A 37-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with constipation and abdominal pain. She notes that the pain has been present for several days and is not related to food. She also reports increased urinary frequency without incontinence, as well as increased thirst. She takes no medications, but notes taking vitamin supplements daily. Her vital signs are: BP 130/72 mmHg, HR 82 bpm, T 97.0 degrees F, and RR 12 bpm. Lab studies reveal: Na 139, K 4.1, Cl 104, HCO3 25, Cr 0.9, and Ca 12.4. Further studies show an increased ionized calcium, decreased PTH, and normal phosphate. What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q722
A 34-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. She was walking on the sidewalk when a car traveling at high speed knocked her off her feet. She did not sustain any obvious injury but has painful breathing. An X-ray of the chest is taken to exclude a rib fracture and contusion of the lungs. The X-ray is found to be normal except for a solitary calcified nodule located in the left hilar region. The physician then asks the patient if she is or was a smoker, or has any pertinent medical history to explain the nodule. Her past medical history is insignificant, including any previous lung infections. Physical examination does not reveal any significant signs indicative of a tumor. A chest CT is ordered and a solitary nodule of 0.5 cm is confirmed. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Q723
A 13-year-old girl presents after losing consciousness during class 30 minutes ago. According to her friends, she was doing okay since morning, and nobody noticed anything abnormal. The patient’s mother says that her daughter does not have any medical conditions. She also says that the patient has always been healthy but has recently lost weight even though she was eating as usual. Her vital signs are a blood pressure of 100/78 mm Hg, a pulse of 89/min, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99.0°F). Her breathing is rapid but shallow. Fingerstick glucose is 300 mg/dL. Blood is drawn for additional lab tests, and she is started on intravenous insulin and normal saline. Which of the following HLA subtypes is associated with this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
Q724
A 58-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of recurring chest discomfort. The symptoms occur when walking up the stairs to her apartment or when walking quickly for 5 minutes on level terrain. She has not had shortness of breath, palpitations, or dizziness. She has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Current medications include estrogen replacement therapy, metoprolol, amlodipine, lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, and rosuvastatin. She drinks 3–4 cups of coffee per day. She does not drink alcohol. Her pulse is 65/min, respirations are 21/min, and blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A resting ECG shows normal sinus rhythm. She is scheduled for a cardiac exercise stress test in 2 days. Discontinuation of which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management at this time?
Q725
A previously healthy 21-year-old man is brought to the emergency department for the evaluation of an episode of unconsciousness that suddenly happened while playing football 30 minutes ago. He was not shaking and regained consciousness after about 30 seconds. Over the past three months, the patient has had several episodes of shortness of breath while exercising as well as sensations of a racing heart. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. He takes no medications. His vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, he is oriented to person, place, and time. Cardiac examination shows a systolic ejection murmur that increases with valsalva maneuver and standing and an S4 gallop. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. An ECG shows a deep S wave in lead V1 and tall R waves in leads V5 and V6. Echocardiography is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q726
A 26-year-old woman presents with blood in her urine for the past 2 days. She says she has had increasing urinary frequency at night for the past several days and recently noticed a reddish tinge in her urine. She is also concerned that her feet are beginning to swell, and she has been feeling increasingly fatigued for the past week. She gives no history of joint pains, rashes, or skin changes. Past medical history is relevant for an occasional bluish discoloration of her fingers during exposure to cold. Her vital signs are a pulse of 80/min, a respiratory rate of 14/min, and blood pressure of 140/88 mm Hg. On physical examination, the patient has 1+ pitting edema of her feet bilaterally. Remainder of examination is unremarkable. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Serum glucose (fasting) 88 mg/dL
Sodium 143 mEq/L
Potassium 3.7 mEq/L
Chloride 102 mEq/L
Serum creatinine 1.7 mg/dL
Blood urea nitrogen 32 mg/dL
Cholesterol, total 180 mg/dL
HDL-cholesterol 43 mg/dL
LDL-cholesterol 75 mg/dL
Triglycerides 135 mg/dL
Hemoglobin (Hb%) 12.5 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 80 fL
Reticulocyte count 1%
Erythrocyte count 5.1 million/mm3
Thyroid stimulating hormone 4.5 μU/mL
Urinalysis:
Glucose negative
Protein +++
Ketones negative
Nitrites negative
RBCs negative
Casts +++
A renal biopsy is performed which reveals findings consistent with lupus nephritis. Which of the following is the next best step in treatment of this patient?
Q727
A 66-year-old woman with no significant past medical, past surgical, or family history presents with new symptoms of chest pain, an oral rash, and pain with swallowing. She lost her husband several months earlier and has moved into an elderly assisted living community. She states that her symptoms began several weeks earlier. Physical examination reveals numerous white plaques on her buccal mucosa and tongue, raising suspicion for oral candidiasis. What is the next step in the patient’s management?
Q728
A 24-year-old man comes to the physician because of severe lower back pain for the past 2 days. The pain is constant and non-radiating, and he describes it as 7 out of 10 in intensity. The pain began after he helped a friend move into a new apartment. Three weeks ago, he was diagnosed with urethritis and was treated with azithromycin and ceftriaxone. He has a history of intravenous heroin use. He takes no medications. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 128/90 mm Hg. Examination shows old track marks on the cubital fossae bilaterally. His lumbar paraspinal muscles are firm and tense on palpation. There is no midline spinal tenderness. Flexing the hip and extending the knee while raising the leg to 70° does not cause any pain. Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q729
A 21-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of dry cough and some chest tightness for the past several weeks. The cough is worse at night and while playing volleyball. She frequently has a runny nose and nasal congestion. Her mother has systemic lupus erythematosus. The patient has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 5 years. She does not drink alcohol. Her only medication is cetirizine. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 98%. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q730
A 50-year-old man with a remote history of intravenous drug use and a past medical history of AIDS presents to his primary care provider with several weeks of productive cough and a mild fever. He was in his normal state of health and slowly started to develop these symptoms. He is hoping to be prescribed an antibiotic so he can get back to “normal”. Family history is significant for cardiovascular disease and diabetes. He takes antiviral medication and a multivitamin daily. His heart rate is 90/min, respiratory rate is 19/min, blood pressure is 135/85 mm Hg, and temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F). On physical examination, he looks uncomfortable. A chest examination reveals consolidation in the right lower lung. Chest radiography confirms right lower lobe pneumonia. Of the following options, which is the most likely cause of the patient’s pneumonia?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 721: A 37-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with constipation and abdominal pain. She notes that the pain has been present for several days and is not related to food. She also reports increased urinary frequency without incontinence, as well as increased thirst. She takes no medications, but notes taking vitamin supplements daily. Her vital signs are: BP 130/72 mmHg, HR 82 bpm, T 97.0 degrees F, and RR 12 bpm. Lab studies reveal: Na 139, K 4.1, Cl 104, HCO3 25, Cr 0.9, and Ca 12.4. Further studies show an increased ionized calcium, decreased PTH, and normal phosphate. What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Vitamin overdose (Correct Answer)
B. Vitamin deficiency
C. Inherited disorder
D. Plasma cell neoplasm
E. Primary endocrine dysfunction
Explanation: ***Vitamin overdose***
- The patient's symptoms of **constipation**, **abdominal pain**, **increased urinary frequency**, and **thirst** are classic signs of **hypercalcemia**.
- The lab findings of **hypercalcemia (Ca 12.4)**, **increased ionized calcium**, **decreased PTH**, and increased phosphate, coupled with a history of daily vitamin supplements, strongly suggest **Vitamin D toxicity** from overdose, which leads to increased calcium absorption and bone resorption.
*Vitamin deficiency*
- Vitamin deficiencies typically do not cause **hypercalcemia**; in fact, severe **Vitamin D deficiency** can lead to **hypocalcemia** and **secondary hyperparathyroidism**.
- Symptoms associated with common vitamin deficiencies (e.g., scurvy, rickets) are not consistent with this patient's presentation.
*Inherited disorder*
- While some **inherited disorders** (e.g., **Familial Hypocalciuric Hypercalcemia**) can cause hypercalcemia, the distinguishing feature is typically a **normal or mildly elevated PTH** and **low urinary calcium excretion**, which is not entirely aligned with the presented PTH and phosphate levels and the acute onset suggested by symptoms.
- The patient's history of **vitamin supplement** use provides a more direct and likely explanation for acute hypercalcemia.
*Plasma cell neoplasm*
- **Plasma cell neoplasms** like **multiple myeloma** can cause **hypercalcemia** due to increased bone resorption from osteoclast-activating factors.
- However, hypercalcemia from these conditions is often accompanied by other signs of malignancy such as **renal failure**, **anemia**, or **bone lesions**, which are not reported in this case, and the **decreased PTH** points away from malignancy-associated humorally mediated hypercalcemia.
*Primary endocrine dysfunction*
- **Primary hyperparathyroidism** is a common cause of **hypercalcemia**, but it is characterized by **elevated or inappropriately normal PTH levels** in the presence of hypercalcemia, which contradicts the **decreased PTH** found in this patient.
- Other endocrine causes of hypercalcemia, such as **thyrotoxicosis** or **adrenal insufficiency**, present with distinct clinical features not described here.
Question 722: A 34-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. She was walking on the sidewalk when a car traveling at high speed knocked her off her feet. She did not sustain any obvious injury but has painful breathing. An X-ray of the chest is taken to exclude a rib fracture and contusion of the lungs. The X-ray is found to be normal except for a solitary calcified nodule located in the left hilar region. The physician then asks the patient if she is or was a smoker, or has any pertinent medical history to explain the nodule. Her past medical history is insignificant, including any previous lung infections. Physical examination does not reveal any significant signs indicative of a tumor. A chest CT is ordered and a solitary nodule of 0.5 cm is confirmed. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Mediastinoscopy
B. CT scan of abdomen
C. Positron emission scan
D. Repeat chest CT scan in 6 months (Correct Answer)
E. Sputum cytology
Explanation: ***Repeat chest CT scan in 6 months***
- A **solitary pulmonary nodule (SPN)** that is **calcified**, smaller than **1 cm**, and found in a patient with a **low pre-test probability** of malignancy (e.g., non-smoker, no history of cancer) generally warrants **serial imaging** to monitor for growth.
- The **0.5-cm size** and **calcification** make malignancy less likely, so deferring invasive procedures and opting for a follow-up CT in 6 months is the most appropriate initial step.
*Mediastinoscopy*
- This is an **invasive surgical procedure** used to biopsy **mediastinal lymph nodes**, usually for staging lung cancer or diagnosing other mediastinal masses.
- It is **not indicated** for an asymptomatic, small, calcified solitary pulmonary nodule without suspicion of malignancy or lymphadenopathy.
*CT scan of abdomen*
- A CT scan of the abdomen would be performed to look for **metastatic disease** if there were a high suspicion of primary lung cancer.
- Given the features of the nodule (small, calcified) and the patient's low-risk profile, there is no immediate indication for metastatic workup.
*Positron emission scan*
- A **PET scan** is used to evaluate the metabolic activity of a nodule and can help differentiate between benign and malignant lesions.
- However, for nodules that are **smaller than 0.8-1 cm** or are **calcified**, PET scans often have **limited sensitivity** and are not typically the first-line diagnostic tool.
*Sputum cytology*
- **Sputum cytology** involves examining cells from sputum for malignant cells, and its utility is highest for **central tumors** that shed cells into the airways.
- For a **solitary pulmonary nodule**, especially one that is small and peripheral or calcified, sputum cytology has a very **low diagnostic yield**.
Question 723: A 13-year-old girl presents after losing consciousness during class 30 minutes ago. According to her friends, she was doing okay since morning, and nobody noticed anything abnormal. The patient’s mother says that her daughter does not have any medical conditions. She also says that the patient has always been healthy but has recently lost weight even though she was eating as usual. Her vital signs are a blood pressure of 100/78 mm Hg, a pulse of 89/min, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99.0°F). Her breathing is rapid but shallow. Fingerstick glucose is 300 mg/dL. Blood is drawn for additional lab tests, and she is started on intravenous insulin and normal saline. Which of the following HLA subtypes is associated with this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
A. DR3 (Correct Answer)
B. A3
C. B8
D. DR5
E. B27
Explanation: ***DR3***
- The patient's presentation with **recent weight loss despite normal eating**, rapid but shallow breathing (**Kussmaul respiration** hinting at **metabolic acidosis**), elevated blood glucose (300 mg/dL), and loss of consciousness strongly suggests **Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM)** presenting as **diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)**.
- **HLA-DR3** and **HLA-DR4** are the primary genetic markers most strongly associated with an increased susceptibility to Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus, an **autoimmune disease** affecting pancreatic beta cells.
- **HLA-DR3** is the most direct answer as it is one of the two strongest HLA-DR associations with T1DM.
*A3*
- **HLA-A3** is primarily associated with **hemochromatosis**, a disorder of iron metabolism, and is not a common genetic marker for Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus.
- The symptoms described in the patient (weight loss, hyperglycemia, DKA) are not characteristic of hemochromatosis.
*B8*
- **HLA-B8** is actually associated with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus as part of the **extended haplotype A1-B8-DR3**, which shows strong linkage disequilibrium.
- However, **HLA-B8 is not as directly or specifically associated with T1DM** as the HLA-DR subtypes (DR3 and DR4), which are considered the primary genetic markers.
- When asking about HLA subtypes associated with T1DM, **DR3 or DR4** are the best answers as they show the strongest and most direct association.
- HLA-B8 is also associated with other autoimmune conditions like **myasthenia gravis** and **Graves' disease**.
*DR5*
- While part of the **HLA-DR family**, **HLA-DR5** is less commonly associated with **Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus** compared to DR3 and DR4.
- This subtype is more frequently linked with conditions like **pernicious anemia** or increased risk of certain infections.
*B27*
- **HLA-B27** is strongly associated with **seronegative spondyloarthropathies**, such as **ankylosing spondylitis** and **reactive arthritis**.
- It has no known direct association with **Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus**.
Question 724: A 58-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of recurring chest discomfort. The symptoms occur when walking up the stairs to her apartment or when walking quickly for 5 minutes on level terrain. She has not had shortness of breath, palpitations, or dizziness. She has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Current medications include estrogen replacement therapy, metoprolol, amlodipine, lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, and rosuvastatin. She drinks 3–4 cups of coffee per day. She does not drink alcohol. Her pulse is 65/min, respirations are 21/min, and blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A resting ECG shows normal sinus rhythm. She is scheduled for a cardiac exercise stress test in 2 days. Discontinuation of which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management at this time?
A. Metoprolol and amlodipine (Correct Answer)
B. Lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide
C. Estrogen and hydrochlorothiazide
D. Estrogen and amlodipine
E. Metoprolol and rosuvastatin
Explanation: ***Metoprolol and amlodipine***
- **Beta-blockers** (metoprolol) and **calcium channel blockers** (amlodipine) used to treat angina can mask ischemia during a stress test, leading to a falsely negative result.
- Temporarily discontinuing these medications allows for a more accurate assessment of the heart's response to stress and diagnosis of **ischemic heart disease**.
*Lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide*
- **ACE inhibitors** (lisinopril) and **diuretics** (hydrochlorothiazide) primarily manage blood pressure and do not significantly interfere with the diagnostic capabilities of a cardiac exercise stress test for detecting ischemia.
- While they can lower blood pressure, their impact on the heart's ischemic response during stress is less direct and less problematic than that of beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers.
*Estrogen and hydrochlorothiazide*
- **Estrogen replacement therapy** generally does not interfere with the results or interpretation of an exercise stress test for ischemia.
- **Hydrochlorothiazide** is a diuretic primarily affecting blood pressure and fluid balance; it does not significantly alter cardiac physiology in a way that would obscure ischemic findings during stress.
*Estrogen and amlodipine*
- While **amlodipine** (a calcium channel blocker) needs to be held before a stress test, **estrogen replacement therapy** does not affect the diagnostic accuracy of the test.
- Combining these two would be partially correct regarding amlodipine but introduces an unnecessary and incorrect action regarding estrogen.
*Metoprolol and rosuvastatin*
- **Metoprolol** (a beta-blocker) should be discontinued as it can mask ischemia during a stress test.
- However, **rosuvastatin** (a statin) is crucial for managing hyperlipidemia and preventing cardiovascular events; there is no medical reason to discontinue it before a stress test, as it does not interfere with the test's diagnostic accuracy.
Question 725: A previously healthy 21-year-old man is brought to the emergency department for the evaluation of an episode of unconsciousness that suddenly happened while playing football 30 minutes ago. He was not shaking and regained consciousness after about 30 seconds. Over the past three months, the patient has had several episodes of shortness of breath while exercising as well as sensations of a racing heart. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. He takes no medications. His vital signs are within normal limits. On mental status examination, he is oriented to person, place, and time. Cardiac examination shows a systolic ejection murmur that increases with valsalva maneuver and standing and an S4 gallop. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. An ECG shows a deep S wave in lead V1 and tall R waves in leads V5 and V6. Echocardiography is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Mitral valve leaflet thickening ≥ 5 mm
B. Ventricular septum defect
C. Abnormal movement of the mitral valve (Correct Answer)
D. Reduced left ventricular ejection fraction
E. Symmetric left ventricular wall thickening
Explanation: ***Abnormal movement of the mitral valve***
- This patient's presentation with exercise-induced syncope, shortness of breath, palpitations, a systolic ejection murmur that increases with **Valsalva maneuver** and **standing**, and ECG findings of **left ventricular hypertrophy** (deep S in V1, tall R in V5-V6) is highly suggestive of **hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)**.
- In HCM, the **hypertrophied septum** obstructs outflow, leading to **systolic anterior motion (SAM) of the mitral valve**, which an echocardiogram would reveal as abnormal movement.
*Mitral valve leaflet thickening ≥ 5 mm*
- Marked **mitral valve leaflet thickening** is typically associated with **rheumatic heart disease** or significant valvular degeneration.
- While HCM can affect mitral valve function, significant structural thickening to this extent is not its primary or diagnostic echocardiographic feature.
*Ventricular septum defect*
- A **ventricular septum defect (VSD)** is a congenital heart defect characterized by a hole in the septum separating the ventricles.
- While VSDs can cause murmurs, the characteristic murmur variations with Valsalva and standing, and the ECG findings in this case, are not typical of an isolated VSD.
*Reduced left ventricular ejection fraction*
- **Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy** is usually characterized by a **preserved or even hyperdynamic left ventricular ejection fraction** in the early stages, despite impaired diastolic function.
- **Reduced LVEF** is seen in **dilated cardiomyopathy** or advanced stages of other heart diseases.
*Symmetric left ventricular wall thickening*
- While there is **left ventricular wall thickening** in HCM, it is characteristically **asymmetric**, primarily affecting the **interventricular septum**.
- **Symmetric wall thickening** is more indicative of conditions like **hypertensive heart disease** or **athlete's heart**, rather than HCM.
Question 726: A 26-year-old woman presents with blood in her urine for the past 2 days. She says she has had increasing urinary frequency at night for the past several days and recently noticed a reddish tinge in her urine. She is also concerned that her feet are beginning to swell, and she has been feeling increasingly fatigued for the past week. She gives no history of joint pains, rashes, or skin changes. Past medical history is relevant for an occasional bluish discoloration of her fingers during exposure to cold. Her vital signs are a pulse of 80/min, a respiratory rate of 14/min, and blood pressure of 140/88 mm Hg. On physical examination, the patient has 1+ pitting edema of her feet bilaterally. Remainder of examination is unremarkable. Laboratory findings are significant for the following:
Serum glucose (fasting) 88 mg/dL
Sodium 143 mEq/L
Potassium 3.7 mEq/L
Chloride 102 mEq/L
Serum creatinine 1.7 mg/dL
Blood urea nitrogen 32 mg/dL
Cholesterol, total 180 mg/dL
HDL-cholesterol 43 mg/dL
LDL-cholesterol 75 mg/dL
Triglycerides 135 mg/dL
Hemoglobin (Hb%) 12.5 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 80 fL
Reticulocyte count 1%
Erythrocyte count 5.1 million/mm3
Thyroid stimulating hormone 4.5 μU/mL
Urinalysis:
Glucose negative
Protein +++
Ketones negative
Nitrites negative
RBCs negative
Casts +++
A renal biopsy is performed which reveals findings consistent with lupus nephritis. Which of the following is the next best step in treatment of this patient?
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Mycophenolic acid (Correct Answer)
C. Corticosteroids
D. Cyclosporine
E. Azathioprine
Explanation: ***Mycophenolic acid***
- **Mycophenolic acid** (mycophenolate mofetil or mycophenolate sodium) is the **first-line induction therapy** for **lupus nephritis Class III, IV, and V** according to current **KDIGO, ACR, and EULAR guidelines** (2012-2023).
- This patient has biopsy-proven lupus nephritis with active disease (proteinuria +++, casts +++, elevated creatinine, hypertension, edema).
- Mycophenolate is typically given **in combination with high-dose corticosteroids** for induction therapy, followed by maintenance therapy.
- It has **superior efficacy** and **lower toxicity** (particularly reduced gonadal toxicity and malignancy risk) compared to cyclophosphamide.
- Given as **2-3 g/day** for induction over 6 months, then reduced for maintenance.
*Corticosteroids*
- While **high-dose corticosteroids** are essential in lupus nephritis treatment, they are **never used as monotherapy** for proliferative or membranous lupus nephritis.
- Steroids alone are insufficient to control active renal inflammation and prevent progression to end-stage renal disease.
- They must be combined with an immunosuppressant like **mycophenolate** or **cyclophosphamide** for induction therapy.
*Cyclophosphamide*
- **Cyclophosphamide** remains an alternative induction agent for severe lupus nephritis, particularly Class III or IV.
- However, it has been largely replaced by **mycophenolate** as first-line therapy due to mycophenolate's better side effect profile.
- Cyclophosphamide is now reserved for cases with **severe renal dysfunction**, **rapidly progressive disease**, or **failure of mycophenolate therapy**.
- Significant toxicities include **gonadal failure** (infertility concerns in young women), **hemorrhagic cystitis**, and increased **malignancy risk**.
*Cyclosporine*
- **Cyclosporine** is a calcineurin inhibitor occasionally used for **membranous lupus nephritis (Class V)** or as second-line therapy.
- It is **not recommended for proliferative nephritis** (Class III or IV) due to risk of **nephrotoxicity** and inferior efficacy compared to mycophenolate or cyclophosphamide.
- May be considered in special circumstances such as pregnancy or contraindications to other agents.
*Azathioprine*
- **Azathioprine** is primarily used for **maintenance therapy** after successful induction with mycophenolate or cyclophosphamide.
- It has a **slower onset of action** and is **less potent** than mycophenolate for treating active lupus nephritis.
- Not appropriate as initial induction therapy for moderate-to-severe lupus nephritis with active renal inflammation.
Question 727: A 66-year-old woman with no significant past medical, past surgical, or family history presents with new symptoms of chest pain, an oral rash, and pain with swallowing. She lost her husband several months earlier and has moved into an elderly assisted living community. She states that her symptoms began several weeks earlier. Physical examination reveals numerous white plaques on her buccal mucosa and tongue, raising suspicion for oral candidiasis. What is the next step in the patient’s management?
A. CD4 count (Correct Answer)
B. Single contrast esophagram with barium sulfate contrast
C. Single contrast esophagram with water soluble iodine contrast
D. Denture fitting assessment
E. Modified barium swallow
Explanation: ***CD4 count***
- This patient presents with **oral candidiasis** (thrush) and symptoms suggestive of **esophageal candidiasis** including **odynophagia** (painful swallowing) and chest discomfort.
- While oral candidiasis can occur in elderly patients due to dentures, medications, or transient immune changes, the presence of **presumed esophageal involvement** in a previously healthy 66-year-old woman raises concern for **underlying immunosuppression**.
- **HIV infection** is an important cause of esophageal candidiasis and should not be missed. The next step is to evaluate for immunodeficiency with **HIV testing and CD4 count**.
- Recent psychosocial stress alone does not typically cause severe candidiasis; an underlying immune defect should be investigated.
*Single contrast esophagram with water soluble iodine contrast*
- Esophagram has **low sensitivity** for diagnosing esophageal candidiasis and is not the standard diagnostic approach.
- There is no clinical indication for **perforation** in this case (no instrumentation, severe vomiting, or trauma), so water-soluble contrast is unnecessary.
- If imaging were needed, **upper endoscopy (EGD)** would be far superior for visualizing candidal plaques and obtaining tissue diagnosis.
*Single contrast esophagram with barium sulfate contrast*
- As noted above, esophagram is **not the test of choice** for esophageal candidiasis.
- **EGD with biopsy/brushings** provides direct visualization and allows for definitive diagnosis.
- Barium studies have been largely replaced by endoscopy for evaluating esophageal infections.
*Denture fitting assessment*
- While ill-fitting dentures can contribute to **oral candidiasis**, they do not explain the **esophageal symptoms** (chest pain and odynophagia).
- The presence of systemic symptoms warrants investigation for immunosuppression rather than focusing solely on local oral factors.
- This would not address the patient's most concerning symptoms.
*Modified barium swallow*
- A **modified barium swallow** assesses **swallowing mechanics** and aspiration risk, typically used for neurological or structural dysphagia.
- The patient has **odynophagia** (painful swallowing) rather than **dysphagia** (difficulty swallowing), indicating mucosal pathology rather than a motility or coordination disorder.
- This test would not help diagnose or manage candidal esophagitis.
Question 728: A 24-year-old man comes to the physician because of severe lower back pain for the past 2 days. The pain is constant and non-radiating, and he describes it as 7 out of 10 in intensity. The pain began after he helped a friend move into a new apartment. Three weeks ago, he was diagnosed with urethritis and was treated with azithromycin and ceftriaxone. He has a history of intravenous heroin use. He takes no medications. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 128/90 mm Hg. Examination shows old track marks on the cubital fossae bilaterally. His lumbar paraspinal muscles are firm and tense on palpation. There is no midline spinal tenderness. Flexing the hip and extending the knee while raising the leg to 70° does not cause any pain. Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. MRI of the spine
B. Broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy
C. Spinal traction
D. Analgesia and regular activity (Correct Answer)
E. Measurement of serum HLA-B27
Explanation: ***Analgesia and regular activity***
- The patient's presentation with acute low back pain following exertion (helping a friend move), the absence of **red flag symptoms** (fever, neurological deficits, severe spinal tenderness, constitutional symptoms), and normal vital signs suggest a **mechanical cause** of back pain.
- Initial management for acute, uncomplicated mechanical back pain involves **analgesia** (e.g., NSAIDs, acetaminophen) and encouraging **continued light activity** rather than strict bed rest, as this promotes faster recovery.
*MRI of the spine*
- An **MRI of the spine** is generally reserved for patients with suspected serious spinal pathology, such as **neurological deficits**, persistent pain despite conservative management, or suspicion of infection/malignancy.
- The absence of these **red flag symptoms** and the acute, exertional onset of pain make immediate MRI unnecessary.
*Broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy*
- While the patient has a history of IV heroin use (a risk factor for infection) and recent urethritis, his current presentation does not strongly suggest an active infection (no fever, normal WBC count implied by history, no localized signs of infection other than muscle tension).
- Initiating **broad-spectrum antibiotics** empirically for back pain without clear evidence of infection (e.g., fever, elevated inflammatory markers, positive blood cultures, or imaging suggestive of osteomyelitis/abscess) is not indicated.
*Spinal traction*
- **Spinal traction** is a therapy that has shown **limited efficacy** for acute low back pain and is generally not recommended as a primary treatment.
- Evidence-based guidelines do not support its routine use for mechanical back pain.
*Measurement of serum HLA-B27*
- **HLA-B27** is associated with **spondyloarthropathies** (e.g., ankylosing spondylitis), which typically present with chronic inflammatory back pain (worse with rest, improves with activity, morning stiffness).
- The patient's acute, exertion-related pain and the absence of inflammatory features make **spondyloarthropathy** unlikely as the primary diagnosis in this acute setting.
Question 729: A 21-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of dry cough and some chest tightness for the past several weeks. The cough is worse at night and while playing volleyball. She frequently has a runny nose and nasal congestion. Her mother has systemic lupus erythematosus. The patient has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 5 years. She does not drink alcohol. Her only medication is cetirizine. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 98%. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. CT scan of the chest
B. Spirometry (Correct Answer)
C. Laboratory studies
D. Methacholine challenge test
E. Blood gas analysis
Explanation: ***Spirometry***
- The patient's symptoms (dry cough, chest tightness, worse at night and with activity) are highly suggestive of **asthma**.
- **Spirometry** is the initial recommended diagnostic test to assess for reversible airway obstruction, which is characteristic of asthma.
*CT scan of the chest*
- A CT scan of the chest is generally reserved for evaluating structural lung diseases, persistent or atypical symptoms, or when other diagnoses (e.g., malignancy, interstitial lung disease) are suspected.
- Given the classic asthma-like symptoms, a **less invasive and more direct physiological test** is indicated first.
*Laboratory studies*
- Routine laboratory studies are typically **not helpful** in the initial diagnosis of asthma.
- While allergy testing or inflammatory markers might be considered later, they do not directly assess airway function to confirm asthma.
*Methacholine challenge test*
- A **methacholine challenge test** is used to diagnose **asthma** when spirometry results are normal but asthma is still strongly suspected.
- It is often considered if initial spirometry with bronchodilator reversal is inconclusive, rather than as a first-line diagnostic step.
*Blood gas analysis*
- Blood gas analysis measures oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood and is used to assess the severity of respiratory failure or acid-base status.
- It is **not a primary diagnostic tool for asthma**, especially in a patient with normal vital signs and pulse oximetry.
Question 730: A 50-year-old man with a remote history of intravenous drug use and a past medical history of AIDS presents to his primary care provider with several weeks of productive cough and a mild fever. He was in his normal state of health and slowly started to develop these symptoms. He is hoping to be prescribed an antibiotic so he can get back to “normal”. Family history is significant for cardiovascular disease and diabetes. He takes antiviral medication and a multivitamin daily. His heart rate is 90/min, respiratory rate is 19/min, blood pressure is 135/85 mm Hg, and temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F). On physical examination, he looks uncomfortable. A chest examination reveals consolidation in the right lower lung. Chest radiography confirms right lower lobe pneumonia. Of the following options, which is the most likely cause of the patient’s pneumonia?
A. Pulmonary sequestration
B. Pneumocystis pneumonia
C. Aspiration pneumonia
D. Community-acquired pneumonia (Correct Answer)
E. Disseminated cutaneous infection
Explanation: ***Community-acquired pneumonia***
- This patient, despite having AIDS, presents with typical symptoms of **community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)**, including productive cough, fever, and classic consolidation on chest examination and radiography.
- While HIV/AIDS patients are at higher risk for opportunistic infections, CAP caused by common bacterial pathogens like *Streptococcus pneumoniae* is still a frequent cause of pneumonia and should be considered, especially with a **lobar consolidation pattern**.
*Pulmonary sequestration*
- **Pulmonary sequestration** is a rare congenital malformation where a segment of lung tissue is not connected to the tracheobronchial tree and receives systemic blood supply. It typically presents with recurrent infections in the same location or as an asymptomatic mass.
- It would not explain the acute onset of symptoms like fever and productive cough, nor the classic signs of pneumonia like consolidation in an otherwise healthy adult (aside from AIDS).
*Pneumocystis pneumonia*
- **Pneumocystis pneumonia (PJP)**, caused by *Pneumocystis jirovecii*, is a classic opportunistic infection in patients with AIDS, especially those with low CD4 counts.
- However, PJP typically presents with a **subacute onset** of dyspnea, non-productive cough, and diffuse interstitial infiltrates on chest radiography, not focal consolidation.
*Aspiration pneumonia*
- **Aspiration pneumonia** occurs when foreign material, often gastric contents or oral flora, is inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation and infection.
- There is no clinical indication of aspiration in this patient (e.g., dysphagia, impaired consciousness, reflux), and the history does not suggest risk factors for aspiration.
*Disseminated cutaneous infection*
- A **disseminated cutaneous infection** involves widespread skin lesions caused by an infection.
- This patient's symptoms are localized to the respiratory system (productive cough, lung consolidation) and do not suggest a primary cutaneous infection.