A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency room with a painful, swollen left leg. He states that his symptoms began that morning after a long flight from Australia. He denies shortness of breath, chest pain, or cough. On review of systems, he notes that he has been constipated recently and had several episodes of bright red blood per rectum. He has not noticed any weight loss, fevers, or night sweats. He has a past medical history of a deep vein thrombosis 4 years ago during a hospitalization for community acquired pneumonia and was treated with warfarin for 3 months afterward. He also has chronic hepatitis C from previous intravenous drug use. The patient has a 30 pack-year smoking history and has never had a colonoscopy. His father is 84-years-old and has chronic kidney disease from diabetes, and his mother passed away from a massive pulmonary embolus when pregnant with his younger sister. In the emergency room, his temperature is 98.7°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 142/85 mm/Hg, pulse is 79/min, and respirations are 14/min. On exam, he is in no acute distress. His left calf is larger in caliber than the right calf which is red and tender to palpation. Dorsiflexion of the foot worsens the pain. His abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended without hepatomegaly. The remainder of the physical exam is unremarkable. Labs are shown below:
Hemoglobin: 13.0 g/dL
Leukocyte count: 6,000/mm^3
Platelets: 160,000/mm^3
Aspartate aminotransferase: 15 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase: 19 U/L
Alkaline phosphatase: 81 IU/L
Hepatitis C antibody: reactive
Hepatitis C titer: 0 copies/mL
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
Q802
A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of involuntary loss of urine. She loses small amounts of urine in the absence of an urge to urinate and for no apparent reason. She also reports that she has an intermittent urinary stream. Two years ago, she was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Current medications include glatiramer acetate and a multivitamin. She works as a librarian. She has 2 children who attend middle school. Vital signs are within normal limits. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Pelvic examination shows no abnormalities. Neurologic examination shows a slight hypesthesia in the lower left arm and absent abdominal reflex, but otherwise no abnormalities. Her post-void residual urine volume is 131 mL. Bladder size is normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's urinary incontinence?
Q803
A 32-year-old African American woman comes to the physician because of fatigue and difficulty swallowing for 6 weeks. She also complains of painful discoloration in her fingers when exposed to cold weather. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 4 years. She appears younger than her stated age. Physical examination shows smooth, swollen fingers with small white calcifications on her fingertips bilaterally. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?
Q804
A 19-year-old girl with a history of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), managed with systemic corticosteroids, presents with bruising, acne, and weight gain. Patient says that 3 months ago she gradually began to notice significant weight gain and facial and truncal acne. She says these symptoms progressively worsened until she discontinued her corticosteroid therapy 4 weeks ago. This week, she began to notice multiple bruises all over her body. Past medical history is significant for ITP, diagnosed 11 years ago, managed until recently with systemic corticosteroid therapy. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there are multiple petechiae and superficial bruises on her torso and extremities bilaterally. There is moderate truncal obesity and as well as a mild posterior cervical adipose deposition. Multiple deep comedones are present on the face and upper torso. Which of the following is the best course of treatment in this patient?
Q805
A 55-year-old man comes to the physician because of increasing shortness of breath for 1 month. Initially, he was able to climb the 3 flights of stairs to his apartment, but he now needs several breaks to catch his breath. He has no chest pain. He has rheumatic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He emigrated from India about 25 years ago. The patient's current medications include carvedilol, torsemide, and insulin. He appears uncomfortable. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 72/min and regular, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 96%. Examination shows bilateral crackles at the lung bases. There is an opening snap followed by a low-pitched diastolic murmur at the fifth left intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line. An x-ray of the chest shows left atrial enlargement, straightening of the left cardiac border and increased vascular markings. Which of the following is the preferred intervention to improve this patient's symptoms?
Q806
A 54-year-old man comes to the physician because of excessive daytime sleepiness for 5 months. He wakes up frequently at night, and his wife says his snoring has become louder. He is 180 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 104 kg (230 lb); his BMI is 33 kg/m2. His pulse is 80/min and his respiratory rate is 11/min. His jugular venous pressure is 7 cm H2O. He has 2+ pitting edema of the lower legs and ankles. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows a pH of 7.42 and a PCO2 of 41 mm Hg. An x-ray of the chest shows normal findings. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
Q807
A 53-year-old woman presents to a physician with a cough which she has had for the last 5 years. She mentions that her cough is worse in the morning and is associated with significant expectoration. There is no history of weight loss or constitutional symptoms like fever and malaise. Her past medical records show that she required hospitalization for breathing difficulty on 6 different occasions in the last 3 years. She also mentions that she was never completely free of her respiratory problems during the period between the exacerbations and that she has a cough with sputum most of the months for the last 3 years. She works in a cotton mill and is a non-smoker. Her mother and her maternal grandmother had asthma. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), the pulse is 92/min, the blood pressure is 130/86 mm Hg, and her respiratory rate is 22/min. General examination shows obesity and mild cyanosis. Auscultation of her chest reveals bilateral coarse rhonchi. Her lung volumes on pulmonary function test are given below:
Pre-bronchodilator Post-bronchodilator
FEV1 58% 63%
FVC 90% 92%
FEV1/FVC 0.62 0.63
TLC 98% 98%
The results are valid and repeatable as per standard criteria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q808
A 27-year-old woman with a history of a "heart murmur since childhood" presents following a series of syncopal episodes over the past several months. She also complains of worsening fatigue over this time period, and notes that her lips have begun to take on a bluish tinge, for which she has been using a brighter shade of lipstick. You do a careful examination, and detect a right ventricular heave, clubbing of the fingers, and 2+ pitting edema bilaterally to the shins. Despite your patient insisting that every doctor she has ever seen has commented on her murmur, you do not hear one. Transthoracic echocardiography would most likely detect which of the following?
Q809
A 47-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife 30 minutes after the onset of nausea, sweating, and palpitations. On the way to the hospital, he had an episode of non-bloody vomiting and intravenous fluid resuscitation has been started. He has no history of similar symptoms. For the past 2 weeks, he has been trying to lose weight and has adjusted his diet and activity level. He eats a low-carb diet and runs 3 times a week for exercise; he came home from a training session 3 hours ago. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus 2 years ago that is controlled with basal insulin and metformin. He appears anxious. His pulse is 105/min and blood pressure is 118/78 mm Hg. He is confused and oriented only to person. Examination shows diaphoresis and pallor. A fingerstick blood glucose concentration is 35 mg/dL. Shortly after, the patient loses consciousness and starts shaking. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q810
A 38-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of increasing shortness of breath over the past 2 months. He reports experiencing an extended illness of several weeks as a child that required him to miss school. He is unsure but believes it involved a sore throat followed by a fever and joint pains. He does not recall seeing a physician or receiving treatment for this. Today, on physical examination, cardiac auscultation reveals an opening snap after the second heart sound followed by a diastolic murmur. A follow-up echocardiogram is conducted. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiology of this patient's condition?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 801: A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency room with a painful, swollen left leg. He states that his symptoms began that morning after a long flight from Australia. He denies shortness of breath, chest pain, or cough. On review of systems, he notes that he has been constipated recently and had several episodes of bright red blood per rectum. He has not noticed any weight loss, fevers, or night sweats. He has a past medical history of a deep vein thrombosis 4 years ago during a hospitalization for community acquired pneumonia and was treated with warfarin for 3 months afterward. He also has chronic hepatitis C from previous intravenous drug use. The patient has a 30 pack-year smoking history and has never had a colonoscopy. His father is 84-years-old and has chronic kidney disease from diabetes, and his mother passed away from a massive pulmonary embolus when pregnant with his younger sister. In the emergency room, his temperature is 98.7°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 142/85 mm/Hg, pulse is 79/min, and respirations are 14/min. On exam, he is in no acute distress. His left calf is larger in caliber than the right calf which is red and tender to palpation. Dorsiflexion of the foot worsens the pain. His abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended without hepatomegaly. The remainder of the physical exam is unremarkable. Labs are shown below:
Hemoglobin: 13.0 g/dL
Leukocyte count: 6,000/mm^3
Platelets: 160,000/mm^3
Aspartate aminotransferase: 15 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase: 19 U/L
Alkaline phosphatase: 81 IU/L
Hepatitis C antibody: reactive
Hepatitis C titer: 0 copies/mL
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
A. Increased estrogen levels
B. Loss of antithrombin III in urine
C. Protein C deficiency
D. Resistance of factor V to inactivation by protein C (Correct Answer)
E. Malignancy
Explanation: ***Resistance of factor V to inactivation by protein C***
- This patient has **Factor V Leiden mutation**, the most common inherited thrombophilia (present in 5% of Caucasians)
- **Key diagnostic clues**: Recurrent DVT (even if provoked events have lower thresholds in Factor V Leiden) and **strong family history** - mother with massive PE during pregnancy is highly suggestive, as pregnancy unmasks inherited thrombophilias
- Factor V Leiden causes **resistance to activated protein C**, leading to prolonged clotting and increased VTE risk
- While the rectal bleeding raises concern for malignancy, the **family history of thromboembolism** points to an inherited predisposition as the underlying cause
*Malignancy*
- Malignancy causes hypercoagulability through multiple mechanisms (tissue factor release, inflammatory cytokines, platelet activation)
- The patient's **rectal bleeding, constipation, age 61, and lack of screening colonoscopy** are concerning for colorectal cancer
- Malignancy is a strong consideration and warrants urgent colonoscopy
- However, the **family history of massive PE in mother during pregnancy** more strongly suggests an inherited thrombophilia as the primary cause, though malignancy could be a coexisting/triggering factor
*Increased estrogen levels*
- Estrogen increases synthesis of clotting factors and decreases anticoagulant proteins, raising DVT risk
- Seen with oral contraceptives, hormone replacement therapy, or pregnancy
- This patient is a **61-year-old male**, making estrogen-related thrombosis extremely unlikely
*Loss of antithrombin III in urine*
- Occurs in **nephrotic syndrome** (proteinuria >3.5 g/day, hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia)
- Loss of antithrombin III causes hypercoagulability
- This patient has **no proteinuria, normal liver enzymes, no edema**, and no other features of nephrotic syndrome
*Protein C deficiency*
- Hereditary protein C deficiency is a rare thrombophilia causing recurrent VTE
- While possible, **Factor V Leiden is 10-20 times more common** than protein C deficiency
- The family history pattern (mother with PE in pregnancy) is more characteristic of Factor V Leiden
Question 802: A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of involuntary loss of urine. She loses small amounts of urine in the absence of an urge to urinate and for no apparent reason. She also reports that she has an intermittent urinary stream. Two years ago, she was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Current medications include glatiramer acetate and a multivitamin. She works as a librarian. She has 2 children who attend middle school. Vital signs are within normal limits. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Pelvic examination shows no abnormalities. Neurologic examination shows a slight hypesthesia in the lower left arm and absent abdominal reflex, but otherwise no abnormalities. Her post-void residual urine volume is 131 mL. Bladder size is normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's urinary incontinence?
A. Cognitive impairment
B. Vesicovaginal fistula
C. Bladder outlet obstruction
D. Detrusor sphincter dyssynergia (Correct Answer)
E. Impaired detrusor contractility
Explanation: ***Detrusor sphincter dyssynergia***
- This condition is characterized by **involuntary contraction of the external urethral sphincter** during bladder contraction, leading to an **intermittent urinary stream** and incomplete bladder emptying, often seen in neurological conditions like **multiple sclerosis**.
- The **post-void residual urine volume of 131 mL** confirms incomplete bladder emptying, and the loss of small amounts of urine without urge suggests **overflow incontinence** due to chronic retention.
*Cognitive impairment*
- While cognitive impairment can cause urinary incontinence, typically it leads to **functional incontinence** where the patient is unable to recognize the need to urinate or is unable to reach the toilet in time.
- The patient's presentation of an **intermittent urinary stream** and high post-void residual is not characteristic of incontinence solely due to cognitive issues.
*Vesicovaginal fistula*
- A vesicovaginal fistula involves an **abnormal connection between the bladder and vagina**, causing **continuous leakage of urine** from the vagina, often following childbirth or surgery.
- The patient's symptoms of an **intermittent urinary stream** and neurological history are inconsistent with a fistula, and the pelvic exam was normal.
*Bladder outlet obstruction*
- Common causes include **benign prostatic hyperplasia** in men or **pelvic organ prolapse** in women, leading to difficulty emptying the bladder and symptoms like dribbling and straining.
- While it can cause incomplete emptying and overflow, without any evidence of prolapse on pelvic exam or other obstructive factors, and given her **multiple sclerosis**, a neurological cause like DSD is more likely.
*Impaired detrusor contractility*
- This condition results in the bladder being **unable to effectively contract** to empty urine, leading to incomplete emptying and overflow incontinence.
- While the patient has a high post-void residual volume, the presence of an **intermittent urinary stream** suggests that the detrusor *is* contracting, but facing resistance from a dyssynergic sphincter, rather than having impaired contractility itself.
Question 803: A 32-year-old African American woman comes to the physician because of fatigue and difficulty swallowing for 6 weeks. She also complains of painful discoloration in her fingers when exposed to cold weather. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 4 years. She appears younger than her stated age. Physical examination shows smooth, swollen fingers with small white calcifications on her fingertips bilaterally. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?
A. Pulmonary hypertension (Correct Answer)
B. Chondrocalcinosis
C. Aortic aneurysm
D. Liver cirrhosis
E. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Explanation: ***Pulmonary hypertension***
- The patient's symptoms (fatigue, dysphagia, Raynaud phenomenon, sclerodactyly with calcifications) are highly suggestive of **CREST syndrome**, a limited form of systemic sclerosis.
- Pulmonary hypertension is a frequent and serious complication of systemic sclerosis, particularly in the limited cutaneous form (CREST syndrome), due to **vasculopathy** and **fibrosis** affecting pulmonary arteries.
*Chondrocalcinosis*
- This condition involves the deposition of **calcium pyrophosphate crystals** in cartilage, typically presenting as arthritis.
- While calcifications are mentioned, they are described on fingertips (likely **calcinosis cutis**), not within joints, making chondrocalcinosis less likely in this context.
*Aortic aneurysm*
- Aortic aneurysms are more commonly associated with conditions like **atherosclerosis**, Marfan syndrome, or syphilis.
- There is no direct link between systemic sclerosis (CREST syndrome) and an increased risk of aortic aneurysm.
*Liver cirrhosis*
- Liver cirrhosis is primarily caused by chronic liver damage from conditions like **hepatitis**, **alcohol abuse**, or non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
- While some autoimmune conditions can affect the liver, systemic sclerosis is not strongly associated with an increased risk of liver cirrhosis.
*Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease*
- COPD is characterized by persistent **airflow limitation** and is primarily caused by **smoking** and exposure to environmental pollutants.
- While the patient smokes, the specific constellation of symptoms points to systemic sclerosis, which often involves **interstitial lung disease** rather than typical obstructive lung changes like COPD.
Question 804: A 19-year-old girl with a history of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), managed with systemic corticosteroids, presents with bruising, acne, and weight gain. Patient says that 3 months ago she gradually began to notice significant weight gain and facial and truncal acne. She says these symptoms progressively worsened until she discontinued her corticosteroid therapy 4 weeks ago. This week, she began to notice multiple bruises all over her body. Past medical history is significant for ITP, diagnosed 11 years ago, managed until recently with systemic corticosteroid therapy. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there are multiple petechiae and superficial bruises on her torso and extremities bilaterally. There is moderate truncal obesity and as well as a mild posterior cervical adipose deposition. Multiple deep comedones are present on the face and upper torso. Which of the following is the best course of treatment in this patient?
A. Administration of intravenous immunoglobulin
B. Continuation of systemic corticosteroid therapy
C. Splenectomy (Correct Answer)
D. Transfusion of thrombocytes
E. Transplantation of stem cells
Explanation: ***Splenectomy***
- The patient has **chronic ITP** (11 years) with **steroid failure** due to intolerable side effects (Cushingoid features: truncal obesity, buffalo hump, acne) and now presents with **relapse** after discontinuation (petechiae, bruising).
- **Splenectomy** is an established **second-line treatment** for chronic ITP when first-line therapies (corticosteroids, IVIG) fail or are not tolerated. It achieves durable remission in **60-70% of patients** by removing the primary site of platelet destruction.
- In this patient who cannot tolerate long-term corticosteroids and needs definitive management, splenectomy is the most appropriate option among those listed.
- **Note**: Modern practice also considers thrombopoietin receptor agonists (TPO-RAs like eltrombopag or romiplostim) as alternatives to splenectomy, but these are not among the answer choices.
*Administration of intravenous immunoglobulin*
- **IVIG** provides only **temporary elevation** of platelet counts (lasting days to weeks) and is primarily used for *acute severe bleeding* or to rapidly increase platelets before procedures.
- While it could be used for short-term management of her current relapse, it does not address the need for **long-term definitive therapy** in a patient who has failed corticosteroids.
- Not the best option when definitive treatment is needed.
*Continuation of systemic corticosteroid therapy*
- The patient has clear **corticosteroid toxicity** (Cushingoid features) and **discontinued therapy 4 weeks ago** specifically due to these intolerable side effects.
- Continuing steroids would perpetuate weight gain, acne, metabolic complications, bone loss, and other serious adverse effects.
- **Steroid-dependent ITP** requiring alternate therapy is an indication for second-line treatment.
*Transfusion of thrombocytes*
- **Platelet transfusions** are generally **ineffective in ITP** because transfused platelets are rapidly destroyed by the same autoimmune process targeting endogenous platelets.
- Reserved only for **life-threatening hemorrhage** (e.g., intracranial bleeding), not for chronic management or mild mucocutaneous bleeding.
- This patient has petechiae and superficial bruising but no evidence of severe bleeding.
*Transplantation of stem cells*
- **Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation** is an extremely high-risk procedure reserved for life-threatening **refractory hematologic malignancies** or severe aplastic anemia, not for chronic ITP.
- ITP is an autoimmune disorder of platelet destruction, not a stem cell production problem.
- This would be inappropriate and carries unacceptable morbidity/mortality risk for this condition.
Question 805: A 55-year-old man comes to the physician because of increasing shortness of breath for 1 month. Initially, he was able to climb the 3 flights of stairs to his apartment, but he now needs several breaks to catch his breath. He has no chest pain. He has rheumatic heart disease and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He emigrated from India about 25 years ago. The patient's current medications include carvedilol, torsemide, and insulin. He appears uncomfortable. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 72/min and regular, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 96%. Examination shows bilateral crackles at the lung bases. There is an opening snap followed by a low-pitched diastolic murmur at the fifth left intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line. An x-ray of the chest shows left atrial enlargement, straightening of the left cardiac border and increased vascular markings. Which of the following is the preferred intervention to improve this patient's symptoms?
A. Transcatheter aortic valve replacement
B. Tricuspid valve repair
C. Enalapril therapy
D. Percutaneous mitral balloon commissurotomy (Correct Answer)
E. Mitral valve replacement
Explanation: ***Percutaneous mitral balloon commissurotomy***
- The patient's symptoms (dyspnea, crackles, left atrial enlargement) and the characteristic "opening snap followed by a low-pitched diastolic murmur" at the apex (fifth left intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line) are highly indicative of **mitral stenosis**, likely due to his history of rheumatic heart disease.
- Given the progressive symptoms and the classic auscultatory findings, **percutaneous mitral balloon commissurotomy** is the preferred intervention for symptomatic patients with isolated, severe mitral stenosis, especially when the valve anatomy is suitable (non-calcified, non-regurgitant).
*Transcatheter aortic valve replacement*
- **Transcatheter aortic valve replacement (TAVR)** is indicated for severe **aortic stenosis**, which is characterized by a systolic murmur, often radiating to the carotids, and symptoms like angina or syncope, not present here.
- The patient's murmur is diastolic and apical, inconsistent with aortic stenosis.
*Tricuspid valve repair*
- **Tricuspid valve disease** typically presents with symptoms of right heart failure, such as peripheral edema, ascites, and jugular venous distension, which are not the primary complaints for this patient.
- The murmur described is associated with the mitral valve, located in the left heart.
*Enalapril therapy*
- **Enalapril**, an ACE inhibitor, is often used in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction or hypertension, but it does not directly address the mechanical obstruction of a stenotic mitral valve.
- While it can help manage heart failure symptoms, it is not the definitive intervention for symptomatic mitral stenosis.
*Mitral valve replacement*
- **Mitral valve replacement** is an option for severe mitral stenosis but is generally reserved for cases where **percutaneous mitral balloon commissurotomy** is contraindicated or has failed (e.g., highly calcified valve, significant regurgitation, atrial thrombus).
- It is a more invasive surgical procedure compared to commissurotomy, making the latter the preferred *initial* intervention if feasible.
Question 806: A 54-year-old man comes to the physician because of excessive daytime sleepiness for 5 months. He wakes up frequently at night, and his wife says his snoring has become louder. He is 180 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 104 kg (230 lb); his BMI is 33 kg/m2. His pulse is 80/min and his respiratory rate is 11/min. His jugular venous pressure is 7 cm H2O. He has 2+ pitting edema of the lower legs and ankles. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows a pH of 7.42 and a PCO2 of 41 mm Hg. An x-ray of the chest shows normal findings. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
A. Daytime alveolar hypoventilation
B. Decreased levels of hypocretin-1
C. Increased medullary ventilatory responsiveness
D. Impaired myocardial relaxation
E. Intermittent collapse of the oropharynx (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Intermittent collapse of the oropharynx***
- The patient's symptoms of **excessive daytime sleepiness**, frequent night awakenings, and **loud snoring** are classic signs of **obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)**.
- OSA is characterized by the **intermittent collapse of the oropharynx** during sleep, leading to obstructed airflow. His obesity (BMI 33 kg/m2) is a significant risk factor for OSA.
*Daytime alveolar hypoventilation*
- This would typically present with **elevated PCO2** on arterial blood gas, indicating CO2 retention. The patient's PCO2 of 41 mm Hg is within the normal range, ruling out significant daytime alveolar hypoventilation.
- While chronic severe OSA can eventually lead to obesity hypoventilation syndrome, the current ABG does not support this as the primary underlying cause.
*Decreased levels of hypocretin-1*
- **Decreased hypocretin-1** (also known as orexin) levels in the cerebrospinal fluid are a hallmark of **narcolepsy type 1**.
- While narcolepsy causes excessive daytime sleepiness, it is not associated with loud snoring or night awakenings due to respiratory effort, which are prominent in this patient.
*Increased medullary ventilatory responsiveness*
- **Increased medullary ventilatory responsiveness** would lead to an enhanced drive to breathe, often resulting in **hypocapnia (low PCO2)**, especially in response to metabolic acidosis or hypoxemia.
- This is contrary to the patient's normal PCO2 and clinical picture, which points towards an obstructive rather than a central ventilatory issue.
*Impaired myocardial relaxation*
- **Impaired myocardial relaxation** is a feature of **diastolic heart failure**, which could explain the elevated JVP and peripheral edema.
- However, it does not explain the primary presenting symptoms of excessive daytime sleepiness and loud snoring, which point directly to a sleep-related breathing disorder rather than primarily a cardiac issue.
Question 807: A 53-year-old woman presents to a physician with a cough which she has had for the last 5 years. She mentions that her cough is worse in the morning and is associated with significant expectoration. There is no history of weight loss or constitutional symptoms like fever and malaise. Her past medical records show that she required hospitalization for breathing difficulty on 6 different occasions in the last 3 years. She also mentions that she was never completely free of her respiratory problems during the period between the exacerbations and that she has a cough with sputum most of the months for the last 3 years. She works in a cotton mill and is a non-smoker. Her mother and her maternal grandmother had asthma. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), the pulse is 92/min, the blood pressure is 130/86 mm Hg, and her respiratory rate is 22/min. General examination shows obesity and mild cyanosis. Auscultation of her chest reveals bilateral coarse rhonchi. Her lung volumes on pulmonary function test are given below:
Pre-bronchodilator Post-bronchodilator
FEV1 58% 63%
FVC 90% 92%
FEV1/FVC 0.62 0.63
TLC 98% 98%
The results are valid and repeatable as per standard criteria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
B. Chronic bronchitis (Correct Answer)
C. Asthma
D. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
E. Emphysema
Explanation: ***Chronic bronchitis***
- The patient presents with a chronic cough and sputum production for at least 3 months a year for 2 consecutive years, consistent with the definition of **chronic bronchitis**.
- **Obstructive pattern** on PFT (FEV1/FVC < 0.70) with minimal reversibility, along with a history of recurrent exacerbations, supports this diagnosis.
*Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis*
- Characterized by a **restrictive ventilatory defect** (reduced TLC) and often presents with progressive dyspnea and dry cough, which contradicts the patient's PFTs and productive cough.
- Would show **pulmonary fibrosis** on imaging, not suggested by the patient's presentation.
*Asthma*
- Typically presents with **reversible airway obstruction** (significant improvement in FEV1 post-bronchodilator), which is not seen here (only 5% improvement).
- Although the patient's mother and grandmother had asthma, her symptoms and PFTs do not align with active asthma exacerbations.
*Extrinsic allergic alveolitis*
- Usually involves **exposure to inhaled allergens** leading to inflammation of the alveoli, presenting with restrictive lung disease and often acute or subacute symptoms.
- The patient's occupational exposure to cotton mill might suggest **byssinosis**, a type of occupational lung disease, but her PFTs and prolonged chronic cough are more consistent with bronchitis.
*Emphysema*
- Primarily defined by **destruction of alveolar walls** leading to air trapping and severe airflow obstruction, often associated with a history of smoking.
- While it causes an obstructive pattern, the prominent chronic productive cough and minimal reversibility point more towards the airway inflammation of bronchitis rather than the parenchymal destruction of emphysema.
Question 808: A 27-year-old woman with a history of a "heart murmur since childhood" presents following a series of syncopal episodes over the past several months. She also complains of worsening fatigue over this time period, and notes that her lips have begun to take on a bluish tinge, for which she has been using a brighter shade of lipstick. You do a careful examination, and detect a right ventricular heave, clubbing of the fingers, and 2+ pitting edema bilaterally to the shins. Despite your patient insisting that every doctor she has ever seen has commented on her murmur, you do not hear one. Transthoracic echocardiography would most likely detect which of the following?
A. Mitral insufficiency
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction
D. Positive bubble study (Correct Answer)
E. Ventricular aneurysm
Explanation: ***Positive bubble study***
- The patient's symptoms, including **cyanosis** (**bluish tinge to the lips**), **clubbing**, and **right ventricular heave**, suggest **Eisenmenger syndrome**, a late complication of a **left-to-right shunt** that has reversed due to pulmonary hypertension.
- A positive bubble study on echocardiography would confirm the presence of a **right-to-left shunt**, characteristic of Eisenmenger syndrome, by showing microbubbles crossing from the right to the left side of the heart.
*Mitral insufficiency*
- While mitral insufficiency can cause a murmur and heart failure symptoms, it does not typically lead to the **cyanosis** and **clubbing** described.
- The absence of a murmur, despite a history of one, points away from a significant current insufficiency.
*Aortic stenosis*
- Aortic stenosis is characterized by an **ejection systolic murmur** that would likely be heard on examination, contradicting the scenario where no murmur is audible.
- It usually presents with a different constellation of symptoms, such as angina, syncope, and heart failure, without the prominent cyanosis or clubbing seen here.
*Dynamic left ventricular outflow tract obstruction*
- This is characteristic of **hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)**, which can cause exertional syncope.
- However, HOCM does not typically lead to **cyanosis**, a **right ventricular heave**, or **clubbing**, which are strong indicators of a right-to-left shunt.
*Ventricular aneurysm*
- A ventricular aneurysm is a bulging of the ventricular wall, often a complication of a **myocardial infarction**, which is unlikely in a 27-year-old with a history of a "heart murmur since childhood."
- It typically presents with symptoms related to heart failure, arrhythmias, or embolism, and would not explain the prominent **cyanosis** and **clubbing**.
Question 809: A 47-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife 30 minutes after the onset of nausea, sweating, and palpitations. On the way to the hospital, he had an episode of non-bloody vomiting and intravenous fluid resuscitation has been started. He has no history of similar symptoms. For the past 2 weeks, he has been trying to lose weight and has adjusted his diet and activity level. He eats a low-carb diet and runs 3 times a week for exercise; he came home from a training session 3 hours ago. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus 2 years ago that is controlled with basal insulin and metformin. He appears anxious. His pulse is 105/min and blood pressure is 118/78 mm Hg. He is confused and oriented only to person. Examination shows diaphoresis and pallor. A fingerstick blood glucose concentration is 35 mg/dL. Shortly after, the patient loses consciousness and starts shaking. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Administer intravenous dextrose (Correct Answer)
B. Administer intravenous phenoxybenzamine
C. Obtain an EEG
D. Administer intravenous lorazepam
E. Administer intramuscular glucagon
Explanation: ***Administer intravenous dextrose***
- The patient presents with severe **hypoglycemia** (fingerstick glucose 35 mg/dL) and associated neurological symptoms like confusion, disorientation, loss of consciousness, and seizures. **Intravenous dextrose** is the most rapid and effective treatment for severe hypoglycemia in a hospital setting.
- Due to the rapid progression of symptoms, including loss of consciousness and shaking (suggesting a seizure), immediate administration of intravenous dextrose is critical to prevent further neurological damage.
*Administer intravenous phenoxybenzamine*
- **Phenoxybenzamine** is an alpha-blocker used to manage **pheochromocytoma**, a condition that can cause symptoms like palpitations, sweating, and hypertension but usually not severe hypoglycemia.
- While pheochromocytoma can present with some similar symptoms, the patient's low blood glucose level clearly points to hypoglycemia as the primary acute issue, making phenoxybenzamine an inappropriate immediate treatment.
*Obtain an EEG*
- An **EEG (electroencephalogram)** is used to assess brain activity and diagnose seizure disorders or other neurological conditions. While the patient is seizing, the underlying cause is clearly identified as **hypoglycemia**.
- Obtaining an EEG would delay critical treatment for hypoglycemia and is not the appropriate first step in a patient with an acutely reversible metabolic cause for seizures.
*Administer intravenous lorazepam*
- **Intravenous lorazepam** is a benzodiazepine used to treat acute seizures. While the patient is seizing, the cause of the seizure is severe hypoglycemia.
- Treating the underlying hypoglycemia with dextrose will stop the seizure, making lorazepam unnecessary as the primary treatment unless the seizure persists after glucose correction.
*Administer intramuscular glucagon*
- **Intramuscular glucagon** is an appropriate treatment for severe hypoglycemia, particularly in an outpatient setting or when intravenous access is not immediately available.
- However, in a hospital setting with established IV access, **intravenous dextrose** is the preferred and more rapid method to deliver glucose directly into the bloodstream for immediate effect.
Question 810: A 38-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of increasing shortness of breath over the past 2 months. He reports experiencing an extended illness of several weeks as a child that required him to miss school. He is unsure but believes it involved a sore throat followed by a fever and joint pains. He does not recall seeing a physician or receiving treatment for this. Today, on physical examination, cardiac auscultation reveals an opening snap after the second heart sound followed by a diastolic murmur. A follow-up echocardiogram is conducted. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiology of this patient's condition?
A. Annular calcification
B. Congenital heart defect
C. Myocardial ischemia
D. Epitope homology (Correct Answer)
E. Atherosclerosis
Explanation: ***Epitope homology***
- The patient's history of a childhood illness involving a sore throat, fever, and joint pains strongly suggests **rheumatic fever**, which can lead to **rheumatic heart disease**.
- **Epitope homology** refers to the molecular mimicry between streptococcal M protein antigens and self-antigens in cardiac tissue, leading to an autoimmune response that damages heart valves, primarily the **mitral valve**, causing **mitral stenosis** (opening snap and diastolic murmur).
*Annular calcification*
- **Annular calcification** primarily affects the mitral annulus in elderly patients and is often associated with age-related degenerative changes.
- While it can cause mitral regurgitation or, less commonly, stenosis, it typically doesn't present with a history of childhood rheumatic fever.
*Congenital heart defect*
- **Congenital heart defects** are structural abnormalities present at birth, such as a bicuspid aortic valve, which can lead to murmurs.
- While they can cause shortness of breath, the patient's history of a specific childhood illness followed by delayed cardiac symptoms is more consistent with an acquired condition like rheumatic heart disease.
*Myocardial ischemia*
- **Myocardial ischemia** is due to reduced blood flow to the heart muscle, most commonly from coronary artery disease, leading to symptoms like angina or shortness of breath.
- It does not explain the audible **opening snap** or the specific **diastolic murmur** consistent with valvular stenosis, nor is it linked to a childhood illness involving a sore throat and joint pains.
*Atherosclerosis*
- **Atherosclerosis** is a systemic disease causing plaque buildup in arteries, leading to conditions like coronary artery disease or peripheral artery disease.
- It is not the direct cause of valvular heart disease characterized by an **opening snap** and **diastolic murmur** in the context of a prior rheumatic fever episode.