A 34-year-old man presents with multiple painful ulcers on his penis. He says that the ulcers all appeared suddenly at the same time 3 days ago. He reports that he is sexually active with multiple partners and uses condoms inconsistently. He is afebrile and his vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals multiple small shallow ulcers with an erythematous base and without discharge. There is significant inguinal lymphadenopathy present. Which of the following is the most likely etiologic agent of this patient’s ulcers?
Q782
A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a several-month history of heat intolerance. She lives in a small apartment with her husband and reports that she always feels hot and sweaty, even when their air conditioning is on high. On further questioning, she's also had a 4.5 kg (10 lb) unintentional weight loss. The vital signs include: heart rate 102/min and blood pressure 150/80 mm Hg. The physical exam is notable for warm and slightly moist skin. She also exhibits a fine tremor in her hands when her arms are outstretched. Which of the following laboratory values is most likely low in this patient?
Q783
A 64-year-old man presents with a complaint of prominent stiffness in his legs which is causing a difficulty in ambulation. He is not able to relax his trunk area and has frequent, painful muscle spasms. He denies diplopia, swallowing difficulties, and urinary or bowel problems. He has a medical history of stage IV lung cancer. He has received 4 sessions of chemotherapy. The neurological examination reveals an increased generalized muscle tone. He has a spastic gait with exaggerated lumbar lordosis. The needle electromyography (EMG) studies show continuous motor unit activity that persists at rest. Which paraneoplastic antibody is most likely associated with the symptoms of this patient?
Q784
A 55-year-old woman sees her family doctor for a follow-up appointment to discuss her imaging studies. She previously presented with chest pain and shortness of breath for the past 2 months. Her CT scan shows a 3.5 cm mass in the lower lobe of her right lung. The mass has irregular borders. Saddle/hilar lymph nodes are enlarged. No distant metastases are identified with PET imaging. The patient has been a smoker for over 35 years (1.5 packs per day), but she has recently quit. This patient is referred to the Pulmonary Diseases Center. What is the most effective step in appropriately managing her case?
Q785
A 67-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department for evaluation of fever, chest pain, and a cough that has produced a moderate amount of greenish-yellow sputum for the past 2 days. During this period, she has had severe malaise, chills, and difficulty breathing. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes, for which she takes lisinopril, atorvastatin, and metformin. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years. Her vital signs show her temperature is 39.0°C (102.2°F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 33/min, and blood pressure is 143/88 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 94%. Crackles are heard on auscultation of the right upper lobe. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 12,300/mm3, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 60 mm/h, and urea nitrogen of 15 mg/dL. A chest X-ray is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to manage this patient’s symptoms?
Q786
A 53-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider complaining of fatigue for the last several months. She reports feeling tired all day, regardless of her quality or quantity of sleep. On further questioning, she has also noted constipation and a 4.5 kg (10 lb) weight gain. She denies shortness of breath, chest pain, lightheadedness, or blood in her stool. At the doctor’s office, the vital signs include: pulse 58/min, blood pressure 104/68 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. The physical exam shows only slightly dry skin. The complete blood count (CBC) is within normal limits. Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of this patient's condition?
Q787
A 43-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of severe retrosternal pain radiating to the back and left shoulder for 4 hours. The pain began after attending a farewell party for his coworker at a local bar. He had 3–4 episodes of nonbilious vomiting before the onset of the pain. He has hypertension. His father died of cardiac arrest at the age of 55 years. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 23 years and drinks 2–3 beers daily. His current medications include amlodipine and valsartan. He appears pale. His temperature is 37° C (98.6° F), pulse is 115/min, and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. There are decreased breath sounds over the left base and crepitus is palpable over the thorax. Abdominal examination shows tenderness to palpation in the epigastric region; bowel sounds are normal. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 16.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 11,100/mm3
Serum
Na+ 133 mEq/L
K+ 3.2 mEq/L
Cl- 98 mEq/L
HCO3- 30 mEq/L
Creatinine 1.4 mg/dL
An ECG shows sinus tachycardia with left ventricular hypertrophy. Intravenous fluid resuscitation and antibiotics are begun. Which of the following is the most appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis in this patient?
Q788
A 57-year-old man presents to his primary care provider with progressive right foot swelling, redness, and malaise. He reports seeing a blister on his forefoot several months ago after he started using new work boots. He has dressed the affected area daily with bandages; however, healing has not occurred. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and stage 2 chronic kidney disease. He has smoked 20 to 30 cigarettes daily for the past 25 years. Vital signs are a temperature of 38.1°C (100.58°F), blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse of 102/minute. On physical examination, there is a malodorous right foot ulcer overlying the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Fluctuance and erythema extend 3 cm beyond the ulcer border. Moderate pitting edema is notable over the remaining areas of the foot and ankle. Which of the following is the best initial step for this patient?
Q789
A 40-year-old man comes to the physician because of weight gain over the past 3 months. During this period, he has gained 10 kg (22 lb) unintentionally. He also reports decreased sexual desire, oily skin, and sleeping difficulties. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 10 years. The patient appears lethargic. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg. Physical examination shows central obesity, acne, and thin, easily bruisable skin with stretch marks on the abdomen. There is darkening of the mucous membranes and the skin creases. Examination of the muscles shows atrophy and weakness of proximal muscle groups. His serum glucose concentration is 240 mg/dL. Which of the following findings would most likely be present on imaging?
Q790
A 26-year-old woman comes to the physician for a pre-employment examination. She has no complaints. She has a history of polycystic ovarian syndrome. She exercises daily and plays soccer recreationally on the weekends. Her mother was diagnosed with hypertension at a young age. She does not smoke and drinks 2 glasses of wine on the weekends. Her current medications include an oral contraceptive pill and a daily multivitamin. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Cardiac examination shows a grade 1/6 decrescendo diastolic murmur heard best at the left sternal border. Her lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Peripheral pulses are normal and there is no lower extremity edema. An electrocardiogram shows sinus rhythm with a normal axis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 781: A 34-year-old man presents with multiple painful ulcers on his penis. He says that the ulcers all appeared suddenly at the same time 3 days ago. He reports that he is sexually active with multiple partners and uses condoms inconsistently. He is afebrile and his vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals multiple small shallow ulcers with an erythematous base and without discharge. There is significant inguinal lymphadenopathy present. Which of the following is the most likely etiologic agent of this patient’s ulcers?
A. Human papillomavirus
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Haemophilus ducreyi
E. Herpes simplex virus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Herpes simplex virus***
- This patient's presentation of multiple **painful shallow ulcers** with an **erythematous base** that appeared suddenly, along with significant **inguinal lymphadenopathy**, is highly consistent with **genital herpes** caused by HSV.
- HSV lesions typically appear in **clusters** and are often painful, in contrast to the single, painless chancre of syphilis.
*Human papillomavirus*
- HPV infection primarily causes **genital warts (condyloma acuminata)**, which are usually soft, fleshy, and non-painful growths, not ulcers.
- While HPV can cause epithelial lesions, they are not typically described as painful, shallow ulcers.
*Chlamydia trachomatis*
- *Chlamydia trachomatis* typically causes **urethritis**, cervicitis, or **lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)**, the latter of which involves painful inguinal lymphadenopathy and sometimes secondary ulcers, but the initial lesion is often a small, transient, painless ulcer or papule.
- The sudden onset of multiple painful shallow ulcers is not characteristic of typical *C. trachomatis* infections.
*Treponema pallidum*
- *Treponema pallidum* (syphilis) causes a **painless, firm, singular chancre** in the primary stage, which is very different from the multiple painful shallow ulcers described.
- While syphilis can cause lymphadenopathy, the ulcer itself is usually not painful.
*Haemophilus ducreyi*
- *Haemophilus ducreyi* causes **chancroid**, which presents as **deep, painful ulcers** with ragged, undermined borders and frequently causes **suppurative (pus-forming) inguinal lymphadenopathy**.
- Although painful ulcers are present, the description of "shallow ulcers" with an erythematous base is less typical for chancroid.
Question 782: A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a several-month history of heat intolerance. She lives in a small apartment with her husband and reports that she always feels hot and sweaty, even when their air conditioning is on high. On further questioning, she's also had a 4.5 kg (10 lb) unintentional weight loss. The vital signs include: heart rate 102/min and blood pressure 150/80 mm Hg. The physical exam is notable for warm and slightly moist skin. She also exhibits a fine tremor in her hands when her arms are outstretched. Which of the following laboratory values is most likely low in this patient?
A. Triiodothyronine (T3)
B. Thyroxine (T4)
C. Calcitonin
D. Glucose
E. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Thyroid-stimulating hormone***
- The patient's symptoms (heat intolerance, weight loss, tachycardia, hypertension, warm/moist skin, fine tremor) are classic for **hyperthyroidism**.
- In primary hyperthyroidism, the thyroid gland overproduces T3 and T4, which **negatively feedbacks** on the pituitary, leading to a **low TSH** level.
*Triiodothyronine (T3)*
- In hyperthyroidism, **T3 levels are typically elevated**, not low, as the thyroid gland is overactive.
- T3 is one of the primary thyroid hormones responsible for the patient's metabolic symptoms.
*Thyroxine (T4)*
- In hyperthyroidism, **T4 levels are typically elevated**, not low, alongside T3.
- T4 is the other key thyroid hormone produced in excess, contributing to the hypermetabolic state.
*Calcitonin*
- Calcitonin is a hormone involved in **calcium regulation** and is produced by the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland.
- Its levels are not directly affected by hyperthyroidism and would not be consistently low in this scenario.
*Glucose*
- While hyperthyroidism can affect glucose metabolism, causing increased gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, it more commonly leads to **elevated or normal glucose levels**, not consistently low levels.
- Low glucose would typically suggest other conditions like insulinoma or adrenal insufficiency.
Question 783: A 64-year-old man presents with a complaint of prominent stiffness in his legs which is causing a difficulty in ambulation. He is not able to relax his trunk area and has frequent, painful muscle spasms. He denies diplopia, swallowing difficulties, and urinary or bowel problems. He has a medical history of stage IV lung cancer. He has received 4 sessions of chemotherapy. The neurological examination reveals an increased generalized muscle tone. He has a spastic gait with exaggerated lumbar lordosis. The needle electromyography (EMG) studies show continuous motor unit activity that persists at rest. Which paraneoplastic antibody is most likely associated with the symptoms of this patient?
A. Anti-Hu
B. Anti-Ri
C. Glutamic acid decarboxylase
D. Voltage-gated calcium channel
E. Amphiphysin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Amphiphysin***
- The patient's symptoms of **stiffness in the legs**, inability to relax the trunk, **painful muscle spasms**, and **continuous motor unit activity at rest** are characteristic of **Stiff-Person Syndrome (SPS)**.
- While Glutamic Acid Decarboxylase (GAD) is the most common antibody in classic SPS, **Amphiphysin antibodies** are strongly associated with **paraneoplastic SPS**, particularly in the context of **lung cancer** (as seen in this patient).
*Anti-Hu*
- **Anti-Hu antibodies** are primarily associated with paraneoplastic **encephalomyelitis** and **sensory neuronopathy**.
- Symptoms usually include multifocal neurological deficits, often with significant sensory loss, which is not the prominent feature in this case.
*Anti-Ri*
- **Anti-Ri antibodies** are linked to **paraneoplastic opsoclonus-myoclonus syndrome**, characterized by rapid, irregular eye movements (opsoclonus) and involuntary muscle jerks (myoclonus).
- These specific eye and movement disorders are not observed in the patient's presentation.
*Glutamic acid decarboxylase*
- Antibodies to **glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD)** are the most common autoantibodies found in **classic Stiff-Person Syndrome (SPS)**.
- However, in the context of a **paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung cancer**, amphiphysin antibodies are a more specific and likely cause.
*Voltage-gated calcium channel*
- Antibodies to **voltage-gated calcium channels** are characteristic of **Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS)**.
- LEMS typically presents with **proximal muscle weakness** that improves with activity and autonomic dysfunction, differentiating it from the spasticity and muscle spasms seen here.
Question 784: A 55-year-old woman sees her family doctor for a follow-up appointment to discuss her imaging studies. She previously presented with chest pain and shortness of breath for the past 2 months. Her CT scan shows a 3.5 cm mass in the lower lobe of her right lung. The mass has irregular borders. Saddle/hilar lymph nodes are enlarged. No distant metastases are identified with PET imaging. The patient has been a smoker for over 35 years (1.5 packs per day), but she has recently quit. This patient is referred to the Pulmonary Diseases Center. What is the most effective step in appropriately managing her case?
A. Paclitaxel
B. CT scan in 3 months
C. Sputum cytology
D. Radiotherapy
E. Tissue biopsy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Tissue biopsy***
- A **tissue biopsy** is the most effective step for definitive diagnosis of lung cancer, which is strongly suspected given the patient's smoking history, CT findings (irregular mass, enlarged hilar lymph nodes), and symptoms.
- This procedure allows for **histopathological examination** to confirm malignancy, determine the specific type of lung cancer, and guide further treatment decisions.
*Paclitaxel*
- **Paclitaxel** is a chemotherapy agent used in the treatment of various cancers, including lung cancer, but it is not the initial diagnostic step.
- Chemotherapy is administered *after* a definitive diagnosis is made and the stage of cancer is determined.
*CT scan in 3 months*
- Repeating a **CT scan in 3 months** would delay the diagnosis and treatment of a potentially aggressive cancer, which is not appropriate given the high suspicion of malignancy.
- While follow-up imaging is used in surveillance, it is not the appropriate first step for a suspicious new mass in a high-risk patient.
*Sputum cytology*
- **Sputum cytology** can sometimes detect lung cancer cells, especially in central tumors, but its sensitivity is generally low (around 30-50%) compared to tissue biopsy.
- Given the patient's 3.5 cm mass with irregular borders and enlarged lymph nodes, a more definitive diagnostic method is required.
*Radiotherapy*
- **Radiotherapy** is a treatment modality for lung cancer, either curative in early stages or palliative in advanced disease.
- Similar to chemotherapy, it is administered *after* a definitive diagnosis is established through biopsy and the disease stage and treatment goals are determined.
Question 785: A 67-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department for evaluation of fever, chest pain, and a cough that has produced a moderate amount of greenish-yellow sputum for the past 2 days. During this period, she has had severe malaise, chills, and difficulty breathing. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes, for which she takes lisinopril, atorvastatin, and metformin. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years. Her vital signs show her temperature is 39.0°C (102.2°F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 33/min, and blood pressure is 143/88 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 94%. Crackles are heard on auscultation of the right upper lobe. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 12,300/mm3, an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 60 mm/h, and urea nitrogen of 15 mg/dL. A chest X-ray is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to manage this patient’s symptoms?
A. Inpatient treatment with cefepime, azithromycin, and gentamicin
B. Inpatient treatment with azithromycin and ceftriaxone (Correct Answer)
C. Outpatient treatment with moxifloxacin
D. ICU admission and administration of ampicillin-sulbactam and levofloxacin
E. Inpatient treatment with vancomycin and meropenem
Explanation: ***Inpatient treatment with azithromycin and ceftriaxone***
- This patient presents with **community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)**, evidenced by fever, productive cough, crackles, leukocytosis, and an infiltrate on chest X-ray. Her CURB-65 score (Confusion, Urea >7 mmol/L or 19 mg/dL, Respiratory rate >30/min, Blood pressure <90/60 mmHg, Age >65) is 2 (Age >65, Respiratory rate >30/min), indicating a need for **inpatient management** but likely not ICU.
- The recommended empiric antibiotic regimen for inpatient CAP (non-ICU) without risk factors for *Pseudomonas* or MRSA is a **beta-lactam (e.g., ceftriaxone)** plus a **macrolide (e.g., azithromycin)**, or a respiratory fluoroquinolone alone.
*Inpatient treatment with cefepime, azithromycin, and gentamicin*
- This regimen includes **cefepime** and **gentamicin**, which are typically reserved for **hospital-acquired pneumonia**, healthcare-associated pneumonia, or severe pneumonia with risk factors for **Pseudomonas aeruginosa**, which are not clearly present here.
- **Triple therapy** with these broad-spectrum drugs is excessive for initially managing uncomplicated inpatient CAP.
*Outpatient treatment with moxifloxacin*
- This patient's **CURB-65 score of 2** (age >65, respiratory rate >33/min) indicates a **moderate-severity CAP**, necessitating inpatient treatment due to increased risk of mortality.
- Therefore, **outpatient management** is inappropriate, regardless of the antibiotic choice.
*ICU admission and administration of ampicillin-sulbactam and levofloxacin*
- Although the patient has CAP, her clinical picture (e.g., oxygen saturation 94% on room air, stable blood pressure) does not meet criteria for **severe CAP requiring ICU admission** (e.g., septic shock, mechanical ventilation, or >3 minor criteria).
- While ampicillin-sulbactam and levofloxacin cover common CAP pathogens, ICU admission is not justified based on the provided information.
*Inpatient treatment with vancomycin and meropenem*
- This combination is appropriate for **highly resistant pathogens** like **MRSA (vancomycin)** and **multidrug-resistant Gram-negative bacteria (meropenem)**, typically in patients with severe healthcare-associated infections or specific risk factors.
- There is no indication in the patient's history or presentation (e.g., recent hospitalization, IV drug use, or specific exposure) to warrant empiric anti-MRSA or anti-Pseudomonal coverage with this broad-spectrum regimen.
Question 786: A 53-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider complaining of fatigue for the last several months. She reports feeling tired all day, regardless of her quality or quantity of sleep. On further questioning, she has also noted constipation and a 4.5 kg (10 lb) weight gain. She denies shortness of breath, chest pain, lightheadedness, or blood in her stool. At the doctor’s office, the vital signs include: pulse 58/min, blood pressure 104/68 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. The physical exam shows only slightly dry skin. The complete blood count (CBC) is within normal limits. Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of this patient's condition?
A. Chronic blood loss
B. Bone marrow failure
C. Autoimmune attack on endocrine tissue (Correct Answer)
D. Nutritional deficiency
E. Iatrogenesis
Explanation: ***Autoimmune attack on endocrine tissue***
- The patient's symptoms of **fatigue**, **constipation**, **weight gain**, **bradycardia**, and dry skin are classic signs of **hypothyroidism**.
- The most common cause of hypothyroidism in developed countries is **Hashimoto's thyroiditis**, an **autoimmune disease** where the immune system attacks the thyroid gland (endocrine tissue).
*Chronic blood loss*
- This typically leads to **iron deficiency anemia**, which would likely manifest as a **low hemoglobin** or hematocrit on the CBC.
- While fatigue can be a symptom, constipation and weight gain are not typical presentations of chronic blood loss, and the CBC is within normal limits.
*Bone marrow failure*
- Bone marrow failure would result in **pancytopenia** (low red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets), which would be evident on the CBC.
- The patient's CBC is normal, ruling out this condition as the primary cause of her symptoms.
*Nutritional deficiency*
- While certain nutritional deficiencies (e.g., **Vitamin B12 deficiency**) can cause fatigue and constipation, they do not typically cause weight gain or bradycardia.
- The patient's symptom constellation points more specifically to an endocrine disorder.
*Iatrogenesis*
- Iatrogenic causes refer to conditions resulting from medical intervention or treatment.
- There is no information in the vignette to suggest any recent medical procedures or medications that would account for this specific constellation of symptoms.
Question 787: A 43-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of severe retrosternal pain radiating to the back and left shoulder for 4 hours. The pain began after attending a farewell party for his coworker at a local bar. He had 3–4 episodes of nonbilious vomiting before the onset of the pain. He has hypertension. His father died of cardiac arrest at the age of 55 years. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 23 years and drinks 2–3 beers daily. His current medications include amlodipine and valsartan. He appears pale. His temperature is 37° C (98.6° F), pulse is 115/min, and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. There are decreased breath sounds over the left base and crepitus is palpable over the thorax. Abdominal examination shows tenderness to palpation in the epigastric region; bowel sounds are normal. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 16.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 11,100/mm3
Serum
Na+ 133 mEq/L
K+ 3.2 mEq/L
Cl- 98 mEq/L
HCO3- 30 mEq/L
Creatinine 1.4 mg/dL
An ECG shows sinus tachycardia with left ventricular hypertrophy. Intravenous fluid resuscitation and antibiotics are begun. Which of the following is the most appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis in this patient?
A. Aortography
B. Transthoracic echocardiography
C. Abdominal ultrasound
D. CT scan of the chest (Correct Answer)
E. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
Explanation: ***CT scan of the chest***
- This patient's presentation of **severe retrosternal pain after forceful vomiting** (Mackler's triad: vomiting, chest pain, subcutaneous emphysema) strongly suggests **Boerhaave syndrome** (spontaneous esophageal perforation).
- The presence of **subcutaneous crepitus** (indicating pneumomediastinum) and **decreased breath sounds** (pleural effusion) are key findings.
- **CT scan of the chest with oral contrast is the gold standard** for diagnosing esophageal perforation, demonstrating **pneumomediastinum, pleural effusion, esophageal wall thickening**, and extravasation of contrast.
- CT is **highly sensitive (>90%) and specific**, non-invasive, and provides comprehensive evaluation of the mediastinum and pleural spaces.
*Esophagogastroduodenoscopy*
- While EGD can directly visualize esophageal mucosa, it is **relatively contraindicated** in suspected acute esophageal perforation.
- Insufflation during endoscopy risks **extending the perforation** and worsening mediastinal contamination.
- EGD may be considered after CT confirmation for therapeutic intervention or if diagnosis remains unclear, but is **not the initial confirmatory test**.
*Aortography*
- **Aortography** is used to diagnose aortic dissection, which can present with retrosternal pain radiating to the back.
- However, aortic dissection typically presents with **sudden tearing pain** without preceding vomiting, and would not explain the **crepitus** or timing after vomiting episodes.
- The clinical picture here is classic for esophageal perforation, not aortic pathology.
*Transthoracic echocardiography*
- **TTE** is useful for cardiac evaluation and can detect some aortic pathologies or pericardial effusion.
- It **cannot visualize the esophagus or mediastinum** adequately to diagnose esophageal perforation.
- While useful in ruling out cardiac causes of chest pain, it does not address the primary diagnosis suggested by this presentation.
*Abdominal ultrasound*
- **Abdominal ultrasound** evaluates intra-abdominal organs and free fluid but **cannot assess the esophagus or mediastinum**.
- It would miss the diagnosis of esophageal perforation entirely, as the pathology is located in the **thorax**, not the abdomen.
- Not useful for this clinical presentation despite epigastric tenderness.
Question 788: A 57-year-old man presents to his primary care provider with progressive right foot swelling, redness, and malaise. He reports seeing a blister on his forefoot several months ago after he started using new work boots. He has dressed the affected area daily with bandages; however, healing has not occurred. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and stage 2 chronic kidney disease. He has smoked 20 to 30 cigarettes daily for the past 25 years. Vital signs are a temperature of 38.1°C (100.58°F), blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse of 102/minute. On physical examination, there is a malodorous right foot ulcer overlying the first metatarsophalangeal joint. Fluctuance and erythema extend 3 cm beyond the ulcer border. Moderate pitting edema is notable over the remaining areas of the foot and ankle. Which of the following is the best initial step for this patient?
A. Minor amputation
B. Graded compression stockings
C. Antibiotics and supportive care (Correct Answer)
D. Superficial swabs
E. Endovascular intervention
Explanation: ***Antibiotics and supportive care***
- The patient presents with clear signs of **infection**, including fever, tachycardia, local erythema extending beyond the ulcer, fluctuance, and a malodorous ulcer, warranting immediate initiation of **empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics**.
- His history of **diabetes mellitus** and long-standing ulcer makes him highly susceptible to serious foot infections, including potential osteomyelitis, which requires prompt medical management to prevent progression and sepsis.
- **Supportive care** including wound care, glycemic control, and hemodynamic monitoring is essential alongside antibiotics.
*Minor amputation*
- While amputation might be considered in severe, limb-threatening infections or cases with extensive non-viable tissue, it is an **invasive procedure** and premature as an initial step when less invasive medical management has not yet been attempted.
- **Initial medical management** with antibiotics is crucial to control the infection before considering surgical interventions like amputation.
*Graded compression stockings*
- **Compression therapy** is typically used to manage chronic venous insufficiency or lymphedema, where the primary issue is venous hypertension or lymphatic fluid accumulation.
- In this patient, the prominent issue is an **active infection** with systemic signs, making compression stockings inappropriate as an initial intervention, as they do not address the infection and could potentially worsen tissue perfusion in the setting of arterial disease.
*Superficial swabs*
- Superficial swabs of ulcers are **unreliable** for identifying causative pathogens in deep-seated diabetic foot infections, as they typically only detect colonizing organisms rather than true pathogens.
- While appropriate **deep tissue cultures or bone biopsy** may be obtained to guide targeted therapy, empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics should be initiated immediately in a patient with systemic signs of infection rather than delaying treatment pending culture results.
- The best initial step is to start antibiotics first, with cultures obtained concurrently or shortly thereafter.
*Endovascular intervention*
- **Endovascular intervention** (e.g., angioplasty, stenting) addresses peripheral arterial disease (PAD) by improving blood flow to the limb, which is important for long-term wound healing in ischemic ulcers.
- However, the immediate priority in this patient is to **control the active infection**, which is manifesting with systemic inflammatory response. Revascularization may be considered later to aid healing once the infection is stabilized, as performing vascular procedures during acute infection carries increased risks of complications.
Question 789: A 40-year-old man comes to the physician because of weight gain over the past 3 months. During this period, he has gained 10 kg (22 lb) unintentionally. He also reports decreased sexual desire, oily skin, and sleeping difficulties. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 10 years. The patient appears lethargic. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg. Physical examination shows central obesity, acne, and thin, easily bruisable skin with stretch marks on the abdomen. There is darkening of the mucous membranes and the skin creases. Examination of the muscles shows atrophy and weakness of proximal muscle groups. His serum glucose concentration is 240 mg/dL. Which of the following findings would most likely be present on imaging?
A. Pituitary microadenoma (Correct Answer)
B. Decreased thyroid size
C. Multiple kidney cysts
D. Kidney tumor
E. Adrenal carcinoma
Explanation: ***Pituitary microadenoma***
* The patient's symptoms, including **weight gain, central obesity, oily skin, acne, thin and easily bruisable skin with stretch marks, proximal muscle weakness, hypertension, and hyperglycemia**, are classic for **Cushing's syndrome**.
* A common cause of Cushing's syndrome is **Cushing's disease**, which is caused by an **ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma** (often a microadenoma).
*Decreased thyroid size*
* **Decreased thyroid size** would be associated with conditions like **atrophic thyroiditis** or **iodine deficiency**, typically leading to **hypothyroidism**.
* **Hypothyroidism** would present with **weight gain** and **fatigue**, but not with **hypertension, hyperglycemia, central obesity, skin bruising, or proximal muscle weakness** as seen in this patient.
*Multiple kidney cysts*
* **Multiple kidney cysts** are characteristic of **polycystic kidney disease**, which can cause **hypertension** and sometimes **renal failure**.
* However, polycystic kidney disease does not typically cause **central obesity, skin changes (bruising, stretch marks, acne), proximal muscle weakness, or hyperglycemia** seen in this patient.
*Kidney tumor*
* A **kidney tumor** (e.g., **renal cell carcinoma**) can cause **hypertension** and **weight loss** but is not associated with the full spectrum of symptoms presented here like **central obesity, skin fragility, stretch marks, muscle atrophy, or hyperglycemia**.
* Some kidney tumors can produce **erythropoietin** leading to **polycythemia**, but not the endocrine features of Cushing's syndrome.
*Adrenal carcinoma*
* While an **adrenal carcinoma** can cause Cushing's syndrome by directly producing **cortisol**, it is typically a **large tumor** visible on imaging and often presents with more rapid and severe symptom onset.
* The presence of **skin darkening (hyperpigmentation)** in this patient, due to increased ACTH stimulation of melanocytes, suggests an **ACTH-dependent Cushing's syndrome**, making a pituitary adenoma more likely than a primary adrenal tumor which would suppress ACTH.
Question 790: A 26-year-old woman comes to the physician for a pre-employment examination. She has no complaints. She has a history of polycystic ovarian syndrome. She exercises daily and plays soccer recreationally on the weekends. Her mother was diagnosed with hypertension at a young age. She does not smoke and drinks 2 glasses of wine on the weekends. Her current medications include an oral contraceptive pill and a daily multivitamin. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Cardiac examination shows a grade 1/6 decrescendo diastolic murmur heard best at the left sternal border. Her lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Peripheral pulses are normal and there is no lower extremity edema. An electrocardiogram shows sinus rhythm with a normal axis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Exercise stress test
B. No further testing
C. CT scan of the chest with contrast
D. Transthoracic echocardiogram (Correct Answer)
E. X-ray of the chest
Explanation: ***Transthoracic echocardiogram***
- A **grade 1/6 decrescendo diastolic murmur** heard best at the **left sternal border** is consistent with **aortic regurgitation** and warrants further investigation with a **transthoracic echocardiogram** to evaluate for potential cardiac abnormalities, such as **bicuspid aortic valve** or **aortic regurgitation**, which can be congenital and lead to complications.
- Given the patient's young age, active lifestyle, and family history of hypertension, even a subtle cardiac finding should be thoroughly investigated to rule out underlying structural heart disease.
- **All diastolic murmurs are pathological** and require imaging evaluation.
*Exercise stress test*
- An **exercise stress test** is typically used to evaluate **ischemic heart disease** or exercise-induced arrhythmias, neither of which are suggested by the patient's presentation or murmur.
- It would not provide diagnostic information regarding the **etiology of a diastolic murmur**.
*No further testing*
- A **diastolic murmur** is almost always pathological and should be further investigated, even if the patient is asymptomatic.
- Ignoring a diastolic murmur could lead to delayed diagnosis and treatment of a potentially serious underlying cardiac condition.
*CT scan of the chest with contrast*
- A **CT scan of the chest** is not the primary imaging modality for evaluating heart murmurs.
- It is more commonly used for evaluating pulmonary diseases, aortic aneurysms, or aortic dissection, none of which are indicated here.
*X-ray of the chest*
- A **chest X-ray** can show gross cardiac enlargement or pulmonary congestion but will not provide the detailed anatomical and functional information needed to diagnose the cause of a diastolic murmur.
- It has low sensitivity for diagnosing specific valvular abnormalities.