Cardiology — MCQs

A 45-year-old woman presents with headaches. She says the headaches started about a month ago, and although initially, they were intermittent, over the past 2 weeks, they have progressively worsened. She describes the pain as severe, worse on the left than the right, and relieved somewhat by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). The headaches are usually associated with nausea, vomiting, and photophobia. She denies any changes in vision, seizures, similar past symptoms, or focal neurologic deficits. Past medical history is significant for a posterior communicating artery aneurysm, status post-clipping 10 years ago. Her vital signs include: blood pressure 135/90 mm Hg, temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), pulse 80/min, and respiratory rate 14/min. Her body mass index (BMI) is 36 kg/m2. On physical examination, the patient is alert and oriented. Her pupils are 3 mm on the right and mid-dilated on the left with subtle left-sided ptosis. Ophthalmic examination reveals a cup-to-disc ratio of 0.4 on the right and 0.5 on the left. The remainder of her cranial nerves are intact. She has 5/5 strength and 2+ reflexes in her upper extremities bilaterally and her left leg; her right leg has 3/5 strength with 1+ reflexes at the knee and ankle. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following findings in this patient most strongly suggests a further diagnostic workup?

A 52-year-old woman comes to the physician because of swelling of her legs for 2 months. She has noticed that her legs gradually swell up throughout the day. Two years ago, she underwent a coronary angioplasty. She has hypertension and coronary artery disease. She works as a waitress at a local diner. Her father died of liver cancer at the age of 61 years. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 31 years. She drinks one to two glasses of wine daily and occasionally more on weekends. Current medications include aspirin, metoprolol, and rosuvastatin. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows 2+ pitting edema in the lower extremities. There are several dilated, tortuous veins over both calves. Multiple excoriation marks are noted over both ankles. Peripheral pulses are palpated bilaterally. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows no murmurs, gallops, or rubs. The abdomen is soft and nontender; there is no organomegaly. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 51-year-old woman comes to the physician because of worsening chest pain on exertion. She was diagnosed with coronary artery disease and hyperlipidemia 3 months ago. At the time of diagnosis, she was able to walk for 15 minutes on the treadmill until the onset of chest pain. Her endurance had improved temporarily after she began medical treatment and she was able to walk her dog for 30 minutes daily without experiencing chest pain. Her current medications include daily aspirin, metoprolol, atorvastatin, and isosorbide dinitrate four times daily. Her pulse is 55/min and blood pressure is 115/78 mm Hg. Treadmill walking test shows an onset of chest pain after 18 minutes. Which of the following is most likely to improve this patient’s symptoms?

A 39-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 5-month history of episodic retrosternal chest pain. She currently feels well. The pain is unrelated to exercise and does not radiate. The episodes typically last less than 15 minutes and lead to feelings of anxiety; resting relieves the pain. She has not had dyspnea or cough. She has hyperlipidemia treated with simvastatin. She does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 104/min, respirations are 17/min, and blood pressure is 124/76 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of coronary artery disease in this patient?

A 61-year-old woman comes to her physician for a burning sensation and numbness in her right hand for 4 weeks. The burning sensation is worse at night and is sometimes relieved by shaking the wrist. In the past week, she has noticed an exacerbation of her symptoms. She has rheumatoid arthritis and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her medications include insulin, methotrexate, and naproxen. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows swan neck deformities of the fingers on both hands and multiple subcutaneous nodules over bilateral olecranon processes. There is tingling and numbness over the right thumb, index finger, and middle finger when the wrist is actively flexed. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next best step in management?

A 26-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to right-sided facial and upper extremity weakness and aphasia. The patient was in his usual state of health until two hours prior to presentation, when he was eating breakfast with a friend and acutely developed the aforementioned symptoms. Medical history is unremarkable except for mild palpitations that occur during times of stress or when drinking coffee. Physical examination is consistent with the clinical presentation. Laboratory testing is unremarkable and a 12-lead electrocardiogram is normal. A non-contrast head CT and diffusion-weighted MRI shows no intracranial hemorrhage and an isolated superficial cerebral infarction. Transthoracic echocardiography with agitated saline mixed with air shows microbubbles in the left heart. There is a possible minor effusion surrounding the heart and the ejection fraction is within normal limits. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this patient's clinical presentation?

A 25-year-old female presents to a physician's office with complaints of having no energy for the last 2 weeks and sometimes feeling like staying home all day. She works for a technology start-up company and is attending graduate school part-time in the evening. She is very concerned about her health and tries to eat a balanced diet. She runs daily and takes yoga classes 3 times a week. She gets together with her friends every weekend and has continued to do so the last few weeks. Her schedule is quite hectic, and she is always on the go. There have been no changes in her sleep, appetite, or daily routine. She denies having flu-like symptoms, headaches, body aches, indigestion, weight loss, agitation, or restlessness. She admits to moderate drinking and marijuana use but has never smoked cigarettes. The medical history is unremarkable, and she takes no medications other than vitamin C for cold prevention. A friend suggested she take an herbal product containing ginseng and St. John's wort for her decreased energy levels. Her body mass index (BMI) is 22 kg/m2. The physical examination reveals no findings and lab testing shows the following: Sodium 138 mEq/L Potassium 3.9 mEq/L Chloride 101 mEq/L Thyroid stimulating hormone 3.5 μU/mL Hemoglobin (Hb%) 13.5 g/dL Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH) 31 pg Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 85 fL Leucocyte count 5000/mm3 Platelet count 250,000/mm3 The physician advises her to reduce the alcohol consumption and marijuana use. What else should she be advised?

A 52-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of 3 weeks of persistent thirst despite consumption of increased quantities of water. She also admits that she has had increased frequency of urination during the same time period. A basic metabolic panel is performed which reveals mild hypernatremia and a normal glucose level. Urine electrolytes are then obtained which shows a very low urine osmolality that does not correct when a water deprivation test is performed. Blood tests reveal an undetectable level of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Based on this information, what is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?

A 20-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of severe muscle soreness, nausea, and darkened urine for 2 days. The patient is on the college track team and has been training intensively for an upcoming event. One month ago, she had a urinary tract infection and was treated with nitrofurantoin. She appears healthy. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 64/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft and non-tender. There is diffuse muscle tenderness over the arms, legs, and back. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 12.8 g/dL Leukocyte count 7,000/mm3 Platelet count 265,000/mm3 Serum Creatine kinase 22,000 U/L Lactate dehydrogenase 380 U/L Urine Blood 3+ Protein 1+ RBC negative WBC 1–2/hpf This patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?

Four days after undergoing a craniotomy and evacuation of a subdural hematoma, a 56-year-old man has severe pain and swelling of his right leg. He has chills and nausea. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, and was started on hemodialysis 2 years ago. Prior to admission, his medications were insulin, enalapril, atorvastatin, and sevelamer. His temperature is 38.3°C (101°F), pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Examination shows a swollen, warm, and erythematous right calf. Dorsiflexion of the right foot causes severe pain in the right calf. The peripheral pulses are palpated bilaterally. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 10.1 g/dL Leukocyte count 11,800/mm3 Platelet count 230,000/mm3 Serum Glucose 87 mg/dL Creatinine 1.9 mg/dL Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment?