A 66-year-old man is brought into the emergency department by his daughter for a change in behavior. Yesterday the patient seemed more confused than usual and was asking the same questions repetitively. His symptoms have not improved over the past 24 hours, thus the decision to bring him in today. Last year, the patient was almost completely independent but he then suffered a "series of falls," after which his ability to care for himself declined. After this episode he was no longer able to cook for himself or pay his bills but otherwise had been fine up until this episode. The patient has a past medical history of myocardial infarction, hypertension, depression, diabetes mellitus type II, constipation, diverticulitis, and peripheral neuropathy. His current medications include metformin, insulin, lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, sodium docusate, atorvastatin, metoprolol, fluoxetine, and gabapentin. On exam you note a confused man who is poorly kept. He has bruises over his legs and his gait seems unstable. He is alert to person and place, and answers some questions inappropriately. The patient's pulse is 90/minute and his blood pressure is 170/100 mmHg. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q692
A 33-year-old African American woman presents to the office complaining of blurry vision and headache for the past 2 weeks. She states that she has not been feeling herself lately and also fell down once after a dizzy episode. Her medical history is remarkable for hypertension and pulmonary sarcoidosis treated with hydralazine and prednisone respectively. She had a recent bout of acute optic neuritis, requiring high-dose IV methylprednisolone. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), the blood pressure is 112/76 mm Hg, the pulse is 78/min, and the respirations are 14/min. On examination, the patient is mildly disoriented. Head and neck examination reveals a soft, supple neck and a right-sided facial droop. There is 5/5 muscle strength in all extremities. VDRL test is negative. A head MRI is pending. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Q693
A 74-year-old man presents to the emergency department by paramedics for slurred speech and weakness in the left arm and leg for 1 hour. The patient was playing with his grandson when the symptoms started and his wife immediately called an ambulance. There is no history of head trauma or recent surgery. The patient takes captopril for hypertension. The vital signs include: pulse 110/min, respiratory rate 22/min, and blood pressure 200/105 mm Hg. The physical examination shows that the patient is alert and conscious, but speech is impaired. Muscle strength is 0/5 in the left arm and leg and 5/5 in the right arm and leg. A non-contrast CT of the head shows no evidence of intracranial bleeding. The lab results are as follows:
Serum glucose 90 mg/dL
Sodium 140 mEq/L
Potassium 4.1 mEq/L
Chloride 100 mEq/L
Serum creatinine 1.3 mg/dL
Blood urea nitrogen 20 mg/dL
Cholesterol, total 240 mg/dL
HDL-cholesterol 38 mg/dL
LDL-cholesterol 100 mg/dL
Triglycerides 190 mg/dL
Hemoglobin (Hb%) 15.3 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 83 fL
Reticulocyte count 0.8%
Erythrocyte count 5.3 million/mm3
Platelet count 130,000/mm3
Partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) 30 sec
Prothrombin time (PT) 12 sec
Although he is within the time frame for the standard therapy of the most likely condition, the treatment cannot be started because of which of the following contraindications?
Q694
A 40-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-year history of gradually worsening shortness of breath. He smoked half a pack of cigarettes daily for 10 years but stopped 8 years ago. His pulse is 72/min, blood pressure is 135/75 mm Hg, and respirations are 20/min. Examination shows an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. Diminished breath sounds are heard on auscultation of the chest. An x-ray of the chest shows widened intercostal spaces, a flattened diaphragm, and bilateral hyperlucency of the lung bases. This patient's condition puts him at greatest risk for which of the following conditions?
Q695
A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with decreased exercise tolerance and shortness of breath which has progressed slowly over the past month. The patient recalls that shortly before the onset of these symptoms, he had a low-grade fever, malaise, and sore throat which resolved after a few days with over the counter medications. He does not have any chronic illnesses and denies recent travel or illicit habits. His vital signs include: blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), and regular radial pulse 90/min. While checking his blood pressure manually, the difference between the systolic pressure at which the first Korotkoff sounds are heard during expiration and the pressure at which they are heard throughout the respiratory cycle is less than 10 mm Hg. On physical examination, he is in mild distress with jugular venous pressure (JVP) of 13 cm, and his heart sounds are muffled. His echocardiography shows a fluid collection in the pericardial sac with no evidence of right ventricular compression. Which of the following is the best initial step for the treatment of this patient?
Q696
A 51-year-old woman presents for her annual wellness visit. She says she feels healthy and has no specific concerns. Past medical history is significant for bipolar disorder, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus type 2, managed with lithium, lisinopril, and metformin, respectively. Her family history is significant for hypertension and diabetes mellitus type 2 in her father, who died from lung cancer at age 67. Her vital signs include: temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse 97/min, respiratory rate 16/min, blood pressure 120/75 mm Hg. Physical examination is unremarkable. Mammogram findings are labeled breast imaging reporting and data system-3 (BIRADS-3) (probably benign). Which of the following is the next best step in management in this patient?
Q697
A 35-year-old woman presents as a new patient to a primary care physician. She hasn't seen a doctor in many years and came in for a routine check-up. She has no specific complaints, although she has occasional shortness of breath with mild activity. On physical exam, her vital signs are as follows: HR 80, BP 110/70, RR 14. On auscultation, her lungs are clear with equal breath sounds bilaterally. When listening over the precordium, the physician hears a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur that is loudest over the apex. Valsalva increases the murmur. Which of the following is NOT a possible complication of this patient's underlying problem?
Q698
A 62-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 5-day history of swelling in his left arm. Two months ago, he was diagnosed with a deep venous thrombosis in the left calf. He has had a 7-kg (15-lb) weight loss in the last 3 months. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the past 25 years. His only medication is warfarin. Physical examination shows warm edema of the left forearm with overlying erythema and a tender, palpable cord-like structure along the medial arm. His lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Duplex sonography shows thrombosis of the left basilic and external jugular veins. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to confirm the underlying diagnosis?
Q699
A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with fever, cough, and difficulty in breathing for the last 6 hours. She also mentions that she noticed some blood in her sputum an hour ago. She denies nasal congestion or discharge, sneezing, wheezing, chest pain, or palpitation. Her past history does not suggest any chronic medical condition, including respiratory disease, cardiovascular disease, or cancer. There is no history of pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis in the past. Her temperature is 38.3°C (101.0°F), the pulse is 108/min, the blood pressure is 116/80 mm Hg, and the respirations are 28/min. Auscultation of her lungs reveals the presence of localized crackles over the right inframammary region. Edema is present over her left leg and tenderness is present over her left calf region. When her left foot is dorsiflexed, she complains of calf pain. The emergency department protocol mandates the use of a modified Wells scoring system in all patients presenting with the first episode of breathlessness when there is no history of a cardiorespiratory disorder in the past. According to the modified Wells scoring system, which of the following risk factors, if present, would contribute the most points toward a high clinical probability of pulmonary embolism?
Q700
A 30-year-old woman seeks evaluation at a clinic complaining of shaking, chills, fevers, and headaches for the last 3 days. She recently returned from a trip to India, where she was visiting her family. There is no history of loss of consciousness or respiratory distress. The vital signs include temperature 38.9℃ (102.0℉), respiratory rate 19/min, blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, and pulse 94/min (rapid and thready). On general examination, she is pale and the sclera is jaundiced. Laboratory studies show:
Hematocrit (Hct) 30%
Total bilirubin 2.6 mg/dL
Direct bilirubin 0.3 mg/dL
A peripheral smear is shown below. What is the most severe complication of this condition?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 691: A 66-year-old man is brought into the emergency department by his daughter for a change in behavior. Yesterday the patient seemed more confused than usual and was asking the same questions repetitively. His symptoms have not improved over the past 24 hours, thus the decision to bring him in today. Last year, the patient was almost completely independent but he then suffered a "series of falls," after which his ability to care for himself declined. After this episode he was no longer able to cook for himself or pay his bills but otherwise had been fine up until this episode. The patient has a past medical history of myocardial infarction, hypertension, depression, diabetes mellitus type II, constipation, diverticulitis, and peripheral neuropathy. His current medications include metformin, insulin, lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, sodium docusate, atorvastatin, metoprolol, fluoxetine, and gabapentin. On exam you note a confused man who is poorly kept. He has bruises over his legs and his gait seems unstable. He is alert to person and place, and answers some questions inappropriately. The patient's pulse is 90/minute and his blood pressure is 170/100 mmHg. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Normal aging
B. Lewy body dementia
C. Vascular dementia (Correct Answer)
D. Pseudodementia (depression-related cognitive impairment)
E. Alzheimer's dementia
Explanation: ***Vascular dementia***
- This diagnosis is strongly supported by the patient's **stepwise decline** in cognitive function following a "series of falls" (likely small strokes or transient ischemic attacks) and his extensive history of **vascular risk factors** including hypertension, diabetes, and previous myocardial infarction.
- The acute worsening of confusion over 24 hours, coupled with pre-existing impaired executive function (inability to cook or pay bills), is characteristic of **vascular dementia's fluctuating course** and presentation often linked to new cerebrovascular events.
*Incorrect: Normal aging*
- **Normal aging** involves a very gradual and mild decline in cognitive functions, primarily affecting processing speed and memory recall, without significant impairment in daily activities.
- This patient's rapid, stepwise decline and inability to perform instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) such as cooking and managing finances go beyond what is considered normal cognitive changes with aging.
*Incorrect: Lewy body dementia*
- **Lewy body dementia** is characterized by prominent **fluctuations in attention and alertness**, recurrent visual hallucinations, and spontaneous parkinsonism, none of which are explicitly mentioned as primary features in this patient's presentation.
- While fluctuations in confusion are present, the history of a clear stepwise decline post-falls and significant vascular risk factors points away from Lewy body dementia as the most likely primary cause.
*Incorrect: Pseudodementia (depression-related cognitive impairment)*
- **Pseudodementia** refers to cognitive impairment that occurs in the context of **major depression**, where patients may exhibit poor concentration, memory difficulties, and psychomotor slowing that mimics dementia.
- While this patient is on fluoxetine for depression, the **stepwise decline** after clear vascular events (falls), multiple vascular risk factors, and impaired executive function point to a true neurodegenerative process rather than depression-induced cognitive changes, which typically improve with treatment of the underlying mood disorder.
*Incorrect: Alzheimer's dementia*
- **Alzheimer's dementia** typically presents with a **gradual and progressive decline** in memory, particularly episodic memory, followed by other cognitive domains over several years.
- The patient's history of a clear **stepwise decline** in function after acute events (falls) and the strong presence of **vascular risk factors** make vascular dementia a more fitting diagnosis than Alzheimer's, which is not typically associated with such a sudden, step-like progression.
Question 692: A 33-year-old African American woman presents to the office complaining of blurry vision and headache for the past 2 weeks. She states that she has not been feeling herself lately and also fell down once after a dizzy episode. Her medical history is remarkable for hypertension and pulmonary sarcoidosis treated with hydralazine and prednisone respectively. She had a recent bout of acute optic neuritis, requiring high-dose IV methylprednisolone. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), the blood pressure is 112/76 mm Hg, the pulse is 78/min, and the respirations are 14/min. On examination, the patient is mildly disoriented. Head and neck examination reveals a soft, supple neck and a right-sided facial droop. There is 5/5 muscle strength in all extremities. VDRL test is negative. A head MRI is pending. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Methotrexate
B. Plasmapheresis
C. High-dose methylprednisolone (Correct Answer)
D. Heparin
E. Methotrexate and azathioprine
Explanation: ***High-dose methylprednisolone***
- The patient's symptoms (blurry vision, headache, disorientation, facial droop, recent optic neuritis) are highly suggestive of a **central nervous system (CNS) demyelinating event**, possibly related to **neuroinflammation** in the setting of sarcoidosis or a new demyelinating disease.
- **High-dose intravenous corticosteroids** like methylprednisolone are the cornerstone treatment for acute exacerbations of demyelinating diseases (e.g., multiple sclerosis) and neuroinflammatory conditions like **neurosarcoidosis**, effectively reducing inflammation and neurological deficits.
*Methotrexate*
- **Methotrexate** is an immunosuppressant used as a **corticosteroid-sparing agent** in chronic inflammatory conditions, including sarcoidosis, but it is not the primary treatment for acute neurological exacerbations.
- Its onset of action is relatively slow, making it unsuitable for immediate management of acute neurological symptoms.
*Plasmapheresis*
- **Plasmapheresis** is typically considered for severe inflammatory demyelinating events that are **refractory to high-dose corticosteroids**, or in specific conditions like Guillain-Barré syndrome or myasthenia gravis crisis.
- It is not the initial treatment strategy when corticosteroids have not yet been adequately trialed for the current acute episode.
*Heparin*
- **Heparin** is an anticoagulant used to prevent or treat **thromboembolic events**, such as deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, or stroke due to clotting.
- There is no clinical evidence in the patient's presentation (e.g., focal neurological deficits without clear vascular territory involvement, normal blood pressure) to suggest an acute thrombotic event warranting heparin.
*Methotrexate and azathioprine*
- This combination represents a **dual immunosuppressive therapy** typically used for **chronic, severe, or refractory autoimmune and inflammatory conditions**, often as steroid-sparing agents or for long-term disease control.
- While relevant for chronic management of sarcoidosis, neither individually nor in combination are they appropriate for the **immediate treatment of acute neurological symptoms** which require rapid anti-inflammatory intervention.
Question 693: A 74-year-old man presents to the emergency department by paramedics for slurred speech and weakness in the left arm and leg for 1 hour. The patient was playing with his grandson when the symptoms started and his wife immediately called an ambulance. There is no history of head trauma or recent surgery. The patient takes captopril for hypertension. The vital signs include: pulse 110/min, respiratory rate 22/min, and blood pressure 200/105 mm Hg. The physical examination shows that the patient is alert and conscious, but speech is impaired. Muscle strength is 0/5 in the left arm and leg and 5/5 in the right arm and leg. A non-contrast CT of the head shows no evidence of intracranial bleeding. The lab results are as follows:
Serum glucose 90 mg/dL
Sodium 140 mEq/L
Potassium 4.1 mEq/L
Chloride 100 mEq/L
Serum creatinine 1.3 mg/dL
Blood urea nitrogen 20 mg/dL
Cholesterol, total 240 mg/dL
HDL-cholesterol 38 mg/dL
LDL-cholesterol 100 mg/dL
Triglycerides 190 mg/dL
Hemoglobin (Hb%) 15.3 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 83 fL
Reticulocyte count 0.8%
Erythrocyte count 5.3 million/mm3
Platelet count 130,000/mm3
Partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) 30 sec
Prothrombin time (PT) 12 sec
Although he is within the time frame for the standard therapy of the most likely condition, the treatment cannot be started because of which of the following contraindications?
A. A platelet count of 130,000/mm3
B. Age of 74 years
C. Cholesterol level of 240 mg/dL
D. Creatinine level of 1.3 mg/dL
E. Systolic blood pressure of 200 mm Hg (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Systolic blood pressure of 200 mm Hg***
- The patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of an **acute ischemic stroke**, including **slurred speech** and **left-sided weakness**.
- For patients with acute ischemic stroke who are candidates for **thrombolytic therapy (e.g., alteplase)**, a **systolic blood pressure consistently >185 mm Hg or diastolic >110 mm Hg is a contraindication** due to increased risk of hemorrhagic transformation.
*A platelet count of 130,000/mm3*
- A platelet count of 130,000/mm³ is above the **contraindication threshold for thrombolytic therapy**, which is typically <100,000/mm³.
- Therefore, this platelet count would **not prevent** the initiation of tPA.
*Age of 74 years*
- While older age was once considered a relative contraindication, current guidelines **do not consider age alone (including 74 years old) as an absolute contraindication** for thrombolytic therapy in acute ischemic stroke.
- Eligibility is determined by a comprehensive risk-benefit assessment, not solely by age.
*Cholesterol level of 240 mg/dL*
- An elevated **cholesterol level** is a **risk factor for atherosclerosis** and ischemic stroke, but it is **not a contraindication for acute thrombolytic therapy**.
- It relates to the underlying cause of the stroke rather than the immediate treatment decision.
*Creatinine level of 1.3 mg/dL*
- A **creatinine level of 1.3 mg/dL** indicates **mild renal impairment**, but it is **not a contraindication for thrombolytic therapy**.
- Renal function more significantly impacts the use of certain anticoagulants, but not typically alteplase in the acute setting.
Question 694: A 40-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-year history of gradually worsening shortness of breath. He smoked half a pack of cigarettes daily for 10 years but stopped 8 years ago. His pulse is 72/min, blood pressure is 135/75 mm Hg, and respirations are 20/min. Examination shows an increased anteroposterior diameter of the chest. Diminished breath sounds are heard on auscultation of the chest. An x-ray of the chest shows widened intercostal spaces, a flattened diaphragm, and bilateral hyperlucency of the lung bases. This patient's condition puts him at greatest risk for which of the following conditions?
A. Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody-positive vasculitis
B. Bronchiolitis obliterans
C. IgA nephropathy
D. Bronchogenic carcinoma (Correct Answer)
E. Hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation: ***Bronchogenic carcinoma***
- The patient's presentation with **shortness of breath**, history of **smoking**, and chest X-ray findings (increased AP diameter, flattened diaphragm, hyperlucency) are highly suggestive of **emphysema**, a strong risk factor for bronchogenic carcinoma.
- While he stopped smoking 8 years ago, his past smoking history significantly increases his lifetime risk for lung cancer, and emphysema itself is an independent risk factor for malignancies.
*Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody-positive vasculitis*
- This condition involves systemic inflammation of blood vessels, often affecting the **lungs and kidneys**, but there are no clinical or radiological findings suggestive of vasculitis here.
- There is no mention of symptoms like **hematuria**, **rash**, or other systemic inflammatory signs that would point towards ANCA-positive vasculitis.
*Bronchiolitis obliterans*
- This is a rare, severe obstructive lung disease often caused by toxic inhalant exposure (e.g., **sulfur mustard**, **diacetyl**) or as a complication of **lung transplantation** or **rheumatoid arthritis**, none of which are indicated in this patient.
- While it can cause shortness of breath, the characteristic imaging findings in this patient (hyperlucency, flattened diaphragm) are more indicative of **emphysema**, not bronchiolitis obliterans.
*IgA nephropathy*
- This is a **primary glomerulonephritis** characterized by IgA deposits in the glomeruli, leading to **hematuria** and **proteinuria**, and is not related to the patient's respiratory symptoms or imaging findings.
- There is no clinical information provided that would suggest renal involvement.
*Hepatocellular carcinoma*
- This is a **primary liver cancer** typically associated with chronic liver diseases like **hepatitis B** or **C infections**, **cirrhosis**, or **alcohol abuse**, none of which are suggested in the patient's history.
- The patient's symptoms and diagnostic findings are entirely focused on the respiratory system, with no indication of liver disease.
Question 695: A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with decreased exercise tolerance and shortness of breath which has progressed slowly over the past month. The patient recalls that shortly before the onset of these symptoms, he had a low-grade fever, malaise, and sore throat which resolved after a few days with over the counter medications. He does not have any chronic illnesses and denies recent travel or illicit habits. His vital signs include: blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), and regular radial pulse 90/min. While checking his blood pressure manually, the difference between the systolic pressure at which the first Korotkoff sounds are heard during expiration and the pressure at which they are heard throughout the respiratory cycle is less than 10 mm Hg. On physical examination, he is in mild distress with jugular venous pressure (JVP) of 13 cm, and his heart sounds are muffled. His echocardiography shows a fluid collection in the pericardial sac with no evidence of right ventricular compression. Which of the following is the best initial step for the treatment of this patient?
A. Prednisone
B. Surgical drainage
C. Pericardiectomy
D. Pericardiocentesis
E. Observation and anti-inflammatory medicines (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Observation and anti-inflammatory medicines***
- The patient presents with symptoms suggestive of acute pericarditis (dyspnea, decreased exercise tolerance, prior viral illness) with pericardial effusion, but critically, he does **not exhibit signs of hemodynamic compromise** (pulsus paradoxus <10 mm Hg, stable blood pressure, no right ventricular compression on echo).
- Given the absence of **cardiac tamponade** or severe symptomatic effusion, initial management typically involves conservative measures such as **NSAIDs and colchicine** to reduce pain and inflammation, along with close observation.
*Prednisone*
- **Corticosteroids** like prednisone are generally reserved for patients with **recurrent pericarditis resistant to NSAID treatment**, inflammatory causes (e.g., autoimmune), or those with contraindications to NSAIDs.
- Using prednisone as a first-line treatment for acute pericarditis can increase the risk of **recurrence**.
*Surgical drainage*
- **Surgical drainage** (pericardial window) is indicated for **recurrent cardiac tamponade**, effusions unresponsive to pericardiocentesis, or when a **diagnostic biopsy** of the pericardium is required.
- It's a more invasive procedure than justified for stable, non-compressive pericardial effusions.
*Pericardiectomy*
- **Pericardiectomy**, the surgical removal of the pericardium, is indicated for **constrictive pericarditis** or **recurrent effusions** that are not controlled by less invasive means.
- This patient does not show signs of constriction, making it an overly aggressive initial treatment.
*Pericardiocentesis*
- **Pericardiocentesis** is indicated for **cardiac tamponade** (hemodynamic compromise), large effusions causing significant symptoms, or for diagnostic purposes when a specific etiology is suspected (e.g., bacterial, malignant).
- The patient's lack of pulsus paradoxus (<10 mm Hg) and no evidence of right ventricular compression suggest no tamponade, thus negating the need for immediate pericardiocentesis.
Question 696: A 51-year-old woman presents for her annual wellness visit. She says she feels healthy and has no specific concerns. Past medical history is significant for bipolar disorder, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus type 2, managed with lithium, lisinopril, and metformin, respectively. Her family history is significant for hypertension and diabetes mellitus type 2 in her father, who died from lung cancer at age 67. Her vital signs include: temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse 97/min, respiratory rate 16/min, blood pressure 120/75 mm Hg. Physical examination is unremarkable. Mammogram findings are labeled breast imaging reporting and data system-3 (BIRADS-3) (probably benign). Which of the following is the next best step in management in this patient?
A. Follow-up mammogram in 6 months (Correct Answer)
B. Follow-up mammogram in 1 year
C. Treatment
D. Biopsy
E. Breast MRI
Explanation: ***Follow-up mammogram in 6 months***
- A **BIRADS-3** (Breast Imaging Reporting and Data System 3) classification indicates a **probably benign finding**, with a less than 2% chance of malignancy.
- The recommended management for BIRADS-3 is a **short-interval follow-up mammogram in 6 months** to assess for stability or changes.
*Follow-up mammogram in 1 year*
- This follow-up interval is typically recommended for **BIRADS-1 (negative)** or **BIRADS-2 (benign)** findings, not for BIRADS-3.
- Waiting a full year would delay the detection of any potential malignancy in a BIRADS-3 lesion.
*Treatment*
- Treatment is indicated for confirmed malignancy, typically after a biopsy has confirmed cancerous cells.
- Starting treatment at the BIRADS-3 stage would be premature given the low probability of malignancy.
*Biopsy*
- A biopsy is generally warranted for **BIRADS-4 (suspicious)** or **BIRADS-5 (highly suggestive of malignancy)** lesions.
- While biopsy can be considered for BIRADS-3 if there are high-risk factors or patient preference, **short-interval follow-up** is the standard and preferred initial approach.
*Breast MRI*
- Breast MRI is often used for high-risk patients, for **staging known breast cancer**, or to evaluate **dense breast tissue**.
- It is not the standard next step for a BIRADS-3 finding in a patient with no specific high-risk indications beyond the mammogram result.
Question 697: A 35-year-old woman presents as a new patient to a primary care physician. She hasn't seen a doctor in many years and came in for a routine check-up. She has no specific complaints, although she has occasional shortness of breath with mild activity. On physical exam, her vital signs are as follows: HR 80, BP 110/70, RR 14. On auscultation, her lungs are clear with equal breath sounds bilaterally. When listening over the precordium, the physician hears a mid-systolic click followed by a late systolic murmur that is loudest over the apex. Valsalva increases the murmur. Which of the following is NOT a possible complication of this patient's underlying problem?
A. Cerebral embolism
B. Infective endocarditis
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Bleeding from acquired von Willebrand disease (Correct Answer)
E. Sudden death
Explanation: ***Bleeding from acquired von Willebrand disease***
- The patient's presentation of a **mid-systolic click** followed by a **late systolic murmur** that increases with Valsalva maneuver is characteristic of **mitral valve prolapse (MVP)**.
- While acquired **von Willebrand syndrome (AVWS)** has been rarely reported with MVP, it is **not a characteristic complication** and is far more commonly associated with **aortic stenosis** and other high-shear cardiac lesions.
- Among the listed options, AVWS is the **least typical** complication of MVP, making this the correct answer to a "NOT" question.
*Cerebral embolism*
- Patients with MVP are at a slightly increased risk of **thromboembolic events**, including **cerebral embolism**, particularly in those with mitral regurgitation or atrial fibrillation.
- The structural abnormalities of the valve can promote **platelet aggregation** or the formation of small thrombi that can embolize.
*Infective endocarditis*
- MVP increases the risk of **infective endocarditis**, particularly in cases with significant mitral regurgitation or thickened, redundant valve leaflets (**myxomatous degeneration**).
- The damaged valve surface provides a site for bacterial attachment and colonization.
*Atrial fibrillation*
- MVP, especially when associated with significant **mitral regurgitation** or **left atrial enlargement**, can lead to the development of **atrial fibrillation**.
- The altered hemodynamics and increased atrial pressure can predispose to arrhythmias.
*Sudden death*
- Although rare, **sudden cardiac death** is a recognized complication of MVP, particularly in patients with severe forms, complex ventricular arrhythmias, or significant mitral regurgitation.
- This complication is often linked to serious ventricular arrhythmias, which can be triggered by leaflet elongation, myocardial fibrosis, or papillary muscle abnormalities.
Question 698: A 62-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 5-day history of swelling in his left arm. Two months ago, he was diagnosed with a deep venous thrombosis in the left calf. He has had a 7-kg (15-lb) weight loss in the last 3 months. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for the past 25 years. His only medication is warfarin. Physical examination shows warm edema of the left forearm with overlying erythema and a tender, palpable cord-like structure along the medial arm. His lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Duplex sonography shows thrombosis of the left basilic and external jugular veins. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to confirm the underlying diagnosis?
A. CT scan of the chest
B. X-ray of the chest (Correct Answer)
C. Transesophageal echocardiography
D. Serum antiphospholipid antibody level
E. Serum D-dimer level
Explanation: **X-ray of the chest**
- The patient presents with **recurrent deep venous thrombosis (DVT)**, specifically in an unusual location (upper extremity), combined with **unexplained weight loss** and a **significant smoking history**. These are strong indicators of an underlying malignancy.
- A **chest x-ray** is a readily available and cost-effective initial screening tool to evaluate for **lung cancer**, which is common in smokers and can present with paraneoplastic phenomena like hypercoagulability (Trousseau phenomenon) leading to DVT.
*CT scan of the chest*
- While a **CT scan of the chest** is more sensitive than an X-ray for detecting lung masses, an **X-ray is the more appropriate initial step** for screening given the clinical context.
- A **CT scan** would typically be performed after an abnormal chest X-ray or if clinical suspicion remains high despite a normal X-ray.
*Transesophageal echocardiography*
- **Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE)** is primarily used to evaluate **cardiac structures**, valve function, and to detect intracardiac thrombi or vegetations.
- It is not indicated as a primary screening tool for an underlying malignancy or in the workup of a **venous thrombosis** not directly related to cardiac pathology.
*Serum antiphospholipid antibody level*
- **Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome** is a cause of recurrent thrombosis, but the patient's other symptoms (weight loss, smoking history, unusual DVT location) point more strongly towards an underlying malignancy.
- While it might be considered in a broader workup for hypercoagulability, it is not the most immediate next step given the constellation of findings strongly suggestive of cancer.
*Serum D-dimer level*
- A **serum D-dimer level** is a marker of fibrin degradation and is useful for **excluding DVT/PE** in low-probability patients.
- In this patient, a DVT has already been diagnosed by duplex sonography, so a D-dimer level would not provide additional diagnostic information regarding the presence of thrombosis, nor would it help in identifying the underlying cause of the recurrent thrombosis.
Question 699: A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with fever, cough, and difficulty in breathing for the last 6 hours. She also mentions that she noticed some blood in her sputum an hour ago. She denies nasal congestion or discharge, sneezing, wheezing, chest pain, or palpitation. Her past history does not suggest any chronic medical condition, including respiratory disease, cardiovascular disease, or cancer. There is no history of pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis in the past. Her temperature is 38.3°C (101.0°F), the pulse is 108/min, the blood pressure is 116/80 mm Hg, and the respirations are 28/min. Auscultation of her lungs reveals the presence of localized crackles over the right inframammary region. Edema is present over her left leg and tenderness is present over her left calf region. When her left foot is dorsiflexed, she complains of calf pain. The emergency department protocol mandates the use of a modified Wells scoring system in all patients presenting with the first episode of breathlessness when there is no history of a cardiorespiratory disorder in the past. According to the modified Wells scoring system, which of the following risk factors, if present, would contribute the most points toward a high clinical probability of pulmonary embolism?
A. History of surgery within the last 30 days (Correct Answer)
B. Use of oral contraceptives within last 90 days
C. Intravenous drug use within last 14 days
D. History of travel of 2 hours in 30 days
E. History of smoking for more than 1 year
Explanation: ***History of surgery within the last 30 days***
- Recent surgery (within the previous 4 weeks) is a significant **risk factor for venous thromboembolism (VTE)** due to immobility, endothelial damage, and hypercoagulability, and contributes **1.5 points** in the modified Wells score.
- Among the options listed, this is the **only risk factor that actually contributes points** to the modified Wells score, making it the correct answer for the highest individual contribution.
- In this scoring system, scores are categorized as: ≤1 point (low probability), 2-6 points (moderate probability), and ≥7 points (high probability).
*Use of oral contraceptives within last 90 days*
- While **oral contraceptives** are a known risk factor for VTE in epidemiological studies, they are **not included as a scored component** in the modified Wells criteria for pulmonary embolism.
- The Wells score focuses on acute clinical factors rather than chronic predisposing conditions like hormonal contraception.
*Intravenous drug use within last 14 days*
- **Intravenous drug use** is not a component of the modified Wells score for pulmonary embolism.
- It may lead to other complications (such as septic emboli or endocarditis) but does not directly increase the score for PE risk in this specific diagnostic tool.
*History of travel of 2 hours in 30 days*
- **Prolonged immobilization** (≥3 days of bed rest or travel exceeding 4-6 hours) is a risk factor for VTE and would contribute **1.5 points** as part of the immobilization criterion.
- However, travel of only **2 hours** does not meet the threshold for significant immobilization and would **not contribute points** to the modified Wells score.
*History of smoking for more than 1 year*
- **Smoking** is a general risk factor for various cardiovascular and pulmonary diseases but is **not a component** of the modified Wells score for assessing the acute probability of pulmonary embolism.
- While it contributes to overall cardiovascular risk, it does not add points in this specific diagnostic tool for PE.
Question 700: A 30-year-old woman seeks evaluation at a clinic complaining of shaking, chills, fevers, and headaches for the last 3 days. She recently returned from a trip to India, where she was visiting her family. There is no history of loss of consciousness or respiratory distress. The vital signs include temperature 38.9℃ (102.0℉), respiratory rate 19/min, blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, and pulse 94/min (rapid and thready). On general examination, she is pale and the sclera is jaundiced. Laboratory studies show:
Hematocrit (Hct) 30%
Total bilirubin 2.6 mg/dL
Direct bilirubin 0.3 mg/dL
A peripheral smear is shown below. What is the most severe complication of this condition?
A. Facial paralysis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Heart block
D. Aplastic crisis
E. Cerebral edema (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cerebral edema***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, chills, headache, recent travel to **India**), along with laboratory findings of **anemia (Hct 30%)** and **jaundice**, are highly suggestive of **malaria**. The peripheral smear showing multiple intraerythrocytic parasites (rings, trophozoites) further confirms this.
- Of the complications listed, **cerebral edema** (due to **cerebral malaria**) is the most severe and life-threatening complication of **Plasmodium falciparum infection**, which is prevalent in India and leads to significant mortality.
*Facial paralysis*
- **Facial paralysis** is not a typical or severe complication of uncomplicated or severe malaria.
- It is more commonly associated with conditions like Bell's palsy, stroke, or Lyme disease.
*Rheumatoid arthritis*
- **Rheumatoid arthritis** is a chronic autoimmune inflammatory condition affecting joints, not an acute complication of malaria.
- The clinical presentation is inconsistent with an acute infectious process like malaria.
*Heart block*
- While malaria can cause various cardiac complications, a direct **heart block** is not considered the most severe or common life-threatening complication, especially compared to cerebral malaria.
- Cardiac involvement in severe malaria is more often characterized by arrhythmias, myocarditis, or acute heart failure.
*Aplastic crisis*
- An **aplastic crisis** is a severe but rare complication of malaria, primarily seen in individuals with underlying **hematological disorders**, such as sickle cell disease or hereditary spherocytosis, which are not indicated here.
- While it causes profound anemia, **cerebral malaria** still carries a higher immediate mortality risk and is considered the most severe complication of **Plasmodium falciparum** infection.