A 72-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of intermittent retrosternal chest pain and tightness on exertion. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus, osteoarthritis of the right hip, and hypertension. Current medications include insulin, ibuprofen, enalapril, and hydrochlorothiazide. Vital signs are within normal limits. His troponin level is within the reference range. An ECG at rest shows a right bundle branch block and infrequent premature ventricular contractions. The patient's symptoms are reproduced during adenosine stress testing. Repeat ECG during stress testing shows new ST depression of > 1 mm in leads V2, V3, and V4. Which of the following is the most important underlying mechanism of this patient's ECG changes?
Q832
A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a sharp pain in the center of his chest. The pain is knife-like and constant. Sitting alleviates the pain and lying supine aggravates it. He denies the use of nicotine, alcohol or illicit drugs. Vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 135/92 mm Hg, and pulse 97/min. On examination, a friction rub is heard at the left sternal border while the patient is leaning forward. His ECG is shown in the image. Which of the following can prevent recurrence of this patient’s condition?
Q833
A 47-year-old woman with a long history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes and recurrent urinary tract infections presents with complaints of fever, chills, and severe flank pain. On physical exam, she has left-sided costovertebral tenderness. Vitals include a temperature of 39.4°C (103.0°F), blood pressure of 125/84 mm Hg, and pulse of 84/min. She is currently taking metformin daily. Urine dipstick analysis is positive for leukocytes, nitrites, and blood. Laboratory studies show an elevated creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL (baseline 1.0 mg/dL). Urinalysis reveals fragments of tissue. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q834
A 17-year-old girl comes to the physician because of a sore throat, fevers, and fatigue for the past 3 weeks. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100°F), pulse is 97/min, and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Examination of the head and neck shows cervical lymphadenopathy, pharyngeal erythema, enlarged tonsils with exudates, and palatal petechiae. The spleen is palpated 2 cm below the left costal margin. Her leukocyte count is 14,100/mm3 with 54% lymphocytes (12% atypical lymphocytes). Results of a heterophile agglutination test are positive. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following conditions?
Q835
A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with pain and swelling of his right leg for the past 2 days. Three days ago he collapsed on his leg after tripping on a rug. It was a hard fall and left him with bruising of his leg. Since then the pain and swelling of his leg have been gradually increasing. Past medical history is noncontributory. He lives a rather sedentary life and smokes two packs of cigarettes per day. The vital signs include heart rate 98/min, respiratory rate 15/min, temperature 37.8°C (100.1°F), and blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg. On physical examination, his right leg is visibly swollen up to the mid-calf with pitting edema and moderate erythema. Peripheral pulses in the right leg are weak and the leg is tender. Manipulation of the right leg is negative for Homan’s sign. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
Q836
A 78-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of difficulty speaking. The symptoms began abruptly one hour ago while he was having breakfast with his wife. He has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and coronary artery disease. Current medications include pravastatin, lisinopril, metformin, and aspirin. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 76/min, and blood pressure is 165/90 mm Hg. He is right-handed. The patient speaks in short, simple sentences, and has difficulty repeating sequences of words. He can follow simple instructions. Right facial droop is present. Muscle strength is 4/5 on the right side and 5/5 on the left, and there is a mild right-sided pronator drift. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?
Q837
A 44-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of fatigue, muscle weakness, cramps, and increased urination over the past several weeks. His past medical history is significant only for hypertension, for which he was started on hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) 4 weeks ago. Vital signs at today's visit are as follows: T 37.2, HR 88, BP 129/80, RR 14, and SpO2 99%. Physical examination does not reveal any abnormal findings. Serologic studies are significant for a serum potassium level of 2.1 mEq/L (normal range 3.5-5.0 mEq/L). Lab-work from his last visit showed a basic metabolic panel and complete blood count results to all be within normal limits. Which of the following underlying diseases most likely contributed to the development of this patient's presenting condition?
Q838
A 48-year-old male accountant presents to the family practice clinic for his first health check-up in years. He has no complaints, and as far as he is concerned, he is well. He does not have any known medical conditions. His blood pressure is 140/89 mm Hg and his heart rate is 89/min. Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. What is the single best initial management for this patient?
Q839
A 73-year-old male presents to the ED with several days of fevers, cough productive of mucopurulent sputum, and pleuritic chest pain. He has not been to a doctor in 30 years because he “has never been sick”. His vital signs are: T 101F, HR 98, BP 100/55, RR 31. On physical exam he is confused and has decreased breath sounds and crackles on the lower left lobe. Gram positive diplococci are seen in the sputum. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for his pneumonia?
Q840
A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department for shortness of breath. He was at home working on his car when he suddenly felt very short of breath, which failed to improve with rest. He states he was working with various chemicals and inhalants while trying to replace a broken piece in the engine. The patient was brought in by paramedics and is currently on 100% O2 via nasal cannula. The patient has a 52 pack-year smoking history and drinks 2 to 3 alcoholic drinks every night. He has a past medical history of asthma but admits to not having seen a physician since high school. His temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 157/108 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 29/min, and oxygen saturation is 77%. Physical exam demonstrates tachycardia with a systolic murmur heard best along the right upper sternal border. Breath sounds are diminished over the right upper lobe. Bilateral lower extremity pitting edema is noted. Which of the following best describes the most likely diagnosis?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 831: A 72-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of intermittent retrosternal chest pain and tightness on exertion. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus, osteoarthritis of the right hip, and hypertension. Current medications include insulin, ibuprofen, enalapril, and hydrochlorothiazide. Vital signs are within normal limits. His troponin level is within the reference range. An ECG at rest shows a right bundle branch block and infrequent premature ventricular contractions. The patient's symptoms are reproduced during adenosine stress testing. Repeat ECG during stress testing shows new ST depression of > 1 mm in leads V2, V3, and V4. Which of the following is the most important underlying mechanism of this patient's ECG changes?
A. Diversion of blood flow from stenotic coronary arteries (Correct Answer)
B. Transient atrioventricular nodal blockade
C. Reduced left ventricular preload
D. Ruptured cholesterol plaque within a coronary vessel
E. Increased myocardial oxygen demand
Explanation: ***Diversion of blood flow from stenotic coronary arteries***
- The **adenosine stress test** induces **submaximal coronary vasodilation** in healthy vessels, diverting blood flow away from stenosed areas that are already maximally dilated, a phenomenon known as **coronary steal**.
- This **relative hypoperfusion** in areas supplied by stenotic arteries leads to myocardial ischemia, manifested as **new ST depression** on the ECG due to **subendocardial oxygen supply-demand mismatch**.
*Transient atrioventricular nodal blockade*
- While adenosine can cause transient AV nodal blockade, leading to AV blocks, this would manifest as specific changes in **PR interval** or **QRS drop-out**, not ST segment depression indicative of ischemia.
- The patient's symptoms and ECG changes point towards myocardial ischemia, not an AV conduction disturbance.
*Reduced left ventricular preload*
- Reduced preload can occur in certain cardiac conditions but is not the primary mechanism behind ST depression during an adenosine stress test.
- ECG changes due to reduced preload are usually nonspecific, such as **sinus tachycardia** or **low voltage**, and do not typically cause new ST depression in specific leads.
*Ruptured cholesterol plaque within a coronary vessel*
- A ruptured plaque with subsequent **thrombus formation** would lead to **acute coronary syndrome (ACS)**, characterized by persistent chest pain, **elevated troponins**, and potentially **ST elevation** or new **pathologic Q waves** if complete occlusion occurs.
- The patient's troponin level is normal, and his symptoms are intermittent and reproducible on stress testing, which is more consistent with **stable angina**.
*Increased myocardial oxygen demand*
- While increased myocardial oxygen demand is a component of angina pectoris, adenosine primarily causes **coronary vasodilation**, which can worsen ischemia in stenotic areas by diverting blood flow, rather than directly increasing myocardial oxygen demand itself.
- **Dobutamine stress testing** would be the test that primarily increases myocardial oxygen demand.
Question 832: A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a sharp pain in the center of his chest. The pain is knife-like and constant. Sitting alleviates the pain and lying supine aggravates it. He denies the use of nicotine, alcohol or illicit drugs. Vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 135/92 mm Hg, and pulse 97/min. On examination, a friction rub is heard at the left sternal border while the patient is leaning forward. His ECG is shown in the image. Which of the following can prevent recurrence of this patient’s condition?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Aspirin
C. Colchicine (Correct Answer)
D. Glucocorticoids
E. Systemic antibiotics
Explanation: ***Colchicine***
- Colchicine is an **anti-inflammatory agent** that is highly effective in preventing recurrences of pericarditis, especially when used in conjunction with NSAIDs.
- It is recommended for initial treatment and for several months to reduce the risk of future episodes in cases of acute and recurrent pericarditis.
*Ibuprofen*
- Ibuprofen, a **NSAID**, is a first-line treatment for acute pericarditis to manage pain and inflammation.
- While effective for acute symptom relief, it is not primarily used for long-term prevention of recurrent pericarditis without an additional agent like colchicine.
*Aspirin*
- Aspirin, like other **NSAIDs**, is used to treat the acute inflammation and pain of pericarditis, particularly in patients with acute myocardial infarction.
- It does not offer superior anti-recurrent properties compared to other NSAIDs or colchicine for pericarditis.
*Glucocorticoids*
- Glucocorticoids are generally **reserved for refractory cases** of pericarditis or when NSAIDs and colchicine are contraindicated due to potential side effects and an increased risk of recurrence.
- Their use as a primary agent can actually **increase the risk of recurrence** once tapered, making them a less desirable option for prevention.
*Systemic antibiotics*
- Pericarditis is most commonly **viral or idiopathic**; therefore, systemic antibiotics are not indicated unless there is clear evidence of a bacterial infection.
- The presented symptoms and ECG findings are not suggestive of bacterial pericarditis, which is rare.
Question 833: A 47-year-old woman with a long history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes and recurrent urinary tract infections presents with complaints of fever, chills, and severe flank pain. On physical exam, she has left-sided costovertebral tenderness. Vitals include a temperature of 39.4°C (103.0°F), blood pressure of 125/84 mm Hg, and pulse of 84/min. She is currently taking metformin daily. Urine dipstick analysis is positive for leukocytes, nitrites, and blood. Laboratory studies show an elevated creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL (baseline 1.0 mg/dL). Urinalysis reveals fragments of tissue. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute cystitis
B. Acute glomerulonephritis
C. Acute tubular necrosis
D. Acute interstitial nephritis
E. Acute papillary necrosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Acute papillary necrosis***
- This patient's presentation with **fever, severe flank pain, costovertebral tenderness**, **elevated creatinine indicating acute kidney injury**, and **tissue fragments in urine** is classic for **acute papillary necrosis**.
- Her **poorly controlled type 2 diabetes** and **recurrent UTIs** are major risk factors. Chronic hyperglycemia causes **renal medullary ischemia**, and recurrent infections further compromise blood supply to the renal papillae.
- The **tissue fragments** represent sloughed papillae, a pathognomonic finding. The combination of **hematuria, acute kidney injury, and systemic symptoms** in a diabetic with recurrent infections strongly points to this diagnosis.
- Other risk factors include analgesic abuse, sickle cell disease, and urinary tract obstruction.
*Acute cystitis*
- **Acute cystitis** presents with **dysuria, frequency, and urgency** but typically **without fever, systemic symptoms, or costovertebral tenderness**.
- It does not cause **acute kidney injury** or **tissue fragments in urine**.
- The severe presentation with AKI and CVA tenderness indicates upper urinary tract pathology.
*Acute glomerulonephritis*
- **Acute glomerulonephritis** presents with **hematuria, proteinuria, hypertension, and edema**, often following streptococcal infection.
- It does not typically cause **fever, severe flank pain, or CVA tenderness**.
- The presence of **nitrites** and **tissue fragments** points to bacterial infection with tissue necrosis, not glomerular inflammation.
*Acute tubular necrosis*
- **Acute tubular necrosis (ATN)** causes acute kidney injury but typically follows **ischemic insult** (hypotension, surgery) or **nephrotoxic exposure** (aminoglycosides, contrast).
- ATN does not present with **fever, chills, severe flank pain, or tissue fragments in urine**.
- Urinalysis in ATN shows muddy brown casts, not tissue fragments with nitrites.
*Acute interstitial nephritis*
- **Acute interstitial nephritis (AIN)** is typically a **drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction** presenting with **fever, rash, eosinophilia**, and AKI.
- The classic triad is fever, rash, and eosinophilia, often occurring days to weeks after drug exposure.
- **Nitrites** (indicating bacterial infection) and **tissue fragments** are not consistent with AIN, which shows sterile pyuria and white blood cell casts.
Question 834: A 17-year-old girl comes to the physician because of a sore throat, fevers, and fatigue for the past 3 weeks. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100°F), pulse is 97/min, and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Examination of the head and neck shows cervical lymphadenopathy, pharyngeal erythema, enlarged tonsils with exudates, and palatal petechiae. The spleen is palpated 2 cm below the left costal margin. Her leukocyte count is 14,100/mm3 with 54% lymphocytes (12% atypical lymphocytes). Results of a heterophile agglutination test are positive. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following conditions?
A. Mycotic aneurysm
B. Hodgkin lymphoma (Correct Answer)
C. Kaposi sarcoma
D. Hepatocellular carcinoma
E. Rheumatic fever
Explanation: ***Correct: Hodgkin lymphoma***
- **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)**, the causative agent of infectious mononucleosis, is strongly associated with the development of **Hodgkin lymphoma**
- Up to **30-50% of Hodgkin lymphoma cases** are linked to prior EBV infection, particularly the **mixed cellularity** and **lymphocyte-depleted** subtypes
- EBV-positive Reed-Sternberg cells are found in these lymphoma subtypes
*Incorrect: Mycotic aneurysm*
- A mycotic aneurysm is an **infected aneurysm** typically caused by bacterial endocarditis or other systemic infections leading to arterial wall weakening
- There is no direct association between infectious mononucleosis and the development of mycotic aneurysms
*Incorrect: Kaposi sarcoma*
- **Kaposi sarcoma** is caused by **Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)**, not EBV
- Most commonly seen in immunocompromised individuals, such as those with HIV/AIDS
- Not directly associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection
*Incorrect: Hepatocellular carcinoma*
- **Hepatocellular carcinoma** is primarily associated with chronic liver diseases, such as chronic **hepatitis B** or **hepatitis C** infection, **alcoholic liver disease**, and **nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH)**
- EBV is associated with **nasopharyngeal carcinoma** and **Burkitt lymphoma**, not hepatocellular carcinoma
*Incorrect: Rheumatic fever*
- **Rheumatic fever** is a delayed, non-suppurative complication of untreated **Group A Streptococcus (GAS)** pharyngitis
- The patient's symptoms are consistent with **infectious mononucleosis** (positive heterophile agglutination test, atypical lymphocytes, persistent fatigue, splenomegaly), not GAS pharyngitis
- Monospot test distinguishes EBV from bacterial pharyngitis
Question 835: A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with pain and swelling of his right leg for the past 2 days. Three days ago he collapsed on his leg after tripping on a rug. It was a hard fall and left him with bruising of his leg. Since then the pain and swelling of his leg have been gradually increasing. Past medical history is noncontributory. He lives a rather sedentary life and smokes two packs of cigarettes per day. The vital signs include heart rate 98/min, respiratory rate 15/min, temperature 37.8°C (100.1°F), and blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg. On physical examination, his right leg is visibly swollen up to the mid-calf with pitting edema and moderate erythema. Peripheral pulses in the right leg are weak and the leg is tender. Manipulation of the right leg is negative for Homan’s sign. What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
A. Send the patient to surgery for an emergency fasciotomy
B. Start intravenous heparin therapy immediately
C. Make a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis based on history and physical
D. Perform a venous ultrasound (Correct Answer)
E. Perform intravenous venography within 24 hours
Explanation: ***Perform a venous ultrasound***
- The patient's presentation with acute unilateral leg swelling, pain, erythema, and weak peripheral pulses following trauma, along with **risk factors for venous thromboembolism (sedentary lifestyle, smoking)**, strongly suggests the possibility of a **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)**.
- **Venous ultrasound** is the **most appropriate and preferred initial diagnostic test** for suspected DVT due to its **non-invasiveness, accessibility, and high sensitivity and specificity**.
*Send the patient to surgery for an emergency fasciotomy*
- **Fasciotomy** is indicated for **acute compartment syndrome**, which typically presents with severe pain out of proportion to injury, pain on passive stretch, paresthesia, and tense compartments.
- While the patient has swelling and tenderness, the weak pulses are concerning, but the overall picture does not definitively point to compartment syndrome needing immediate fasciotomy without further diagnostic workup.
*Start intravenous heparin therapy immediately*
- Though DVT is suspected, **heparin therapy should not be initiated empirically without definitive diagnostic confirmation** due to the risk of bleeding complications.
- A **venous ultrasound is crucial to confirm the diagnosis** before starting anticoagulation.
*Make a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis based on history and physical*
- While the clinical picture is highly suggestive of DVT, **clinical diagnosis alone is not sufficiently accurate** to initiate potentially risky treatments like anticoagulation.
- **Objective diagnostic testing (like ultrasound)** is essential to confirm the presence of a DVT.
*Perform intravenous venography within 24 hours*
- **Intravenous venography** is considered the **gold standard** for diagnosing DVT, but it is an **invasive procedure** with risks (e.g., contrast nephropathy, allergic reactions, radiation exposure).
- It is **rarely used as a first-line diagnostic test** and is usually reserved for cases where ultrasound results are inconclusive or discordant with clinical suspicion.
Question 836: A 78-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of difficulty speaking. The symptoms began abruptly one hour ago while he was having breakfast with his wife. He has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and coronary artery disease. Current medications include pravastatin, lisinopril, metformin, and aspirin. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 76/min, and blood pressure is 165/90 mm Hg. He is right-handed. The patient speaks in short, simple sentences, and has difficulty repeating sequences of words. He can follow simple instructions. Right facial droop is present. Muscle strength is 4/5 on the right side and 5/5 on the left, and there is a mild right-sided pronator drift. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?
A. Occlusion of the right penetrating arteries
B. Rupture of left posterior cerebral artery malformation
C. Occlusion of the right middle cerebral artery
D. Occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery (Correct Answer)
E. Occlusion of the right posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Explanation: ***Occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery***
- The patient exhibits **acute onset aphasia** (difficulty speaking, repeating word sequences, short sentences), right-sided **facial droop**, and **right-sided weakness** (pronator drift, 4/5 strength). This clinical presentation, affecting the dominant hemisphere (left in a right-handed person), points directly to **ischemia** in the territory supplied by the **left middle cerebral artery (MCA)**.
- The patient's history of **hypertension, diabetes, and coronary artery disease** are significant risk factors for **atherosclerotic stroke**, making occlusion a highly likely etiology.
*Occlusion of the right penetrating arteries*
- Occlusion of penetrating arteries (causing a **lacunar stroke**) typically presents with **pure motor hemiparesis**, **pure sensory stroke**, or **ataxic hemiparesis**, without significant cortical signs like aphasia.
- This patient's symptoms include prominent aphasia, which is a **cortical sign** and not characteristic of a lacunar stroke.
*Rupture of left posterior cerebral artery malformation*
- A rupture of a posterior cerebral artery (PCA) malformation would likely result in a **hemorrhagic stroke**, typically presenting with **sudden severe headache**, altered consciousness, and symptoms related to the PCA territory, such as **contralateral homonymous hemianopsia** and potentially **memory deficits** or **alexia without agraphia**.
- This patient's symptoms (aphasia, focal weakness) and lack of headache are not typical for a PCA hemorrhage.
*Occlusion of the right middle cerebral artery*
- Occlusion of the **right middle cerebral artery** would cause symptoms affecting the **left side of the body**, such as **left hemiparesis, left facial droop**, and potentially **neglect** if the parietal lobe is involved.
- The patient's symptoms are localized to the **right side of the body** and involve aphasia, indicating damage to the **left (dominant) hemisphere**.
*Occlusion of the right posterior inferior cerebellar artery*
- Occlusion of the **posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)** causes **Lateral Medullary Syndrome (Wallenberg syndrome)**, characterized by **ipsilateral ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia, dysarthria, Horner's syndrome, and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation**.
- The patient's symptoms of aphasia, facial droop, and hemiparesis are not consistent with PICA territory ischemia.
Question 837: A 44-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with complaints of fatigue, muscle weakness, cramps, and increased urination over the past several weeks. His past medical history is significant only for hypertension, for which he was started on hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) 4 weeks ago. Vital signs at today's visit are as follows: T 37.2, HR 88, BP 129/80, RR 14, and SpO2 99%. Physical examination does not reveal any abnormal findings. Serologic studies are significant for a serum potassium level of 2.1 mEq/L (normal range 3.5-5.0 mEq/L). Lab-work from his last visit showed a basic metabolic panel and complete blood count results to all be within normal limits. Which of the following underlying diseases most likely contributed to the development of this patient's presenting condition?
A. Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)
B. Adrenal insufficiency
C. Cushing's disease
D. Hyperaldosteronism (Correct Answer)
E. Pituitary adenoma
Explanation: ***Correct: Hyperaldosteronism***
- This patient presents with **hypokalemia** (2.1 mEq/L), fatigue, muscle weakness, cramps, and increased urination, a constellation of symptoms highly suggestive of **primary hyperaldosteronism**.
- While **hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)** can induce hypokalemia, the severity in this case (2.1 mEq/L) strongly suggests an underlying pathology compounded by the diuretic, given that his previous labs were normal. Hyperaldosteronism directly causes **potassium wasting** in the kidneys, and the diuretic exacerbates this effect.
- The normal blood pressure control on HCTZ and the development of severe hypokalemia points to an underlying aldosterone excess being unmasked by the thiazide diuretic.
*Incorrect: Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)*
- SIADH is characterized by **euvolemic hyponatremia** due to excessive ADH secretion, leading to water retention and dilution of sodium.
- It does not typically cause hypokalemia; instead, potassium levels are often normal or slightly reduced due to dilutional effects rather than direct renal wasting.
*Incorrect: Adrenal insufficiency*
- Adrenal insufficiency, such as Addison's disease, typically presents with **hyponatremia**, **hyperkalemia**, fatigue, and hypotension, which is contrary to this patient's presentation of hypokalemia and normal blood pressure.
- It involves a deficiency in mineralocorticoids (like aldosterone) and glucocorticoids, leading to impaired sodium and water retention and reduced potassium excretion.
*Incorrect: Cushing's disease*
- Cushing's disease is characterized by excessive cortisol production, leading to symptoms like **central obesity**, **moon facies**, **buffalo hump**, and **hypertension**. While some patients may develop hypokalemia due to mineralocorticoid effects of very high cortisol, it's not the primary feature and other classic signs are absent in this case.
- The presenting symptoms of severe hypokalemia, muscle weakness, and cramps without other typical Cushingoid features make this diagnosis less likely.
*Incorrect: Pituitary adenoma*
- Pituitary adenomas can cause various endocrine disorders depending on the hormones secreted (e.g., prolactinoma, acromegaly, or ACTH-secreting adenoma causing Cushing's disease).
- A non-functioning pituitary adenoma does not directly cause hypokalemia or the specific constellation of symptoms seen here, and the patient lacks features of specific hormone-secreting adenomas.
Question 838: A 48-year-old male accountant presents to the family practice clinic for his first health check-up in years. He has no complaints, and as far as he is concerned, he is well. He does not have any known medical conditions. His blood pressure is 140/89 mm Hg and his heart rate is 89/min. Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. What is the single best initial management for this patient?
A. Treat the patient with beta-blockers.
B. Try angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.
C. Start trial of calcium channel blockers.
D. Return to the clinic for a repeat blood pressure reading and counseling on the importance of aerobic exercise. (Correct Answer)
E. The patient does not require any treatment.
Explanation: ***Return to the clinic for a repeat blood pressure reading and counseling on the importance of aerobic exercise.***
- The patient's blood pressure of **140/89 mm Hg** is considered **Stage 1 hypertension**. It is crucial to confirm sustained hypertension with **repeat measurements** over several weeks to avoid misdiagnosis and unnecessary medication.
- Initial management for Stage 1 hypertension without other compelling indications typically involves **lifestyle modifications**, such as regular aerobic exercise, dietary changes, and weight management, before initiating pharmacotherapy.
*Treat the patient with beta-blockers.*
- **Beta-blockers** are generally not first-line agents for isolated hypertension unless there are specific indications such as **concomitant heart failure**, **post-myocardial infarction**, or **migraines**.
- Without confirmed sustained hypertension and prior lifestyle interventions, initiating beta-blockers would be **premature**.
*Try angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor.*
- **ACE inhibitors** are effective first-line agents for hypertension, but only after proper diagnosis confirmation and a trial of **lifestyle modifications**.
- Rushing to medication without confirming sustained hypertension and exploring non-pharmacological approaches is **not the recommended initial step**.
*Start trial of calcium channel blockers.*
- **Calcium channel blockers** are also effective antihypertensive agents, especially in older adults or those with **isolated systolic hypertension**.
- However, similar to other pharmaceutical interventions, they should be considered **after confirming sustained hypertension** and attempting lifestyle changes.
*The patient does not require any treatment.*
- A blood pressure reading of **140/89 mm Hg** is elevated and indicates **Stage 1 hypertension**, which requires management.
- While immediate medication might not be necessary, **monitoring and lifestyle interventions** are crucial to prevent progression to more severe hypertension and cardiovascular complications.
Question 839: A 73-year-old male presents to the ED with several days of fevers, cough productive of mucopurulent sputum, and pleuritic chest pain. He has not been to a doctor in 30 years because he “has never been sick”. His vital signs are: T 101F, HR 98, BP 100/55, RR 31. On physical exam he is confused and has decreased breath sounds and crackles on the lower left lobe. Gram positive diplococci are seen in the sputum. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for his pneumonia?
A. Azithromycin and outpatient follow-up
B. Levofloxacin and outpatient follow-up
C. Linezolid and inpatient admission
D. IV Penicillin G and inpatient admission (Correct Answer)
E. Oral Penicillin V and outpatient follow-up
Explanation: ***IV Penicillin G and inpatient admission***
- The patient exhibits features of **severe pneumonia** based on **CURB-65 criteria** (confusion, respiratory rate >30, diastolic BP ≤60, age >65), necessitating **inpatient admission**.
- The presence of **Gram-positive diplococci** in sputum, along with the clinical presentation, strongly suggests **Streptococcus pneumoniae**, for which **Penicillin G** is an appropriate first-line treatment.
*Azithromycin and outpatient follow-up*
- This patient's **CURB-65 score** is high (at least 4: Confusion, RR >30, diastolic BP ≤60, Age >65), indicating a high mortality risk and requiring **inpatient management**, not outpatient follow-up.
- While azithromycin is effective against atypical pathogens and can treat *S. pneumoniae*, the patient's severe presentation and sputum Gram stain indicating typical bacterial pneumonia require more aggressive initial therapy and hospitalization.
*Levofloxacin and outpatient follow-up*
- The patient's **clinical instability** (hypotension, tachypnea, confusion) and elevated CURB-65 score contraindicate **outpatient management**.
- Although levofloxacin is a broad-spectrum fluoroquinolone that provides excellent coverage for *S. pneumoniae*, the severity of the patient's condition demands inpatient care and intravenous antibiotics.
*Linezolid and inpatient admission*
- **Linezolid** is typically reserved for **resistant Gram-positive infections** such as **MRSA pneumonia** or vancomycin-resistant enterococci (VRE), which are not indicated by the initial Gram stain showing typical Gram-positive diplococci consistent with *S. pneumoniae*.
- While inpatient admission is appropriate, empiric use of linezolid for typical community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) due to *S. pneumoniae* is **unnecessarily broad-spectrum** and could contribute to antibiotic resistance.
*Oral Penicillin V and outpatient follow-up*
- This patient's **CURB-65 score** indicating severe pneumonia requires **inpatient hospitalization** and **intravenous antibiotics**, not outpatient management.
- **Oral Penicillin V** is generally used for milder outpatient infections or as step-down therapy after initial IV treatment, and it would be insufficient for this severely ill patient.
Question 840: A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department for shortness of breath. He was at home working on his car when he suddenly felt very short of breath, which failed to improve with rest. He states he was working with various chemicals and inhalants while trying to replace a broken piece in the engine. The patient was brought in by paramedics and is currently on 100% O2 via nasal cannula. The patient has a 52 pack-year smoking history and drinks 2 to 3 alcoholic drinks every night. He has a past medical history of asthma but admits to not having seen a physician since high school. His temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 157/108 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 29/min, and oxygen saturation is 77%. Physical exam demonstrates tachycardia with a systolic murmur heard best along the right upper sternal border. Breath sounds are diminished over the right upper lobe. Bilateral lower extremity pitting edema is noted. Which of the following best describes the most likely diagnosis?
A. Fe3+ hemoglobin in circulating red blood cells
B. Severe bronchoconstriction
C. Pulmonary edema secondary to decreased cardiac output
D. Ischemia of the myocardium
E. Rupture of an emphysematous bleb (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Rupture of an emphysematous bleb***
- The patient's significant **smoking history** (52 pack-years), acute onset of shortness of breath while straining (working on car), diminished breath sounds over the right upper lobe, and very low oxygen saturation of 77% strongly suggest a **spontaneous pneumothorax** likely due to a ruptured emphysematous bleb.
- The history of asthma, while a confounder, does not explain the sudden, severe onset and unilateral diminished breath sounds in the context of extensive smoking.
*Fe3+ hemoglobin in circulating red blood cells*
- This describes **methemoglobinemia**, which can cause dyspnea and hypoxemia. However, it's typically associated with exposure to specific oxidizing agents (e.g., nitrates, certain local anesthetics), which are not explicitly mentioned as the chemicals the patient was using.
- While it causes **cyanosis** and low oxygen saturation, the unilateral diminished breath sounds and acute onset with strain point away from this being the primary diagnosis.
*Severe bronchoconstriction*
- While the patient has a history of asthma, the **sudden, severe onset of shortness of breath**, very low oxygen saturation, and unilateral diminished breath sounds are not typical for an acute asthma exacerbation alone.
- Asthma exacerbations usually involve **bilateral wheezing** and diffuse airway narrowing, not localized diminished breath sounds.
*Pulmonary edema secondary to decreased cardiac output*
- Pulmonary edema would typically present with **bilateral crackles** on examination and is commonly associated with left ventricular dysfunction or acute myocardial infarction, which is not clearly indicated.
- The unilateral diminished breath sounds are inconsistent with a diffuse process like pulmonary edema.
*Ischemia of the myocardium*
- While the patient's age, smoking history, and hypertension put him at risk for cardiac events, the sudden onset of dyspnea, **unilateral diminished breath sounds**, and severe hypoxemia are more indicative of a pulmonary mechanical issue than acute myocardial ischemia.
- Although angina can present as dyspnea, the physical exam findings of diminished breath sounds point to a primary lung pathology.