A 57-year-old woman presents to her family physician because of sinusitis and nasal drainage for 3 months. The nasal drainage is purulent and occasionally hemorrhagic. She has only temporary improvement after trying multiple over the counter medications. Over the last 2 weeks, she also has fatigue and joint pain, mainly affecting the ankles, knees, and wrists. Vital signs include: temperature 36.9°C (98.4°F), blood pressure 142/91 mm Hg, and pulse 82/min. On examination, there is inflammation and bleeding of the nasal mucosa, along with tenderness to percussion over the maxillary sinuses. Urine dipstick reveals 4+ microscopic hematuria and 2+ proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q752
A 79-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband 20 minutes after losing consciousness. She was walking briskly with her husband when she collapsed suddenly. Her husband says that she regained consciousness after 1 minute. She has had episodes of mild chest pain for the past 2 months, especially when working in the garden. Physical examination shows a grade 3/6 systolic ejection murmur. The intensity of the murmur decreases with the handgrip maneuver and does not change with inspiration. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q753
A 21-year-old woman is evaluated for dry cough, shortness of breath, and chest tightness which occur episodically 1–2 times per week. She notes that she develops significant shortness of breath when running, especially during cool weather. She also says she has 1 episode of coughing attacks during the night per month. She denies any history of tobacco use. Medical history is significant for atopic dermatitis as a child, although she now rarely experiences skin flares. Family history is non-contributory. Vital signs include a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure of 115/75 mm Hg, and heart rate of 88/min. Her pulse oximetry is 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals normal air entry and no wheezes. A chest X-ray is normal. Spirometry findings are within normal parameters. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient’s condition?
Q754
A 47-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with pain in her right knee. She states that the pain started last night and rapidly worsened, prompting her presentation for care. The patient has a past medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis. Her current medications include corticosteroids, infliximab, ibuprofen, and aspirin. The patient denies any recent trauma to the joint. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 112/min, blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical exam, you note erythema and edema of the right knee. There is limited range of motion due to pain of the right knee.
Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
Q755
A 53-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of intermittent severe left neck, shoulder, and arm pain and paresthesias of the left hand. The pain radiates to the radial aspect of her left forearm, thumb, and index finger. She first noticed her symptoms after helping a friend set up a canopy tent. There is no family history of serious illness. She appears healthy. Vital signs are within normal limits. When the patient extends and rotates her head to the left and downward pressure is applied, she reports paresthesias along the radial aspect of her left forearm and thumb. There is weakness when extending the left wrist against resistance. The brachioradialis reflex is 1+ on the left and 2+ on the right. The radial pulse is palpable bilaterally. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q756
A 43-year-old man presents to his primary care provider with concerns about general weakness and decreased concentration over the past several months. He reports constipation and unintentional weight loss of about 9.1 kg (20 lb). The past medical history is noncontributory. He works as a bank manager and occasionally drinks alcohol but does not smoke tobacco. Today, the vital signs include blood pressure 145/90 mm Hg, heart rate 60/min, respiratory rate 19/min, and temperature 36.6°C (97.9°F). On physical examination, the patient looks fatigued. His heart has a regular rate and rhythm, and his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Laboratory studies show:
Calcium 14.5 mg/dL
Phosphate 2.2 mg/dL
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 18 pg/mL
Parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP) 4 pmol/L Normal value: < 2 pmol/L
Calcitriol 46 pg/mL Normal value: 25–65 pg/mL
T3 120 ng/mL
T4 10.2 mcg/dL
Taking into account the clinical and laboratory findings, what is the most likely cause of this patient's hypercalcemia?
Q757
A 49-year-old male presents to the emergency room with dyspnea and pulmonary edema. He reports that he has been smoking 2 packs a day for the past 25 years and has difficulty breathing during any sustained physical activity. His blood pressure is normal, and he reports a history of COPD. An echocardiogram was ordered as part of a cardiac workup. Which of the following would be the most likely finding?
Q758
A 42-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of episodic headaches involving both temples for 5 months. The patient has been taking acetaminophen, but it has not provided relief. He has also had double vision. Ophthalmic examination shows impaired peripheral vision bilaterally. Contrast MRI of the head shows a 14 x 10 x 8-mm intrasellar mass. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q759
A 65-year-old man presents to the physician for the evaluation of increasing dyspnea and swelling of the lower extremities over the past year. He has no cough. He also complains of frequent awakenings at night and excessive daytime sleepiness. He has no history of a serious illness. He takes no medications other than zolpidem before sleep. He is a 35-pack-year smoker. His blood pressure is 155/95 mm Hg. His BMI is 37 kg/m2. Oropharyngeal examination shows a small orifice and an enlarged tongue and uvula. The soft palate is low-lying. The examination of the nasal cavity shows no septal deviation or polyps. Symmetric pitting edema is seen below the knee, bilaterally. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Echocardiography shows a mildly dilated right ventricle and an elevated systolic pulmonary artery pressure with no abnormalities of the left heart. A ventilation-perfusion scan shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
Q760
A 30-year-old man presents to his primary care physician complaining of headaches. He states that over the past month he has been trying to study for an accounting exam, but he finds it increasingly more difficult to focus due to his headaches. He also complains of lower extremity muscle cramping. He has no significant past medical history and takes ibuprofen and acetaminophen as needed. The patient’s temperature is 98°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 168/108 mmHg, and pulse is 75/min. Labs are obtained, as shown below:
Serum:
pH (VBG): 7.50
Na: 146 mEq/L
K+: 3.2 mEq/L
Cl-: 104 mEq/L
HCO3-: 32 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen: 20 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Glucose: 85 mg/dL
An ultrasound reveals a hypoechoic lesion within the right adrenal gland. A 2 cm right-sided homogeneous adrenal mass is confirmed with computed tomography. Which of the following findings is associated with the patient’s most likely diagnosis?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 751: A 57-year-old woman presents to her family physician because of sinusitis and nasal drainage for 3 months. The nasal drainage is purulent and occasionally hemorrhagic. She has only temporary improvement after trying multiple over the counter medications. Over the last 2 weeks, she also has fatigue and joint pain, mainly affecting the ankles, knees, and wrists. Vital signs include: temperature 36.9°C (98.4°F), blood pressure 142/91 mm Hg, and pulse 82/min. On examination, there is inflammation and bleeding of the nasal mucosa, along with tenderness to percussion over the maxillary sinuses. Urine dipstick reveals 4+ microscopic hematuria and 2+ proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Correct Answer)
B. Polyarteritis nodosa
C. Churg-Strauss syndrome
D. Immunoglobulin A nephropathy
E. Sarcoidosis
Explanation: ***Granulomatosis with polyangiitis***
- This patient presents with **upper airway inflammation** (chronic sinusitis, hemorrhagic purulent nasal drainage, inflamed nasal mucosa), **joint pain**, and **renal involvement** (hematuria, proteinuria), which are classic features of granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), formerly known as Wegener's granulomatosis.
- GPA is a **small vessel vasculitis** often associated with **ANCA** (specifically PR3-ANCA/c-ANCA) and characterized by granulomatous inflammation of the respiratory tract and glomerulonephritis.
*Polyarteritis nodosa*
- **Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)** typically involves **medium-sized arteries** and presents with systemic symptoms, but it **spares the lungs** and **kidneys initially**, unlike the prominent renal and upper respiratory manifestations seen here.
- PAN is **not associated with ANCA** and does not typically involve the upper respiratory tract with granulomatous inflammation.
*Churg-Strauss syndrome*
- Also known as **Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (EGPA)**, this condition is characterized by **asthma**, **eosinophilia**, and **allergic rhinitis**, which are not the primary features in this patient.
- While it can involve the upper respiratory tract and kidneys, the absence of **asthma** and **high eosinophil count** makes it less likely.
*Immunoglobulin A nephropathy*
- This is a **primary glomerular disease** characterized by **IgA deposition** in the mesangium, presenting often with recurrent macroscopic hematuria following an upper respiratory or gastrointestinal infection.
- It does **not cause systemic vasculitis** with prominent upper airway inflammation, granulomas, or destructive sinusitis.
*Sarcoidosis*
- **Sarcoidosis** is a multi-system granulomatous disease, often affecting the lungs and lymph nodes, and sometimes the skin, eyes, and joints.
- While it can cause some nasal symptoms, it generally **does not cause destructive sinonasal disease** with purulent and hemorrhagic drainage or severe glomerulonephritis with 4+ hematuria, and it is **not a vasculitis**.
Question 752: A 79-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband 20 minutes after losing consciousness. She was walking briskly with her husband when she collapsed suddenly. Her husband says that she regained consciousness after 1 minute. She has had episodes of mild chest pain for the past 2 months, especially when working in the garden. Physical examination shows a grade 3/6 systolic ejection murmur. The intensity of the murmur decreases with the handgrip maneuver and does not change with inspiration. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Infected fibrin aggregates on the tricuspid valve
B. Dystrophic calcification on the aortic valve (Correct Answer)
C. Sterile platelet thrombi on the mitral valve
D. Granulomatous nodules on the mitral valve
E. Cystic medial degeneration of the aortic root
Explanation: ***Dystrophic calcification on the aortic valve***
- The patient's age (79 years), history of **exertional chest pain**, **syncopal episode**, and a **systolic ejection murmur** are classic signs of **aortic stenosis**.
- The decrease in murmur intensity with a **handgrip maneuver** (which increases afterload and reduces stroke volume in aortic stenosis) further supports this diagnosis, with **dystrophic calcification** being the most common cause of aortic stenosis in the elderly.
*Infected fibrin aggregates on the tricuspid valve*
- This description is consistent with **infective endocarditis** affecting the tricuspid valve, which typically occurs in intravenous drug users and presents with fever, chills, and symptoms of right-sided heart failure or septic emboli.
- The patient's history and symptoms are not suggestive of infective endocarditis, and a tricuspid murmur would typically be loudest during inspiration (Carvallo's sign), which is not observed here.
*Sterile platelet thrombi on the mitral valve*
- This describes **nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis** (NBTE), also known as marantic endocarditis, which is associated with hypercoagulable states, systemic lupus erythematosus, or advanced malignancy.
- While it can lead to embolic events, NBTE typically does not cause significant valvular obstruction resulting in a prominent systolic ejection murmur and exertional symptoms like those described.
*Granulomatous nodules on the mitral valve*
- This type of valvular lesion is characteristic of **rheumatic heart disease**, which is a consequence of acute rheumatic fever.
- While rheumatic heart disease commonly affects the mitral valve and can cause stenosis, the patient's age and acute presentation do not align with a primary diagnosis of new-onset severe rheumatic mitral valve disease, which usually manifests earlier in life or from long-standing disease.
*Cystic medial degeneration of the aortic root*
- This condition is associated with **aortic root dilation** and **aortic insufficiency** (regurgitation) rather than stenosis.
- It would typically result in a diastolic murmur and symptoms related to volume overload, which are not present in this patient's presentation of a systolic ejection murmur and syncopal episodes.
Question 753: A 21-year-old woman is evaluated for dry cough, shortness of breath, and chest tightness which occur episodically 1–2 times per week. She notes that she develops significant shortness of breath when running, especially during cool weather. She also says she has 1 episode of coughing attacks during the night per month. She denies any history of tobacco use. Medical history is significant for atopic dermatitis as a child, although she now rarely experiences skin flares. Family history is non-contributory. Vital signs include a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure of 115/75 mm Hg, and heart rate of 88/min. Her pulse oximetry is 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals normal air entry and no wheezes. A chest X-ray is normal. Spirometry findings are within normal parameters. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient’s condition?
A. Skin-prick testing
B. Methacholine challenge test (Correct Answer)
C. Sweat chloride test
D. Clinical observation without further evaluation
E. Ciliary studies
Explanation: ***Methacholine challenge test***
- This patient presents with classic symptoms of **asthma**, including episodic dry cough, shortness of breath, chest tightness, exercise-induced symptoms in cool weather, and nocturnal coughing. Given her normal spirometry but high suspicion for asthma, a **methacholine challenge test** is the most appropriate next step to confirm **bronchial hyperreactivity** [1].
- A positive methacholine challenge test (a decrease in FEV1 by ≥20% at a methacholine concentration of ≤16 mg/mL) would confirm the diagnosis of asthma [1].
*Skin-prick testing*
- While helpful in identifying **allergic triggers** for asthma, skin-prick testing does not directly diagnose asthma itself or assess the degree of bronchial hyperreactivity [2].
- Identifying allergens is secondary to establishing the diagnosis of asthma and would be considered after a confirmed diagnosis, if allergic asthma is suspected [2].
*Sweat chloride test*
- A **sweat chloride test** is used to diagnose **cystic fibrosis**, a condition typically presenting with recurrent respiratory infections, pancreatic insufficiency, and failure to thrive, none of which are described in this patient.
- The patient's symptoms are episodic and responsive to specific triggers, unlike the persistent symptoms of cystic fibrosis.
*Clinical observation without further evaluation*
- Given the patient's classic and frequent symptoms, along with a significant impact on her daily life (exercise limitation, nocturnal symptoms), further evaluation is warranted to establish a definitive diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment.
- Without a diagnosis, the patient's symptoms could worsen or lead to complications, especially since her symptoms are suggestive of a treatable condition like asthma [3].
*Ciliary studies*
- **Ciliary studies** are used to diagnose **primary ciliary dyskinesia (PCD)**, a rare genetic disorder characterized by chronic sinopulmonary infections, situs inversus, and infertility.
- The patient's presentation with episodic symptoms and specific triggers is not consistent with the chronic, progressive nature of PCD.
Question 754: A 47-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with pain in her right knee. She states that the pain started last night and rapidly worsened, prompting her presentation for care. The patient has a past medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis. Her current medications include corticosteroids, infliximab, ibuprofen, and aspirin. The patient denies any recent trauma to the joint. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 112/min, blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical exam, you note erythema and edema of the right knee. There is limited range of motion due to pain of the right knee.
Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
A. Conservative therapy
B. Broad spectrum antibiotics
C. Surgical drainage
D. Aspiration (Correct Answer)
E. CT scan
Explanation: ***Aspiration***
- The patient's presentation with acute, severe **monoarticular arthritis**, especially in the context of **immunosuppressive medications** (corticosteroids, infliximab) and a history of rheumatoid arthritis (which increases the risk), strongly suggests **septic arthritis**.
- **Joint aspiration** is the most crucial initial diagnostic and therapeutic step to confirm the diagnosis (via synovial fluid analysis for cell count, gram stain, culture) and guide subsequent treatment immediately.
*Conservative therapy*
- This approach, involving rest, ice, compression, and elevation, is generally insufficient and potentially harmful when an **infectious etiology** like septic arthritis is suspected.
- Delaying definitive diagnosis and treatment for septic arthritis can lead to rapid **joint destruction** and systemic complications.
*Broad spectrum antibiotics*
- While antibiotics are critical for treating septic arthritis, they should be initiated **after joint aspiration** and Gram stain results to optimize treatment based on the most likely pathogen.
- Administering antibiotics prior to aspiration may **sterilize the joint fluid**, making culture results unreliable and hindering pathogen identification.
*Surgical drainage*
- **Surgical drainage** is indicated for septic arthritis that does not respond to conservative aspiration and antibiotics, or if there are extensive loculations or involvement of prosthetic joints.
- It is not the **initial step** in management for acute septic arthritis unless complications are already present or aspiration is unsuccessful.
*CT scan*
- A CT scan can assess **bone or soft tissue damage** or detect foreign bodies, but it is not the initial or most definitive diagnostic tool for septic arthritis.
- **Arthrocentesis** (aspiration) is superior for diagnosing joint infection by directly analyzing synovial fluid.
Question 755: A 53-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of intermittent severe left neck, shoulder, and arm pain and paresthesias of the left hand. The pain radiates to the radial aspect of her left forearm, thumb, and index finger. She first noticed her symptoms after helping a friend set up a canopy tent. There is no family history of serious illness. She appears healthy. Vital signs are within normal limits. When the patient extends and rotates her head to the left and downward pressure is applied, she reports paresthesias along the radial aspect of her left forearm and thumb. There is weakness when extending the left wrist against resistance. The brachioradialis reflex is 1+ on the left and 2+ on the right. The radial pulse is palpable bilaterally. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Carpal tunnel syndrome
B. Syringomyelia
C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D. C5-C6 disc herniation (Correct Answer)
E. Thoracic outlet syndrome
Explanation: ***C5-C6 disc herniation***
- The patient's symptoms of neck, shoulder, and arm pain, along with paresthesias radiating to the **radial aspect of the forearm, thumb, and index finger**, are consistent with **C6 dermatomal distribution**.
- The positive **Spurling's maneuver** (extension, rotation, and downward pressure causing paresthesias) and decreased **brachioradialis reflex** (C5-C6 reflex) strongly suggest **cervical radiculopathy**, most likely due to a disc herniation affecting the C6 nerve root.
*Carpal tunnel syndrome*
- Characterized by **median nerve compression** at the wrist, causing paresthesias and pain primarily in the **thumb, index, middle, and radial half of the ring finger**, typically worsening at night.
- Would not explain the neck, shoulder, or upper arm pain, or the positive Spurling's maneuver, which indicates a more proximal nerve root compression.
*Syringomyelia*
- A rare chronic progressive disorder where a **syrinx (fluid-filled cyst)** forms within the spinal cord, often presenting with a **cape-like distribution of sensory loss** (loss of pain and temperature sensation) over the shoulders and upper extremities.
- Motor weakness can occur but the pain and paresthesia pattern, along with the positive Spurling's maneuver, are not typical for syringomyelia.
*Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis*
- A progressive neurodegenerative disease affecting **upper and lower motor neurons**, leading to widespread muscle weakness, atrophy, fasciculations, and spasticity.
- It does not typically present with acute, radicular pain and paresthesias restricted to a specific dermatome, and sensory involvement is absent.
*Thoracic outlet syndrome*
- Involves compression of the **brachial plexus** and/or subclavian vessels in the thoracic outlet, causing neurogenic symptoms (pain, paresthesias) primarily in the **ulnar nerve distribution** and vascular symptoms (edema, discoloration).
- The pain and paresthesias in the radial aspect of the hand and forearm, along with the specific reflex changes and positive neck maneuver, are not characteristic of thoracic outlet syndrome.
Question 756: A 43-year-old man presents to his primary care provider with concerns about general weakness and decreased concentration over the past several months. He reports constipation and unintentional weight loss of about 9.1 kg (20 lb). The past medical history is noncontributory. He works as a bank manager and occasionally drinks alcohol but does not smoke tobacco. Today, the vital signs include blood pressure 145/90 mm Hg, heart rate 60/min, respiratory rate 19/min, and temperature 36.6°C (97.9°F). On physical examination, the patient looks fatigued. His heart has a regular rate and rhythm, and his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Laboratory studies show:
Calcium 14.5 mg/dL
Phosphate 2.2 mg/dL
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) 18 pg/mL
Parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP) 4 pmol/L Normal value: < 2 pmol/L
Calcitriol 46 pg/mL Normal value: 25–65 pg/mL
T3 120 ng/mL
T4 10.2 mcg/dL
Taking into account the clinical and laboratory findings, what is the most likely cause of this patient's hypercalcemia?
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Hypervitaminosis D
C. Malignancy (Correct Answer)
D. Thyrotoxicosis
E. Chronic kidney disease
Explanation: **Malignancy**
- The patient exhibits significant **hypercalcemia (14.5 mg/dL)**, **low normal PTH (18 pg/mL)**, elevated **PTHrP (4 pmol/L)**, and **unintentional weight loss**, all of which are highly suggestive of **humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (HHM)**. PTHrP acts like PTH, leading to increased calcium reabsorption from bones and kidneys.
- The constellation of **weakness, decreased concentration, constipation**, and especially the **unexplained weight loss**, are classic paraneoplastic symptoms often associated with underlying malignancy, as opposed to primary endocrine disorders.
*Hyperparathyroidism*
- This condition is characterized by **elevated PTH levels** (typically > 65 pg/mL) in the presence of hypercalcemia, which is not seen here as the PTH is low normal.
- While it causes hypercalcemia, it typically does **not present with elevated PTHrP** or significant unexplained weight loss.
*Hypervitaminosis D*
- This would present with **elevated calcitriol (1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D)** levels, but in this patient, calcitriol is within the normal range.
- PTH levels would be suppressed, but **PTHrP would not be elevated**, which is a key differentiator in this case.
*Thyrotoxicosis*
- While hypercalcemia can sometimes be a feature of hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis) due to increased bone turnover, it is usually **mild** and less severe than observed here (14.5 mg/dL).
- The patient's **T3 and T4 levels are within the normal range**, ruling out hyperthyroidism as the cause of hypercalcemia.
*Chronic kidney disease*
- In chronic kidney disease, hypercalcemia is less common; **hypocalcemia is more typical** due to impaired vitamin D activation and phosphate retention.
- While PTH can be elevated in secondary hyperparathyroidism of CKD, it would be in response to hypocalcemia, and **PTHrP would not be elevated**.
Question 757: A 49-year-old male presents to the emergency room with dyspnea and pulmonary edema. He reports that he has been smoking 2 packs a day for the past 25 years and has difficulty breathing during any sustained physical activity. His blood pressure is normal, and he reports a history of COPD. An echocardiogram was ordered as part of a cardiac workup. Which of the following would be the most likely finding?
A. Right ventricular hypertrophy (Correct Answer)
B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
C. Mitral valve insufficiency
D. Right atrial enlargement
E. Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation: ***Right ventricular hypertrophy***
- The patient's history of **COPD** and heavy smoking leads to **pulmonary hypertension**, which increases the afterload on the right ventricle, causing it to hypertrophy.
- While the patient has pulmonary edema, the normal blood pressure and history of COPD point toward **cor pulmonale**, where RVH is a hallmark, rather than primary left-sided heart failure.
*Left ventricular hypertrophy*
- **Left ventricular hypertrophy** is typically caused by systemic hypertension, aortic stenosis, or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, none of which are strongly suggested here.
- The patient's **normal blood pressure** makes LVH due to chronic hypertension less likely.
*Mitral valve insufficiency*
- **Mitral valve insufficiency** would primarily cause pulmonary edema due to backflow into the left atrium and pulmonary veins, but it is not directly linked to the patient's COPD and smoking history.
- Clinical findings such as a **pansystolic murmur** and specific echocardiographic evidence of valvular dysfunction are not mentioned.
*Right atrial enlargement*
- **Right atrial enlargement** often accompanies right ventricular hypertrophy due to increased pressure and volume load, but RVH is the more direct consequence of chronic pulmonary hypertension.
- While possible, it is secondary to the elevated right ventricular pressure and usually seen with significant RV remodeling.
*Tricuspid regurgitation*
- **Tricuspid regurgitation** can develop secondary to severe pulmonary hypertension and right ventricular dilation, but it is a consequence of RV dysfunction, not the primary finding.
- The initial compensatory mechanism to increased afterload is **RV hypertrophy**, which precedes significant dilation and regurgitation.
Question 758: A 42-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of episodic headaches involving both temples for 5 months. The patient has been taking acetaminophen, but it has not provided relief. He has also had double vision. Ophthalmic examination shows impaired peripheral vision bilaterally. Contrast MRI of the head shows a 14 x 10 x 8-mm intrasellar mass. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Polyuria
B. Impotence (Correct Answer)
C. Galactorrhea
D. Macroglossia
E. Diarrhea
Explanation: ***Impotence***
- The patient's symptoms of **headaches**, **double vision**, and **impaired peripheral vision** with a **14x10x8 mm intrasellar mass** are consistent with a **prolactinoma**, the most common functional pituitary adenoma.
- In **men**, hyperprolactinemia from prolactinomas most commonly presents with **hypogonadotropic hypogonadism**, causing **decreased libido**, **erectile dysfunction (impotence)**, and **infertility**.
- Elevated prolactin suppresses **GnRH secretion**, leading to decreased **LH and FSH**, resulting in low testosterone levels and sexual dysfunction.
- **Impotence is the most likely finding** in a male patient with a prolactinoma of this size.
*Galactorrhea*
- While galactorrhea is a classic manifestation of hyperprolactinemia in **women**, it is **rare in men** due to lack of developed breast tissue.
- When it occurs in men, it is usually with very high prolactin levels and is less common than sexual dysfunction.
- This would not be the "most likely" finding in a male patient with prolactinoma.
*Polyuria*
- Polyuria suggests **diabetes insipidus** from posterior pituitary dysfunction or compression of the pituitary stalk.
- While large pituitary masses can cause this, it is not the primary manifestation of a **prolactinoma**.
- More commonly seen with infiltrative lesions or after pituitary surgery.
*Macroglossia*
- **Macroglossia** is a feature of **acromegaly**, caused by excess **growth hormone** secretion from a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma.
- The patient shows no other acromegalic features (frontal bossing, hand/foot enlargement, prognathism).
- Not consistent with the clinical presentation of a prolactinoma.
*Diarrhea*
- Diarrhea is not a typical manifestation of pituitary adenomas including prolactinomas.
- No direct pathophysiologic link between hyperprolactinemia and gastrointestinal symptoms exists.
Question 759: A 65-year-old man presents to the physician for the evaluation of increasing dyspnea and swelling of the lower extremities over the past year. He has no cough. He also complains of frequent awakenings at night and excessive daytime sleepiness. He has no history of a serious illness. He takes no medications other than zolpidem before sleep. He is a 35-pack-year smoker. His blood pressure is 155/95 mm Hg. His BMI is 37 kg/m2. Oropharyngeal examination shows a small orifice and an enlarged tongue and uvula. The soft palate is low-lying. The examination of the nasal cavity shows no septal deviation or polyps. Symmetric pitting edema is seen below the knee, bilaterally. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Echocardiography shows a mildly dilated right ventricle and an elevated systolic pulmonary artery pressure with no abnormalities of the left heart. A ventilation-perfusion scan shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
B. Pulmonary thromboembolism
C. Idiopathic pulmonary artery hypertension
D. Obstructive sleep apnea (Correct Answer)
E. Heart failure with a preserved ejection fraction
Explanation: ***Obstructive sleep apnea***
- This patient's symptoms of **dyspnea, lower extremity swelling, frequent nocturnal awakenings, and excessive daytime sleepiness**, in conjunction with **obesity (BMI 37)**, **hypertension**, and specific **oropharyngeal abnormalities** (small orifice, enlarged tongue and uvula, low-lying soft palate), are highly suggestive of **obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)**.
- The echocardiographic findings of a **mildly dilated right ventricle** and **elevated systolic pulmonary artery pressure** (cor pulmonale) without left heart abnormalities are a common consequence of chronic hypoxia and hypercapnia associated with severe OSA.
*Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease*
- While the patient is a 35-pack-year smoker, the absence of a **cough** and **clear lungs to auscultation** make COPD less likely.
- A Ventilation-Perfusion scan showing **no abnormalities** further decreases the likelihood of significant parenchymal lung disease often seen in COPD.
*Pulmonary thromboembolism*
- Although dyspnea is a symptom of pulmonary thromboembolism, the **insidious onset over a year** and the absence of acute symptoms like pleuritic chest pain or hemoptysis make it unlikely.
- A **normal ventilation-perfusion scan** effectively rules out significant pulmonary thromboembolism.
*Idiopathic pulmonary artery hypertension*
- This diagnosis typically presents with **progressive dyspnea** and signs of **right heart failure**, similar to the patient's presentation.
- However, the patient's severe **risk factors for OSA (obesity, oropharyngeal features)** provide a more specific and likely underlying cause for the observed pulmonary hypertension, rather than idiopathic.
*Heart failure with a preserved ejection fraction*
- This condition is characterized by dyspnea and edema with normal or near-normal left ventricular ejection fraction.
- However, the echocardiogram specifically states **no abnormalities of the left heart**, which would typically show some signs of diastolic dysfunction in HFpEF. The primary findings point to right heart strain.
Question 760: A 30-year-old man presents to his primary care physician complaining of headaches. He states that over the past month he has been trying to study for an accounting exam, but he finds it increasingly more difficult to focus due to his headaches. He also complains of lower extremity muscle cramping. He has no significant past medical history and takes ibuprofen and acetaminophen as needed. The patient’s temperature is 98°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 168/108 mmHg, and pulse is 75/min. Labs are obtained, as shown below:
Serum:
pH (VBG): 7.50
Na: 146 mEq/L
K+: 3.2 mEq/L
Cl-: 104 mEq/L
HCO3-: 32 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen: 20 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Glucose: 85 mg/dL
An ultrasound reveals a hypoechoic lesion within the right adrenal gland. A 2 cm right-sided homogeneous adrenal mass is confirmed with computed tomography. Which of the following findings is associated with the patient’s most likely diagnosis?
A. Low plasma renin (Correct Answer)
B. High plasma renin
C. Low aldosterone level
D. High adrenocorticotropic hormone
E. Elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone
Explanation: ***Low plasma renin***
- The patient's presentation of hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and an adrenal mass strongly points towards **primary hyperaldosteronism**, often caused by an aldosterone-producing adrenal adenoma (Conn's syndrome).
- In primary hyperaldosteronism, the excess aldosterone production by the adrenal gland occurs **independently of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system**, leading to **suppression of renin secretion** due to negative feedback inhibition.
- This is the key diagnostic finding: **low plasma renin with elevated aldosterone**, resulting in an elevated aldosterone-to-renin ratio.
*High plasma renin*
- This would be expected in **secondary hyperaldosteronism**, where a condition outside the adrenal gland (e.g., renal artery stenosis, renovascular hypertension) stimulates renin production, which then drives aldosterone synthesis.
- Given the **adrenal mass** and **low potassium**, primary hyperaldosteronism is more likely, in which renin should be suppressed, not elevated.
*Low aldosterone level*
- The patient's symptoms (hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, muscle cramping) are classic signs of **aldosterone excess**, not deficiency.
- A **hypoechoic adrenal lesion** further supports the diagnosis of an aldosteronoma, which produces too much aldosterone.
- Low aldosterone would cause hyperkalemia and hypotension, not the findings seen here.
*High adrenocorticotropic hormone*
- **ACTH primarily regulates cortisol production** and, to a lesser extent, adrenal androgens. It does not directly regulate aldosterone production in primary hyperaldosteronism.
- Conditions like **Cushing's disease** (due to a pituitary adenoma) would cause high ACTH leading to high cortisol, presenting with different features such as central obesity, striae, and glucose intolerance.
- Aldosterone secretion is primarily regulated by the renin-angiotensin system and serum potassium, not ACTH.
*Elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone*
- Elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone is characteristic of **congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)**, particularly **21-hydroxylase deficiency**, the most common form.
- CAH presents with different clinical features including **ambiguous genitalia** in females, **virilization**, salt wasting, or hypertension with hypokalemia in 11β-hydroxylase deficiency (not 21-hydroxylase deficiency).
- This patient's presentation with an isolated adrenal adenoma and classic hyperaldosteronism findings does not suggest CAH.