A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of difficulty in breathing for the past 2 days. He has had recurrent episodes of bacterial pneumonia in the right lower lobe during the last 6 months. His last episode of pneumonia started 7 days ago for which he is being treated with antibiotics. He has a 35-pack-year smoking history. Past medical history is significant for hypertension for which he takes lisinopril. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion in the right lung base. Chest X-ray reveals a large right-sided pleural effusion, and chest CT scan shows a large mass near the hilum of the right lung. Cytologic examination of pleural fluid shows evidence of malignancy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?
Q822
An 82-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of vision loss in his left eye. He states that it suddenly appeared as if a curtain was coming down over his left eye. It resolved after five minutes, and his vision has returned to normal. He has a history of coronary artery disease and type 2 diabetes. What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
Q823
A 30-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a 3-month history of painful hair loss. She was in her usual state of health until about 3 months ago when she started to develop some painfully itchy spots across her scalp. Since that time these spots have lost hair and scarred, with new spots continuing to form. On further questioning, she shares that, for the last couple of years, she has generally felt poorly, specifically noting intermittent fevers, muscle and joint pains, and fatigue. On physical exam, she has several erythematous and scaly plaques across her scalp. These areas have no hair growth, but some do demonstrate hyperpigmentation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q824
A 25-year-old woman is being evaluated due to complaint of fatigue and voiding pink urine. The laboratory results are as follows:
Hb 6.7
Red blood cell count 3.0 x 1012/L
Leukocyte count 5,000/mm3
Platelets 170 x 109/L
Reticulocyte count 6%
Hematocrit 32%
The physician thinks that the patient is suffering from an acquired mutation in hematopoietic stem cells, which is confirmed by flow cytometry analysis that revealed these cells are CD 55 and CD 59 negative. However, the physician is interested in knowing the corrected reticulocyte count before starting the patient on eculizumab. What value does the physician find after calculating the corrected reticulocyte count?
Q825
A 70-year-old man with a recent above-the-knee amputation of the left lower extremity, due to wet gangrene secondary to refractory peripheral artery disease, presents with weakness and dizziness. He says that the symptoms began acutely 24 hours after surgery and have not improved. The amputation was complicated by substantial blood loss. He was placed on empiric antibiotic therapy with ciprofloxacin and clindamycin before the procedure, and blood and wound culture results are still pending. The medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Current medications are metformin and lisinopril. The family history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus in both parents. Review of symptoms is significant for palpitations and a mild headache for the past 24 hours. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F); blood pressure, 120/70 mm Hg (supine); pulse, 102/min; respiratory rate, 16/min; and oxygen saturation, 99% on room air. When standing, the blood pressure is 90/65 mm Hg and the pulse is 115/min. On physical examination, the patient appears pale and listless. The surgical amputation site does not show any signs of ongoing blood loss or infection. Laboratory tests and an ECG are pending. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
Q826
A 34-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. He has a 3-month history of a nonproductive cough. He has been treated with diphenhydramine since his last visit 2 weeks ago, but his symptoms have persisted. He does not smoke. He drinks 3 beers on the weekends. He is 177 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 100 kg (220.46 lbs); BMI is 35.1 kg/m2. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 78/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 97%. Physical examination and an x-ray of the chest show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q827
A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of confusion and rapidly progressive dyspnea. He has had a fever and chills for the past five days. Five years ago, he was diagnosed with hepatitis C. He has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 15 years and drinks one to two beers daily. He has a history of past intravenous heroin use. He appears pale, anxious, and in severe distress. His temperature is 39.3°C (102.7°F), respirations are 30/min, pulse is 59/min, and blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 75%. Examination shows multiple linear hemorrhages underneath the nails. There are nontender maculae on both palms and soles. Fine rales are heard bilaterally on auscultation of the chest. Cardiac examination shows an S3; a grade 3/6 high-pitched decrescendo early diastolic murmur is heard along the left sternal border and right second intercostal space. An x-ray of the chest shows a normal sized heart and pulmonary edema. An ECG shows P waves and QRS complexes that occur at regular intervals, but independently of each other. A transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) is most likely to show which of the following?
Q828
A 55-year-old man presents to the physician with tiredness, lethargy, bone pain, and colicky right abdominal pain for 1 month. He has no comorbidities. He does not have any significant past medical history. His height is 176 cm (5 ft 7 in), weight is 88 kg (194 lb), and his BMI is 28.47 kg/m2. The physical examination is normal, except for mild right lumbar region tenderness. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
Serum TSH 2.2 mU/L
Serum calcium 12.3 mg/dL
Serum phosphorus 1.1 mg/dL
Serum sodium 136 mEq/L
Serum potassium 3.5 mEq/L
Serum creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
Urine calcium Elevated
An ultrasound of the abdomen reveals a single stone in the right ureter without hydroureteronephrosis. Clinically, no evidence of malignancy was observed. An X-ray of the long bones reveals diffuse osteopenia with subperiosteal bone resorption. The serum parathyroid hormone level is tested and it is grossly elevated. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?
Q829
A 24-year-old woman, otherwise healthy, presents with a non-productive cough, sore throat, and myalgia. The patient reports that her symptoms started gradually 2 weeks ago and have not improved. She has no significant past medical history and no current medications. She is a college student and denies any recent overseas travel. The patient received the flu vaccine this year, and her 2-part PPD required for school was negative. She does not smoke, drink, or use recreational drugs. The patient denies being sexually active. The vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 110/75 mm Hg, pulse 98/min, respirations 20/min, and oxygen saturation 99% on room air. On physical exam, the patient is alert and cooperative. The cardiac exam is normal. There are rales present bilaterally over both lung fields. The skin and conjunctiva are pale. The laboratory tests are pending. The chest X-ray is shown in the image. Which of the following laboratory findings would also commonly be found in this patient?
Q830
A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency room because of severe breathlessness for the past few hours. Over the course of a few years, he has been treated for asthma by several physicians, but his symptoms have continued to progress. He has never smoked. Both his father who died at the age of 40 years and his uncle (father's brother), died with chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder. His respiratory rate is 19/min and temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F). On physical examination, the patient has significantly longer exhalation than inhalation. His expiratory time is longer than 6 seconds. Clubbing is present. Chest auscultation reveals bilateral crackles. Mild hepatomegaly is present. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 821: A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of difficulty in breathing for the past 2 days. He has had recurrent episodes of bacterial pneumonia in the right lower lobe during the last 6 months. His last episode of pneumonia started 7 days ago for which he is being treated with antibiotics. He has a 35-pack-year smoking history. Past medical history is significant for hypertension for which he takes lisinopril. Physical examination reveals decreased breath sounds and dullness to percussion in the right lung base. Chest X-ray reveals a large right-sided pleural effusion, and chest CT scan shows a large mass near the hilum of the right lung. Cytologic examination of pleural fluid shows evidence of malignancy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?
A. Small cell lung cancer
B. Non-small cell lung cancer (Correct Answer)
C. Metastatic lung disease
D. Pulmonary hamartoma
E. Mesothelioma
Explanation: ***Non-small cell lung cancer***
- The patient's **35-pack-year smoking history**, recurrent **right lower lobe pneumonia**, large **pleural effusion**, and a **hilar mass** with **malignant cells** in the pleural fluid are highly suggestive of **non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC)**.
- NSCLC is the most common type of lung cancer and often presents with features like **post-obstructive pneumonia** due to airway obstruction by the tumor, and **pleural effusions** indicating advanced disease.
*Small cell lung cancer*
- While associated with smoking and can present with hilar masses, **small cell lung cancer (SCLC)** typically has a more aggressive course with earlier onset of paraneoplastic syndromes and widespread metastases at diagnosis.
- The presenting features in this case, particularly the recurrent pneumonia and large pleural effusion, are more commonly seen with NSCLC.
*Metastatic lung disease*
- Metastatic lung disease would imply cancer originating from another primary site, but the presence of a **large hilar mass** points to a lung primary.
- While metastases can cause pleural effusions, the clinical picture strongly favors a **primary lung malignancy** in a heavy smoker.
*Pulmonary hamartoma*
- A **pulmonary hamartoma** is a benign tumor and would not cause a large pleural effusion with malignant cells or recurrent pneumonia due to airway obstruction.
- They are typically asymptomatic and discovered incidentally.
*Mesothelioma*
- **Mesothelioma** is a rare cancer primarily associated with **asbestos exposure**, which is not mentioned in the patient's history.
- It arises from the pleura and often presents with a diffuse pleural thickening rather than a distinct hilar mass.
Question 822: An 82-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of vision loss in his left eye. He states that it suddenly appeared as if a curtain was coming down over his left eye. It resolved after five minutes, and his vision has returned to normal. He has a history of coronary artery disease and type 2 diabetes. What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
A. Cholesterol plaque embolization (Correct Answer)
B. Sclerosis and narrowing of retinal vessels
C. Deposition of retinal metabolism byproducts
D. Increased intraocular pressure due to a defect in the drainage of aqueous humor
E. Inflammation of the optic nerve
Explanation: ***Cholesterol plaque embolization***
- The sudden, transient vision loss described as a "**curtain coming down**" (amaurosis fugax) is highly suggestive of a **transient ischemic attack (TIA)** to the retina, often caused by **atheroemboli** from the carotid arteries.
- The patient's history of **coronary artery disease** and **type 2 diabetes** increases his risk of atherosclerosis and subsequent embolization.
*Sclerosis and narrowing of retinal vessels*
- While **retinal vessel sclerosis** can occur in patients with diabetes and hypertension, it typically leads to **gradual and permanent vision changes**, not sudden, transient episodes.
- **Chronic retinal ischemia**, rather than acute embolic events, is the usual manifestation of severe vascular narrowing.
*Deposition of retinal metabolism byproducts*
- The deposition of metabolic byproducts is characteristic of **macular degeneration**, which causes **progressive, central vision loss** and distortion, not episodic "curtain-like" vision loss.
- This process is typically **slow and chronic**, differing from the acute, resolving symptoms presented.
*Increased intraocular pressure due to a defect in the drainage of aqueous humor*
- **Increased intraocular pressure** (glaucoma) leads to **gradual, peripheral vision loss** and can cause acute pain and blurry vision in angle-closure glaucoma, but not transient, curtain-like vision loss.
- **Amaurosis fugax** is not a typical presentation for glaucoma.
*Inflammation of the optic nerve*
- **Optic neuritis** causes **acute vision loss** often accompanied by **pain with eye movement** and can be associated with demyelinating diseases.
- However, the vision loss in optic neuritis is typically **sustained** rather than transient and resolving within minutes.
Question 823: A 30-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a 3-month history of painful hair loss. She was in her usual state of health until about 3 months ago when she started to develop some painfully itchy spots across her scalp. Since that time these spots have lost hair and scarred, with new spots continuing to form. On further questioning, she shares that, for the last couple of years, she has generally felt poorly, specifically noting intermittent fevers, muscle and joint pains, and fatigue. On physical exam, she has several erythematous and scaly plaques across her scalp. These areas have no hair growth, but some do demonstrate hyperpigmentation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Trichotillomania
B. Secondary syphilis
C. Alopecia areata
D. Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE) (Correct Answer)
E. Tinea capitis
Explanation: **Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE)**
- The patient's presentation with **painful, itchy spots** on the scalp that result in **scarred, hairless plaques** with **hyperpigmentation** is classic for DLE.
- The systemic symptoms of **intermittent fevers, muscle/joint pains, and fatigue** suggest an underlying systemic autoimmune process, often seen in association with DLE, which can be part of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) or occur in isolation.
*Trichotillomania*
- This is a psychiatric disorder characterized by **compulsive hair pulling**, leading to irregular patches of hair loss without inflammation or scarring.
- The presence of **pain, itching, erythema, scaling, and scarring** in this patient is inconsistent with trichotillomania.
*Secondary syphilis*
- While secondary syphilis can cause hair loss (often described as "moth-eaten" alopecia) and systemic symptoms, it typically presents with a **diffuse maculopapular rash** on the trunk and extremities, including palms and soles, which is not described here.
- The distinctive **scarring and hyperpigmentation** of the scalp lesions are also not typical of secondary syphilis.
*Alopecia areata*
- This condition presents with **sudden, non-scarring hair loss** in circular or oval patches, often in asymptomatic areas.
- Unlike the current case, there is no significant inflammation, pain, itching, scaling, or scarring associated with alopecia areata.
*Tinea capitis*
- This fungal infection of the scalp typically causes **scaly, erythematous patches with broken hairs** (black dots) and can be itchy, but it usually does not lead to significant scarring or hyperpigmentation as prominently described.
- While systemic symptoms can sometimes be present in severe cases, the constellation of symptoms including pronounced scarring and systemic complaints points away from a primary fungal infection.
Question 824: A 25-year-old woman is being evaluated due to complaint of fatigue and voiding pink urine. The laboratory results are as follows:
Hb 6.7
Red blood cell count 3.0 x 1012/L
Leukocyte count 5,000/mm3
Platelets 170 x 109/L
Reticulocyte count 6%
Hematocrit 32%
The physician thinks that the patient is suffering from an acquired mutation in hematopoietic stem cells, which is confirmed by flow cytometry analysis that revealed these cells are CD 55 and CD 59 negative. However, the physician is interested in knowing the corrected reticulocyte count before starting the patient on eculizumab. What value does the physician find after calculating the corrected reticulocyte count?
A. 3.1%
B. 0.4%
C. 0.1%
D. 0.6%
E. 4.6% (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***4.6%***
- The corrected reticulocyte count accounts for the degree of anemia by adjusting for the patient's hematocrit compared to normal.
- **Formula: Corrected Retics% = Observed Retics% × (Patient's Hct / Normal Hct)**
- Using normal Hct of 42% for women: 6% × (32/42) = 6% × 0.76 = **4.56% ≈ 4.6%**
- This reflects the actual reticulocyte production capacity adjusted for the anemic state.
*3.1%*
- This value might result from using an incorrect normal hematocrit value in the calculation.
- For example, using 6% × (32/60) would give approximately 3.2%, suggesting use of an inappropriately high reference value.
*0.4%*
- This value likely results from applying the **Reticulocyte Production Index (RPI)** formula, which includes a maturation factor correction: 6% × (32/42) × (1/2.5) = 1.82%, then with further error.
- Such a low value from formula misapplication does not represent the standard corrected reticulocyte count requested.
*0.1%*
- This extremely low value would indicate **severe calculation error** or bone marrow failure, which contradicts the observed 6% reticulocyte count.
- In PNH with hemolysis, reticulocyte production is typically increased, making this value implausible.
*0.6%*
- This incorrect value could result from mathematical errors in applying correction factors or using the wrong hematocrit values in the formula.
- The standard corrected reticulocyte formula would not yield this value with the given parameters.
Question 825: A 70-year-old man with a recent above-the-knee amputation of the left lower extremity, due to wet gangrene secondary to refractory peripheral artery disease, presents with weakness and dizziness. He says that the symptoms began acutely 24 hours after surgery and have not improved. The amputation was complicated by substantial blood loss. He was placed on empiric antibiotic therapy with ciprofloxacin and clindamycin before the procedure, and blood and wound culture results are still pending. The medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Current medications are metformin and lisinopril. The family history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus in both parents. Review of symptoms is significant for palpitations and a mild headache for the past 24 hours. His temperature is 38.2°C (100.8°F); blood pressure, 120/70 mm Hg (supine); pulse, 102/min; respiratory rate, 16/min; and oxygen saturation, 99% on room air. When standing, the blood pressure is 90/65 mm Hg and the pulse is 115/min. On physical examination, the patient appears pale and listless. The surgical amputation site does not show any signs of ongoing blood loss or infection. Laboratory tests and an ECG are pending. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
A. Administer IV fluids
B. Administer oral fludrocortisone
C. Administer IV norepinephrine
D. Administer oral midodrine
E. Administer IV fluids and withhold lisinopril (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Administer IV fluids and withhold lisinopril***
- The patient's **postural orthostatic hypotension** (blood pressure drop upon standing) and symptoms (weakness, dizziness, palpitations, pallor) following significant blood loss during surgery strongly suggest **hypovolemia**, which should be managed immediately with IV fluids.
- **Lisinopril**, an ACE inhibitor, can exacerbate hypotension by blocking angiotensin II-mediated vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion, so withholding it is crucial in this hypotensive patient.
*Administer IV fluids*
- While administration of IV fluids is a correct component of management for hypovolemia, it is incomplete without addressing potential medication-induced hypotension in this patient.
- Simply administering IV fluids without withholding **lisinopril** may lead to suboptimal correction of the patient's hypotension.
*Administer oral fludrocortisone*
- **Fludrocortisone** is a mineralocorticoid used primarily for chronic orthostatic hypotension, such as in autonomic dysfunction, and would not be appropriate for acute, likely hypovolemia-induced hypotension in a postoperative setting.
- Its effects are not immediate, and it does not address the acute fluid deficit or the potential exacerbating effect of **lisinopril**.
*Administer IV norepinephrine*
- **Norepinephrine** is a potent vasopressor used in distributive or cardiogenic shock, which is not indicated as the initial management for suspected hypovolemia.
- Administering vasopressors in an unresuscitated hypovolemic patient can be dangerous, as it can worsen tissue perfusion by increasing systemic vascular resistance without adequate intravascular volume.
*Administer oral midodrine*
- **Midodrine** is an alpha-1 adrenergic agonist used for chronic orthostatic hypotension to increase peripheral vascular tone, similar to fludrocortisone.
- It works slowly and is not indicated for the acute management of hypovolemic shock or postoperative hypotension.
Question 826: A 34-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. He has a 3-month history of a nonproductive cough. He has been treated with diphenhydramine since his last visit 2 weeks ago, but his symptoms have persisted. He does not smoke. He drinks 3 beers on the weekends. He is 177 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 100 kg (220.46 lbs); BMI is 35.1 kg/m2. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 78/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 97%. Physical examination and an x-ray of the chest show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Azithromycin therapy
B. Pulmonary function testing
C. CT scan of the chest
D. Omeprazole therapy (Correct Answer)
E. Oral corticosteroid therapy
Explanation: ***Omeprazole therapy***
- The patient's **obesity** (BMI 35.1), **nonproductive cough** lasting 3 months, and persistent symptoms despite antihistamines strongly suggest **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)** as the cause.
- **Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)** like omeprazole are the first-line treatment for GERD.
*Azithromycin therapy*
- Azithromycin is an **antibiotic** used to treat bacterial infections. There is no evidence of infection (e.g., fever, abnormal chest X-ray, purulent sputum) in this patient.
- Empiric antibiotic use for a nonproductive cough without signs of infection is generally inappropriate and can contribute to **antibiotic resistance**.
*Pulmonary function testing*
- Pulmonary function testing (PFTs) would be appropriate if there were concerns for **asthma**, **COPD**, or other intrinsic lung diseases, which are not suggested by the normal chest X-ray, oxygen saturation, and absence of wheezing or dyspnea.
- The patient's lack of smoking history also makes COPD less likely.
*CT scan of the chest*
- A CT scan of the chest would be indicated for persistent cough if the **chest X-ray were abnormal** or if there were suspicion of a malignancy, interstitial lung disease, or bronchiectasis.
- Given the normal chest X-ray and 3-month duration, a CT scan is not the initial next step, especially when there's a strong alternative diagnosis like GERD.
*Oral corticosteroid therapy*
- Oral corticosteroids are used to treat inflammatory conditions like asthma or COPD exacerbations.
- There is no indication of airflow obstruction, allergic reaction, or significant inflammation based on the clinical presentation and normal chest X-ray, making corticosteroids inappropriate.
Question 827: A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of confusion and rapidly progressive dyspnea. He has had a fever and chills for the past five days. Five years ago, he was diagnosed with hepatitis C. He has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 15 years and drinks one to two beers daily. He has a history of past intravenous heroin use. He appears pale, anxious, and in severe distress. His temperature is 39.3°C (102.7°F), respirations are 30/min, pulse is 59/min, and blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 75%. Examination shows multiple linear hemorrhages underneath the nails. There are nontender maculae on both palms and soles. Fine rales are heard bilaterally on auscultation of the chest. Cardiac examination shows an S3; a grade 3/6 high-pitched decrescendo early diastolic murmur is heard along the left sternal border and right second intercostal space. An x-ray of the chest shows a normal sized heart and pulmonary edema. An ECG shows P waves and QRS complexes that occur at regular intervals, but independently of each other. A transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Eccentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle
B. Oscillating mobile mass on the tricuspid valve
C. A highly echogenic, thin, linear structure in the right atrium
D. Perivalvular thickening with an echolucent cavity (Correct Answer)
E. Anechoic space between pericardium and epicardium
Explanation: ***Perivalvular thickening with an echolucent cavity***
- The patient's history of **intravenous drug use**, fever, new murmur (aortic regurgitation), signs of systemic emboli (Janeway lesions/Osler nodes, confusion), and positive blood cultures (implied by the clinical picture) are highly suggestive of **infective endocarditis**.
- Given the patient's presentation with septic shock and rapidly progressive dyspnea, this points to severe, likely acute, infective endocarditis with **perivalvular abscess formation** on the aortic valve, which would be seen as an echolucent cavity or thickening and destruction of perivalvular tissue.
*Eccentric hypertrophy of the left ventricle*
- This is typically associated with **chronic volume overload** states, such as chronic aortic regurgitation, not acute presentations of infective endocarditis.
- While chronic aortic regurgitation can lead to eccentric hypertrophy, the acute and severe nature of this patient's illness with signs of infection makes it less likely to be the primary finding on TEE related to the current crisis.
*Oscillating mobile mass on the tricuspid valve*
- **Tricuspid valve endocarditis** is common in intravenous drug users due to direct inoculation into the right side of the heart.
- However, the prominent **diastolic murmur** along the left sternal border and right second intercostal space, as well as pulmonary edema, indicate **left-sided heart involvement**, specifically the aortic valve, rather than isolated right-sided endocarditis.
*A highly echogenic, thin, linear structure in the right atrium*
- This description might fit a **catheter fragment** or other foreign body in the right atrium.
- However, it does not explain the patient's severe symptoms, signs of valvular disease (new murmur), and systemic embolization.
*Anechoic space between pericardium and epicardium*
- This describes a **pericardial effusion**, which can be seen in endocarditis, especially with a perivalvular abscess extending into the pericardial space.
- However, it is not the most specific or defining echocardiographic finding for a complicated aortic valve endocarditis with severe hemodynamic compromise and is less likely the primary TEE finding compared to direct visualization of the infection and its complications on the valve.
Question 828: A 55-year-old man presents to the physician with tiredness, lethargy, bone pain, and colicky right abdominal pain for 1 month. He has no comorbidities. He does not have any significant past medical history. His height is 176 cm (5 ft 7 in), weight is 88 kg (194 lb), and his BMI is 28.47 kg/m2. The physical examination is normal, except for mild right lumbar region tenderness. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
Serum TSH 2.2 mU/L
Serum calcium 12.3 mg/dL
Serum phosphorus 1.1 mg/dL
Serum sodium 136 mEq/L
Serum potassium 3.5 mEq/L
Serum creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
Urine calcium Elevated
An ultrasound of the abdomen reveals a single stone in the right ureter without hydroureteronephrosis. Clinically, no evidence of malignancy was observed. An X-ray of the long bones reveals diffuse osteopenia with subperiosteal bone resorption. The serum parathyroid hormone level is tested and it is grossly elevated. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?
A. Ultrasound of the neck only
B. CT scan of the neck
C. 99mTc sestamibi scan with ultrasound of the neck (Correct Answer)
D. Bone scan (DEXA)
E. Sestamibi scan only
Explanation: ***99mTc sestamibi scan with ultrasound of the neck***
- The patient presents with **hypercalcemia**, **hypophosphatemia**, elevated **PTH**, **nephrolithiasis**, and **osteopenia with subperiosteal bone resorption**. These are classic signs of **primary hyperparathyroidism**.
- A **99mTc sestamibi scan** helps localize abnormally functioning parathyroid tissue (adenoma), while an **ultrasound of the neck** provides anatomical detail, guiding surgical planning for parathyroidectomy.
*Ultrasound of the neck only*
- While an ultrasound can identify some parathyroid adenomas, its sensitivity can be limited, especially for smaller or ectopically located glands.
- It does not assess the functional activity or metabolic uptake, which is crucial for identifying the hyperfunctioning gland.
*CT scan of the neck*
- A CT scan can help identify parathyroid adenomas, particularly in cases where ultrasound is inconclusive, but it involves radiation exposure.
- It is generally considered a second-line imaging modality for parathyroid localization after sestamibi scan and ultrasound, or in cases of ectopic adenomas.
*Bone scan (DEXA)*
- A **DEXA scan** measures **bone mineral density** and would confirm the severity of osteopenia or osteoporosis, which is expected in hyperparathyroidism.
- However, it does not localize the source of the excess PTH, which is the immediate goal for surgical planning.
*Sestamibi scan only*
- A **sestamibi scan** is excellent for localizing hyperfunctioning parathyroid tissue but may lack precise anatomical resolution for surgical planning.
- Combining it with an **ultrasound of the neck** provides both functional and anatomical information, optimizing surgical success.
Question 829: A 24-year-old woman, otherwise healthy, presents with a non-productive cough, sore throat, and myalgia. The patient reports that her symptoms started gradually 2 weeks ago and have not improved. She has no significant past medical history and no current medications. She is a college student and denies any recent overseas travel. The patient received the flu vaccine this year, and her 2-part PPD required for school was negative. She does not smoke, drink, or use recreational drugs. The patient denies being sexually active. The vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 110/75 mm Hg, pulse 98/min, respirations 20/min, and oxygen saturation 99% on room air. On physical exam, the patient is alert and cooperative. The cardiac exam is normal. There are rales present bilaterally over both lung fields. The skin and conjunctiva are pale. The laboratory tests are pending. The chest X-ray is shown in the image. Which of the following laboratory findings would also commonly be found in this patient?
A. Elevated cold agglutinin titers (Correct Answer)
B. Heinz bodies on peripheral smear
C. Low serum levels of complement
D. Low serum ferritin and serum iron
E. Schistocytes on peripheral smear
Explanation: ***Elevated cold agglutinin titers***
- The clinical presentation (non-productive cough, sore throat, myalgia, bilateral rales, pallor) in a young, otherwise healthy patient, along with the chest X-ray showing bilateral patchy infiltrates, is consistent with **atypical pneumonia**, most likely caused by ***Mycoplasma pneumoniae***.
- ***Mycoplasma pneumoniae*** infection can induce **autoimmune hemolytic anemia** through the production of **cold agglutinins** (IgM antibodies that agglutinate RBCs at cold temperatures). This occurs in approximately 50% of Mycoplasma infections, though clinically significant hemolysis is less common.
- Laboratory findings include **elevated cold agglutinin titers** (typically >1:64), **positive direct Coombs test** (IgM and complement), **spherocytes** on peripheral smear (from extravascular hemolysis), elevated indirect bilirubin, and decreased haptoglobin.
- The pallor noted on exam reflects the hemolytic anemia caused by these cold-reactive autoantibodies.
*Low serum ferritin and serum iron*
- **Iron deficiency anemia** presents with pallor and fatigue, but results from chronic blood loss, inadequate dietary intake, or malabsorption, not from acute atypical pneumonia.
- While anemia is present in this case, it's **hemolytic anemia** (from cold agglutinins), not iron deficiency. Iron studies would typically be normal or show elevated ferritin (acute phase reactant).
*Heinz bodies on peripheral smear*
- **Heinz bodies** are inclusions of denatured hemoglobin seen in **G6PD deficiency** after oxidative stress or with unstable hemoglobin variants.
- While G6PD deficiency causes hemolytic anemia, it's not associated with *Mycoplasma pneumoniae* infection and doesn't explain the respiratory symptoms or chest X-ray findings.
*Schistocytes on peripheral smear*
- **Schistocytes** are fragmented RBCs indicating **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia** (TTP, HUS, DIC) where RBCs are mechanically sheared in damaged microvasculature.
- *Mycoplasma pneumoniae* causes **immune-mediated extravascular hemolysis** via cold agglutinins, not microangiopathic intravascular hemolysis. Spherocytes, not schistocytes, would be seen.
*Low serum levels of complement*
- Low complement levels indicate complement consumption in **immune complex diseases** (SLE, post-infectious glomerulonephritis) or alternative pathway activation (C3 glomerulonephritis).
- While cold agglutinins can activate complement (causing hemolysis), this is a **local effect on RBC surfaces**, not systemic complement depletion. Serum complement levels typically remain normal in cold agglutinin disease.
Question 830: A 32-year-old man comes to the emergency room because of severe breathlessness for the past few hours. Over the course of a few years, he has been treated for asthma by several physicians, but his symptoms have continued to progress. He has never smoked. Both his father who died at the age of 40 years and his uncle (father's brother), died with chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder. His respiratory rate is 19/min and temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F). On physical examination, the patient has significantly longer exhalation than inhalation. His expiratory time is longer than 6 seconds. Clubbing is present. Chest auscultation reveals bilateral crackles. Mild hepatomegaly is present. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Asthma
C. Lung cancer
D. Pneumonia
E. α1-antitrypsin-deficiency (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***α1-antitrypsin-deficiency***
- The combination of **progressive COPD-like symptoms** at a young age, a family history of early-onset COPD, **emphysema-like symptoms** (prolonged exhalation) without a smoking history, and **hepatomegaly** strongly suggests α1-antitrypsin deficiency. The presence of **clubbing** and **bilateral crackles** can also be present with severe lung disease in AAT deficiency.
- **α1-antitrypsin (AAT)** is a protease inhibitor that protects the lungs from damage by neutrophil elastase; deficiency leads to unchecked tissue destruction, especially in the **lower lobes**, and can also cause liver disease due to protein accumulation.
*Pulmonary edema*
- Characterized by **shortness of breath**, **crackles**, and sometimes **clubbing** (in chronic cases), but does not explain the **prolonged exhalation**, **family history of early COPD**, or **hepatomegaly** in this context.
- Typically associated with **cardiac dysfunction** or **fluid overload**, which are not indicated as primary issues here.
*Asthma*
- While asthma can cause **breathlessness** and **prolonged exhalation**, the **progressive nature** despite treatment, a **strong family history of early COPD**, **clubbing**, and **hepatomegaly** make asthma a less likely sole diagnosis.
- Asthma is also usually episodic and responsive to bronchodilators, which is not described.
*Lung cancer*
- Lung cancer can cause **progressive breathlessness**, **clubbing**, and potentially **hepatomegaly** if there are liver metastases.
- However, the patient's **young age**, **absence of smoking history**, and the **family history of early-onset COPD** are atypical for primary lung cancer as the underlying cause of this presentation.
*Pneumonia*
- Pneumonia would present with an **acute onset of symptoms**, often with **fever**, **cough**, and focal lung findings, which can include crackles and breathlessness.
- It would not typically explain **progressive symptoms over years**, **prolonged exhalation**, **clubbing**, **hepatomegaly**, or the **family history of early COPD**.