excretion and a less diluted urine than expected for the degree of hyponatremia. The serum osmolality is low, and the urine is inappropriately concentrated, often near-isotonic to plasma or even hypertonic.
- With a serum sodium of 125 mEq/L, the calculated serum osmolality (2*Na + Glucose/18 + BUN/2.8) would be approximately 2*(125) + 225/18 + (BUN not provided, assume normal) ≈ 250 + 12.5 ≈ 262.5 mOsm/kg H2O. Since SIADH is characterized by the inability to excrete free water, urine osmolality tends to be relatively high (often >100 mOsm/kg H2O) and sometimes approaches serum osmolality, especially in severe cases, making "269 mOsm/kg H2O" plausible for both. Urinary sodium excretion is typically >30 mEq/L in SIADH.
*A) Serum osmolality 220 mOsm/kg H2O, Urine osmolality 130 mOsm/kg H2O, Urinary sodium excretion 10 mEq/L*
- A serum osmolality of 220 mOsm/kg H2O would be indicative of more profound hyponatremia than observed (Na+ 125 mEq/L), which would typically correspond to a serum sodium much lower than 125 mEq/L.
- A urinary sodium excretion of 10 mEq/L is characteristic of conditions leading to **hypovolemic hyponatremia** (e.g., GI losses, diuretics where the body is attempting to conserve sodium), whereas SIADH is typically euvolemic with higher urinary sodium excretion.
*C) Serum osmolality 255 mOsm/kg H2O, Urine osmolality 45 mOsm/kg H2O, Urinary sodium excretion 12 mEq/L*
- While a serum osmolality of 255 mOsm/kg H2O is consistent with hyponatremia, a urine osmolality of 45 mOsm/kg H2O represents maximally dilute urine and would suggest **primary polydipsia** or advanced renal failure, not SIADH.
- A urinary sodium excretion of 12 mEq/L is too low for SIADH, which features inappropriate sodium excretion despite hyponatremia.
*D) Serum osmolality 222 mOsm/kg H2O, Urine osmolality 490 mOsm/kg H2O, Urinary sodium excretion 10 mEq/L*
- A serum osmolality of 222 mOsm/kg H2O is too low for the given serum sodium of 125 mEq/L.
- The combination of extremely low serum osmolality with a very concentrated urine (490 mOsm/kg H2O) and low urine sodium (10 mEq/L) would be highly unusual and not consistent with SIADH or other common causes of hyponatremia.
*E) Serum osmolality 310 mOsm/kg H2O, Urine osmolality 420 mOsm/kg H2O, Urinary sodium excretion 16 mEq/L*
- A serum osmolality of 310 mOsm/kg H2O is **hyperosmolar**, which contradicts the patient's hyponatremia (Na+ 125 mEq/L) and low calculated serum osmolality.
- This option suggests a state of **dehydration** or hypernatremia, which is not supported by the clinical picture or laboratory findings.
Question 867: A 71-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of worsening cough and a 4.5-kg (10-lb) weight loss. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years. Physical examination shows wheezing over the right lung fields. Laboratory studies show a serum calcium concentration of 12.5 mg/dL. X-rays of the chest are shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Squamous cell lung carcinoma (Correct Answer)
B. Small cell lung carcinoma
C. Lobar pneumonia
D. Tuberculosis
E. Sarcoidosis
Explanation: ***Squamous cell lung carcinoma***
- This patient's **hypercalcemia** (serum calcium 12.5 mg/dL) combined with **smoking history**, weight loss, cough, and wheezing is highly suggestive of squamous cell lung carcinoma.
- Squamous cell carcinoma commonly secretes **parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP)**, leading to **paraneoplastic hypercalcemia**.
*Small cell lung carcinoma*
- While strongly associated with smoking, small cell carcinoma is more commonly linked with **syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)** or **Cushing's syndrome** rather than hypercalcemia.
- It tends to present as a **central mass** with early metastasis and is treated differently with chemotherapy, unlike squamous cell which is often amenable to surgery.
*Lobar pneumonia*
- Although it can cause cough and wheezing, pneumonia typically presents with **acute onset symptoms**, fever, and purulent sputum, and is not associated with chronic weight loss or hypercalcemia.
- Chest X-rays in pneumonia would show **lobar consolidation**, not usually a discrete mass presenting with chronic symptoms.
*Tuberculosis*
- Tuberculosis can cause cough, weight loss, and chronic symptoms, but it is typically associated with **immune compromise** or exposure, and hypercalcemia is not a characteristic feature.
- Chest X-rays in TB often show **granulomas**, cavitary lesions, or Ghon complexes, which are different from a lung mass causing wheezing.
*Sarcoidosis*
- Sarcoidosis can cause hypercalcemia and lung involvement, but it is more commonly associated with non-caseating granulomas, **bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy**, and erythema nodosum.
- The patient's heavy smoking history and focal wheezing are less typical presentations for sarcoidosis.
Question 868: A 19-year-old Caucasian college student is home for the summer. Her parents note that she has lost quite a bit of weight. The daughter explains that the weight loss was unintentional. She also notes an increase in thirst, hunger, and urine output. Her parents decide to take her to their family physician, who suspects finding which of the following?
A. Elevated ketone levels (Correct Answer)
B. High T4 and T3 levels
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hyperinsulinemia
E. Evidence of amyloid deposition in pancreatic islets
Explanation: ***Elevated ketone levels***
- The patient's symptoms of **unintentional weight loss**, polyphagia (increased hunger), polydipsia (increased thirst), and polyuria (increased urine output) are classic signs of **Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus** (T1DM).
- In T1DM, the body cannot use glucose for energy due to insulin deficiency, leading to increased **fat metabolism** and the production of **ketones**, which serve as an alternative energy source.
*High T4 and T3 levels*
- Elevated levels of **thyroid hormones (T4 and T3)** are indicative of **hyperthyroidism**.
- While hyperthyroidism can cause **weight loss**, it is typically associated with symptoms like **heat intolerance**, **tachycardia**, and **tremors**, which are not mentioned in this patient's presentation.
*Hypoglycemia*
- **Hypoglycemia** refers to dangerously low blood glucose levels and typically presents with symptoms such as **confusion**, **sweating**, **tremors**, and **palpitations**.
- The patient's symptoms of significant weight loss, increased thirst, and increased hunger are characteristic of **hyperglycemia** (high blood glucose), not hypoglycemia.
*Hyperinsulinemia*
- **Hyperinsulinemia** refers to elevated insulin levels in the blood, often seen in the early stages of **Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus** as the body tries to compensate for insulin resistance, or in conditions like an **insulinoma**.
- In Type 1 Diabetes, there is an **absolute deficiency of insulin**, meaning insulin levels would be low, not high.
*Evidence of amyloid deposition in pancreatic islets*
- **Amyloid deposition** in pancreatic islets primarily occurs in **Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus**, where it contributes to beta-cell dysfunction.
- In **Type 1 Diabetes**, the pathophysiology involves autoimmune destruction of beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency, rather than amyloid deposition.
Question 869: A 14-year-old boy is brought to the physician for generalized fatigue and mild shortness of breath on exertion for 3 months. He has a history of recurrent patellar dislocations. He is at the 99th percentile for height and at the 30th percentile for weight. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 99/min, and blood pressure is 140/50 mm Hg. Examination shows scoliosis, a protruding breast bone, thin extremities, and flat feet. Ocular examination shows upwards displacement of bilateral lenses. A grade 3/6 early diastolic murmur is heard along the left sternal border. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Radio-femoral pulse delay
B. Paradoxical splitting of S2
C. Pulsus paradoxus
D. Water hammer pulse (Correct Answer)
E. Fixed splitting of S2
Explanation: ***Water hammer pulse***
- The patient's presentation with **tall stature**, **scoliosis**, **pectus carinatum** (protruding breast bone), **thin extremities**, **flat feet**, **recurrent patellar dislocations**, **ectopia lentis** (upwards lens displacement), and a **diastolic murmur** (suggesting aortic regurgitation) is highly consistent with **Marfan syndrome**.
- **Aortic regurgitation (AR)**, a common cardiovascular complication of Marfan syndrome, causes a **water hammer pulse** (also known as a Corrigan's pulse) due to a rapid rise and fall in arterial pressure.
*Radio-femoral pulse delay*
- This finding is characteristic of **coarctation of the aorta**, a condition that typically presents with hypertension in the upper extremities and decreased pulses in the lower extremities.
- While Marfan syndrome can have various cardiovascular manifestations, **coarctation of the aorta** is not a typical feature, and the described murmur is more indicative of **aortic regurgitation**.
*Paradoxical splitting of S2*
- This occurs when the **aortic valve closes after the pulmonary valve**, typically due to conditions like **left bundle branch block**, **aortic stenosis**, or **patent ductus arteriosus**.
- This patient's symptoms and signs are more aligned with **Marfan syndrome** and its common cardiovascular complication, **aortic regurgitation**, rather than conditions causing paradoxical S2 splitting.
*Pulsus paradoxus*
- This refers to an **abnormally large decrease in systolic blood pressure during inspiration**, commonly seen in conditions like **cardiac tamponade**, **severe asthma**, or **constrictive pericarditis**.
- It is not a characteristic finding in **Marfan syndrome** or its associated **aortic regurgitation**.
*Fixed splitting of S2*
- This is a hallmark sign of an **atrial septal defect (ASD)**, where the S2 sound is widely split and does not vary with respiration.
- While Marfan syndrome can affect the heart, **ASD** is not a primary or common cardiovascular manifestation associated with the constellation of skeletal and ocular findings presented.
Question 870: A 52-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-week history of pain in her right knee. The pain is worse at the end of the day and when she walks. She says that it has become difficult for her to walk up the flight of stairs to reach her apartment. She has hypertension and psoriasis. Her sister has rheumatoid arthritis. She drinks 2–3 beers daily. Current medications include hydrochlorothiazide, topical betamethasone, and a multivitamin. She is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in) tall and weighs 92 kg (202 lb); BMI is 36 kg/m2. She appears anxious. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 87/min, and blood pressure is 135/83 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examinations shows no abnormalities. There are several scaly plaques over the patient's upper and lower extremities. The right knee is not tender nor erythematous; range of motion is limited. Crepitus is heard on flexion and extension of the knee. Her hemoglobin concentration is 12.6 g/dL, leukocyte count is 9,000/mm3, and erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 16 mm/h. An x-ray of the right knee is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Methotrexate therapy
B. Total joint replacement
C. Colchicine therapy
D. Weight loss program (Correct Answer)
E. Intraarticular glucocorticoid injections
Explanation: **Weight loss program**
* The patient's presentation with **knee pain worse at the end of the day**, limited range of motion, and **crepitus** on flexion and extension, along with X-ray findings of **joint space narrowing**, osteophytes, and subchondral sclerosis, are classic for **osteoarthritis**. Her **obesity (BMI 36 kg/m2)** is a major contributing factor to the pain and progression of osteoarthritis.
* **Weight loss** is a **first-line, non-pharmacological treatment** for osteoarthritis, especially in obese patients, as it significantly reduces load on weight-bearing joints, alleviating pain and slowing disease progression.
*Methotrexate therapy*
* **Methotrexate** is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) used primarily for **inflammatory arthritides** like rheumatoid arthritis or psoriatic arthritis, not osteoarthritis.
* Although the patient has psoriasis, her knee symptoms are characteristic of osteoarthritis, not psoriatic arthritis (which would typically involve enthesitis, dactylitis, or an inflammatory pattern of pain).
*Total joint replacement*
* **Total joint replacement** is a surgical option reserved for **severe osteoarthritis** when conservative treatments have failed and the patient's quality of life is significantly impaired.
* In this case, initial non-surgical interventions, such as weight loss and potentially pharmacotherapy, should be pursued first, given that this is a 3-week history of pain with signs of moderate disease severity.
*Colchicine therapy*
* **Colchicine** is primarily used for the treatment and prevention of **gouty arthritis** and pseudogout.
* The patient's symptoms are inconsistent with an acute gout flare (no erythema, tenderness, or history of hyperuricemia), and the X-ray findings are typical of osteoarthritis, not gout.
*Intraarticular glucocorticoid injections*
* **Intraarticular glucocorticoid injections** can provide **temporary pain relief** in osteoarthritis, especially during flares, but they do not address the underlying mechanical stress.
* While they may be considered later if conservative measures like weight loss and oral analgesics are insufficient, **weight loss** is a more fundamental and long-term solution for an obese patient with osteoarthritis.