A 40-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of fatigue, poor appetite, and an unintentional 10-kg (22-lb) weight loss over the past 6 months. The patient also reports several episodes of nausea and two episodes of non-bloody vomiting. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Menses occur at regular 27-day intervals and last 6 days. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. She is sexually active with her husband, but states that she has lost desire in sexual intercourse lately. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 100/min, and blood pressure is 96/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 7,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 128 mEq/L
Cl- 96 mEq/L
K+ 5.8 mEq/L
HCO3- 23 mEq/L
Glucose 70 mg/dL
AM Cortisol 2 μg/dL
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q682
A 32-year-old African American woman presents to her family physician complaining of fevers, fatigue, weight loss, joint pains, night sweats and a rash on her face that extends over the bridge of her nose. She has also had multiple sores in her mouth over the past few weeks. She recently had a root canal procedure done without complications. She has no significant past medical history, but has recently had a urinary tract infection. She denies tobacco, alcohol, and illicit drug use. Laboratory evaluation reveals hemolytic anemia. If she were found to have a cardiac lesion, what would be the most likely pathogenetic cause?
Q683
A 71-year old man is brought to the emergency department because of progressively worsening shortness of breath and fatigue for 3 days. During the last month, he has also noticed dark colored urine. He had an upper respiratory infection 6 weeks ago. He underwent a cholecystectomy at the age of 30 years. He has hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He immigrated to the US from Italy 50 years ago. Current medications include simvastatin, lisinopril, and metformin. He appears pale. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 96/min, respirations are 21/min, and blood pressure is 150/80 mm Hg. Auscultation of the heart shows a grade 4/6 systolic murmur over the right second intercostal space that radiates to the carotids. Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte count 9,000/mm3
Hemoglobin 8.3 g/dL
Hematocrit 24%
Platelet count 180,000/mm3
LDH 212 U/L
Haptoglobin 15 mg/dL (N=41–165)
Serum
Na+ 138 mEq/L
K+ 4.5 mEq/L
CL- 102 mEq/L
HCO3- 24 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 20 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Total bilirubin 1.8 mg/dL
Stool testing for occult blood is negative. Direct Coombs test is negative. Echocardiography shows an aortic jet velocity of 4.2 m/s and a mean pressure gradient of 46 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management to treat this patient's anemia?
Q684
A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a fall that occurred while he was taking a shower earlier that morning. His wife heard him fall and entered the bathroom to find all four of his extremities twitching. The episode lasted approximately 30 seconds. He was unsure of what had happened and was unable to answer simple questions on awakening. He has regained orientation since that time. He has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Current medications include metoprolol and atorvastatin. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 72/min, respirations are 19/min, and blood pressures is 130/80 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 98%. Cranial nerve examination shows no abnormalities. He has 5/5 strength in all extremities. Examination shows full muscle strength. Sensation to pinprick, light touch, and vibration is normal and symmetrical. A noncontrast head CT is performed and shows a slightly hyperdense mass. Follow-up MRI shows a homogeneous, well-circumscribed 4-cm mass with compression of the adjacent white matter, and a hyperintense rim around the mass on T2 weighted imaging. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q685
A 53-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with joint pain. She reports a 6-month history of progressive pain in her hands that is worse around her knuckles. The pain is symmetric bilaterally and seems to improve after she starts working in the morning at her job in a local grocery store. She has also lost 10 pounds over the past 6 months despite no changes in her diet or exercise regimen. Her past medical history is notable for seasonal allergies, hypertension, and intermittent constipation. She takes losartan and a laxative as needed. She had adolescent idiopathic scoliosis as a child and underwent a spinal fusion at the age of 14. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 135/75 mmHg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 16/min. On examination, she appears well and is appropriately interactive. Strength is 5/5 and sensation to light touch is intact in the bilateral upper and lower extremities. An examination of her hands demonstrates symmetric swelling of the metacarpophalangeal joints bilaterally. This patient's condition is most strongly characterized by which of the following?
Q686
A 60-year-old woman presents to the emergency department due to progressive shortness of breath and a dry cough for the past week. She notes that her symptoms are exacerbated by physical activity and relieved by rest. The woman was diagnosed with chronic kidney disease 2 years ago and was recently started on regular dialysis treatment. Her pulse rate is 105/min, blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 30/min, and temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F). On examination of the respiratory system, there is dullness on percussion, decreased vocal tactile fremitus, and decreased breath sounds over the right lung base. The rest of the physical exam is within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
Q687
A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter because he was found to have decreased alertness that has gotten progressively worse. Three weeks ago he was diagnosed with an infection and given an antibiotic, though his daughter does not remember what drug was prescribed. His medical history is also significant for benign prostatic hyperplasia and hypertension, for which he was prescribed tamsulosin, a thiazide, and an ACE inhibitor. He has not sustained any trauma recently, and no wounds are apparent. On presentation, he is found to be confused. Labs are obtained with the following results:
Serum:
Na+: 135 mEq/L
BUN: 52 mg/dL
Creatinine: 2.1 mg/dL
Urine:
Osmolality: 548 mOsm/kg
Na+: 13 mEq/L
Creatinine: 32 mg/dL
Which of the following etiologies would be most likely given this patient's presentation?
Q688
A 69-year-old man is brought to the emergency room by his wife 30 minutes after losing consciousness while they were working in their garden together. The patient says that time seemed to slow down, his vision went dark, and he had a sensation of falling. After 3–5 seconds, he awoke slightly disoriented but quickly regained his baseline mental status. The patient says he has had a few similar episodes that occurred 1–2 months ago for which he did not seek any medical treatment. He says overall he has been more tired than usual and feeling out of breath on his morning walks. He denies any chest pain or palpitations. Past medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes mellitus. Current medications are atorvastatin and insulin. His family history is significant for his father who died of myocardial infarction in his 70’s. His blood pressure is 110/85 mm Hg and pulse is 82/min. On physical examination, there is a 3/6 systolic murmur best heard over the right sternal border with radiation to the carotids. S1 is normal but there is a soft unsplit S2. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. The remainder of the exam is unremarkable. Which of the following physical exam findings would also most likely be present in this patient?
Q689
A 67-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. He feels well. His last visit to a physician was 3 years ago. He has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Current medications include albuterol, atenolol, lisinopril, and aspirin. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 18 years but stopped 20 years ago. He had a right lower extremity venous clot 15 years ago that required 3 months of anticoagulation therapy. A colonoscopy performed 3 years ago demonstrated 2 small, flat polyps that were resected. He is 175 cm (5 ft 9 in) tall and weighs 100 kg (220 lb); BMI is 32.5 kg/m2. His pulse is 85/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 150/80 mm Hg. Examination shows normal heart sounds and no carotid or femoral bruits. Scattered minimal expiratory wheezing and rhonchi are heard throughout both lung fields. Which of the following health maintenance recommendations is most appropriate at this time?
Q690
A 33-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a wellness check-up. She states that recently she has been feeling well other than headaches that occur occasionally, which improve with ibuprofen and rest. She has a past medical history of hypertension and headaches and is currently taking hydrochlorothiazide. Her temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 157/108 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals a young woman who appears healthy. A normal S1 and S2 are auscultated on cardiac exam, and her lungs are clear with good air movement bilaterally. From her previous visit, it was determined that she has an elevated aldosterone and low renin level. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 3.7 mEq/L
HCO3-: 29 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 681: A 40-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of fatigue, poor appetite, and an unintentional 10-kg (22-lb) weight loss over the past 6 months. The patient also reports several episodes of nausea and two episodes of non-bloody vomiting. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Menses occur at regular 27-day intervals and last 6 days. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. She is sexually active with her husband, but states that she has lost desire in sexual intercourse lately. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 100/min, and blood pressure is 96/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 7,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 128 mEq/L
Cl- 96 mEq/L
K+ 5.8 mEq/L
HCO3- 23 mEq/L
Glucose 70 mg/dL
AM Cortisol 2 μg/dL
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Hydrocortisone administration
B. Adrenal imaging
C. TSH measurement
D. Urine aldosterone level measurement
E. Cosyntropin administration (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cosyntropin administration***
- The patient presents with symptoms such as **fatigue, weight loss, hypotension, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and a low morning cortisol level** (2 μg/dL), highly suggestive of **adrenal insufficiency**.
- A **cosyntropin (ACTH stimulation) test** is the most appropriate next step to confirm adrenal insufficiency and differentiate between primary and secondary causes.
*Hydrocortisone administration*
- While hydrocortisone is used to treat adrenal insufficiency, it should only be administered **after a definitive diagnosis** has been established, especially if the patient is not in an acute adrenal crisis.
- Administering corticosteroids before diagnostic testing can **interfere with the results** of the cosyntropin stimulation test.
*Adrenal imaging*
- Adrenal imaging (e.g., CT or MRI) may be considered *after* a diagnosis of primary adrenal insufficiency is confirmed by biochemical testing to identify the underlying cause (e.g., **adrenal hemorrhage, tumor, or atrophy**).
- It is **not the initial diagnostic step** for suspected adrenal insufficiency based on these lab findings.
*TSH measurement*
- While thyroid dysfunction can cause nonspecific symptoms like fatigue and weight changes, the **hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and profoundly low cortisol** are more indicative of adrenal pathology.
- Ruling out adrenal insufficiency is a higher priority given the potentially life-threatening nature of an **adrenal crisis**.
*Urine aldosterone level measurement*
- Measuring urine aldosterone might be useful in the workup for primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease) to assess **mineralocorticoid deficiency**, which often coexists with glucocorticoid deficiency.
- However, the **cosyntropin stimulation test** is the gold standard for diagnosing adrenal insufficiency and evaluating the adrenal reserve, making it the more appropriate initial diagnostic step.
Question 682: A 32-year-old African American woman presents to her family physician complaining of fevers, fatigue, weight loss, joint pains, night sweats and a rash on her face that extends over the bridge of her nose. She has also had multiple sores in her mouth over the past few weeks. She recently had a root canal procedure done without complications. She has no significant past medical history, but has recently had a urinary tract infection. She denies tobacco, alcohol, and illicit drug use. Laboratory evaluation reveals hemolytic anemia. If she were found to have a cardiac lesion, what would be the most likely pathogenetic cause?
A. Left atrial mass causing a ball valve-type outflow obstruction
B. Immune complex deposition and subsequent inflammation (Correct Answer)
C. Bacteremia secondary to a recent dental procedure
D. Bacteremia secondary to a urinary tract infection
E. Aberrant flow causing platelet-fibrin thrombus formation secondary to hypercoagulability and malignancy.
Explanation: ***Immune complex deposition and subsequent inflammation***
- The patient's symptoms (fevers, fatigue, weight loss, joint pains, "butterfly" rash, oral sores, hemolytic anemia, and recent UTI) are highly suggestive of **Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)**. SLE is an autoimmune disease characterized by the formation of **immune complexes** that deposit in various tissues, including the heart.
- Cardiac involvement in SLE often manifests as **pericarditis**, **myocarditis**, or **Libman-Sacks endocarditis**, all of which are inflammatory conditions caused by immune complex deposition.
*Left atrial mass causing a ball valve-type outflow obstruction*
- This description is characteristic of a **left atrial myxoma**, which is a primary cardiac tumor.
- While myxomas can cause systemic symptoms, the constellation of symptoms (rash, oral sores, hemolytic anemia, etc.) is not typical for a myxoma, which does not involve immune complex formation.
*Abberent flow causing platelet-fibrin thrombus formation secondary to hypercoagulability and malignancy.*
- This describes marantic endocarditis (nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis), which is associated with **hypercoagulable states** and **malignancy**.
- While patients with SLE can have hypercoagulability, the primary cardiac pathology in SLE-related endocarditis is due to immune complex deposition, not simply aberrant flow or malignancy.
*Bacteremia secondary to a recent dental procedure*
- This would lead to **infective endocarditis** (IE) caused by bacterial colonization of heart valves.
- While a dental procedure can be a risk factor for IE, the patient's wide array of systemic autoimmune symptoms (rash, joint pain, hemolytic anemia) points away from a simple bacterial infection as the sole or primary cause of cardiac lesion in this context.
*Bacteremia secondary to a urinary tract infection*
- Similar to the dental procedure, a UTI could potentially lead to **sepsis** and **infective endocarditis** in some cases.
- However, the overall clinical picture, especially the characteristic "butterfly" rash, oral ulcers, and hemolytic anemia, strongly suggests an autoimmune process like SLE, making immune complex deposition the more likely underlying cause of a cardiac lesion than a standard bacterial infection.
Question 683: A 71-year old man is brought to the emergency department because of progressively worsening shortness of breath and fatigue for 3 days. During the last month, he has also noticed dark colored urine. He had an upper respiratory infection 6 weeks ago. He underwent a cholecystectomy at the age of 30 years. He has hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He immigrated to the US from Italy 50 years ago. Current medications include simvastatin, lisinopril, and metformin. He appears pale. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 96/min, respirations are 21/min, and blood pressure is 150/80 mm Hg. Auscultation of the heart shows a grade 4/6 systolic murmur over the right second intercostal space that radiates to the carotids. Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte count 9,000/mm3
Hemoglobin 8.3 g/dL
Hematocrit 24%
Platelet count 180,000/mm3
LDH 212 U/L
Haptoglobin 15 mg/dL (N=41–165)
Serum
Na+ 138 mEq/L
K+ 4.5 mEq/L
CL- 102 mEq/L
HCO3- 24 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 20 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Total bilirubin 1.8 mg/dL
Stool testing for occult blood is negative. Direct Coombs test is negative. Echocardiography shows an aortic jet velocity of 4.2 m/s and a mean pressure gradient of 46 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management to treat this patient's anemia?
A. Aortic valve replacement (Correct Answer)
B. Administration of corticosteroids
C. Discontinuation of medication
D. Administration of hydroxyurea
E. Supplementation with iron
Explanation: ***Aortic valve replacement***
- The patient's **severe aortic stenosis** (aortic jet velocity >4.0 m/s and mean pressure gradient >40 mmHg) is causing **shear stress** on red blood cells, leading to **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia**. This is characterized by low hemoglobin, high LDH, low haptoglobin, and negative Coombs test.
- **Aortic valve replacement** is the definitive treatment to reduce the shear stress, resolve the hemolysis, and improve the patient's symptoms of anemia and heart failure.
*Administration of corticosteroids*
- Corticosteroids are primarily used in **autoimmune hemolytic anemia** (positive Coombs test), which is not the case here as the direct Coombs test is negative.
- They would not address the underlying **mechanical destruction of red blood cells** due to aortic stenosis.
*Discontinuation of medication*
- The patient's current medications (simvastatin, lisinopril, metformin) are for managing his chronic conditions and are **not associated with hemolytic anemia**. Discontinuing them would be inappropriate and potentially harmful.
- There is no evidence to suggest a **drug-induced hemolytic anemia** in this case.
*Administration of hydroxyurea*
- Hydroxyurea is used in conditions like **sickle cell anemia** or **polycythemia vera** to modify red blood cell production or reduce cell counts, respectively.
- It has no role in treating **mechanical hemolytic anemia** caused by valvular heart disease.
*Supplementation with iron*
- While the patient has anemia, it is a **hemolytic anemia**, not an iron deficiency anemia, as indicated by the low haptoglobin and elevated LDH.
- Iron supplementation would **not stop the destruction of red blood cells** caused by the turbulent flow across the aortic valve.
Question 684: A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a fall that occurred while he was taking a shower earlier that morning. His wife heard him fall and entered the bathroom to find all four of his extremities twitching. The episode lasted approximately 30 seconds. He was unsure of what had happened and was unable to answer simple questions on awakening. He has regained orientation since that time. He has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Current medications include metoprolol and atorvastatin. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 72/min, respirations are 19/min, and blood pressures is 130/80 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 98%. Cranial nerve examination shows no abnormalities. He has 5/5 strength in all extremities. Examination shows full muscle strength. Sensation to pinprick, light touch, and vibration is normal and symmetrical. A noncontrast head CT is performed and shows a slightly hyperdense mass. Follow-up MRI shows a homogeneous, well-circumscribed 4-cm mass with compression of the adjacent white matter, and a hyperintense rim around the mass on T2 weighted imaging. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Meningioma (Correct Answer)
B. Hemangioblastoma
C. Schwannoma
D. Glioblastoma multiforme
E. Oligodendroglioma
Explanation: ***Meningioma***
- This is the most likely diagnosis due to the **solitary, well-circumscribed, supratentorial mass** found in an elderly patient, which is a classic presentation. The **dural tail sign** (hyperintense rim on T2 MRI) and **homogeneous enhancement** are characteristic features.
- The patient's presentation with a **fall due to a focal seizure** (twitching extremities, post-ictal confusion) is a common symptom of a slow-growing mass like a meningioma that can irritate the cerebral cortex.
*Hemangioblastoma*
- These are typically found in the **cerebellum** or spinal cord, not supratentorially as described in the case.
- They often present as a **cystic lesion with a mural nodule**, which is different from the solid, well-circumscribed mass described here.
*Schwannoma*
- Schwannomas usually arise from cranial nerves, most commonly the **vestibulocochlear nerve** (**acoustic neuroma**).
- While they can be homogeneous and well-circumscribed, they are typically **extra-axial (arising from nerves)** rather than from the brain parenchyma or dura.
*Glioblastoma multiforme*
- Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) is characterized by an **aggressive, infiltrative mass** with **heterogeneous enhancement**, central necrosis, and significant surrounding edema.
- The MRI description of a **homogeneous, well-circumscribed mass** does not fit the typical appearance of a GBM.
*Oligodendroglioma*
- Oligodendrogliomas are often characterized by **calcifications** and typically occur in the frontal lobes, but they tend to be **infiltrative** rather than well-circumscribed.
- The description of a homogeneous, well-circumscribed mass with a hyperintense rim is not typical for an oligodendroglioma.
Question 685: A 53-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with joint pain. She reports a 6-month history of progressive pain in her hands that is worse around her knuckles. The pain is symmetric bilaterally and seems to improve after she starts working in the morning at her job in a local grocery store. She has also lost 10 pounds over the past 6 months despite no changes in her diet or exercise regimen. Her past medical history is notable for seasonal allergies, hypertension, and intermittent constipation. She takes losartan and a laxative as needed. She had adolescent idiopathic scoliosis as a child and underwent a spinal fusion at the age of 14. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 135/75 mmHg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 16/min. On examination, she appears well and is appropriately interactive. Strength is 5/5 and sensation to light touch is intact in the bilateral upper and lower extremities. An examination of her hands demonstrates symmetric swelling of the metacarpophalangeal joints bilaterally. This patient's condition is most strongly characterized by which of the following?
A. HLA-DR2
B. HLA-B8
C. HLA-DR3
D. HLA-B27
E. HLA-DR4 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***HLA-DR4***
- The patient's symptoms, including **symmetric polyarthritis** of the **small joints** (knuckles), morning stiffness that improves with activity, and weight loss, are highly suggestive of **rheumatoid arthritis (RA)**.
- **HLA-DR4** is the **MHC class II allele most strongly associated with rheumatoid arthritis** and is found in the majority of patients with seropositive RA.
*HLA-DR2*
- **HLA-DR2** is associated with other autoimmune diseases such as **multiple sclerosis**, **narcolepsy**, and **Goodpasture's syndrome**, but not typically with rheumatoid arthritis.
- There is no clinical evidence in the patient's presentation to suggest these conditions.
*HLA-B8*
- **HLA-B8** is primarily associated with diseases like **myasthenia gravis**, **celiac disease**, and **Dermatitis herpetiformis**.
- It does not have a strong association with rheumatoid arthritis.
*HLA-DR3*
- **HLA-DR3** is linked with diseases such as **celiac disease**, **Type 1 diabetes mellitus**, and **systemic lupus erythematosus**.
- While autoimmune, these conditions do not align with the patient's specific pattern of joint and systemic symptoms.
*HLA-B27*
- **HLA-B27** is strongly associated with **spondyloarthropathies**, such as **ankylosing spondylitis** and **reactive arthritis**.
- This patient's symptoms of symmetric small joint polyarthritis are inconsistent with spondyloarthropathies, which typically affect the spine and larger joints.
Question 686: A 60-year-old woman presents to the emergency department due to progressive shortness of breath and a dry cough for the past week. She notes that her symptoms are exacerbated by physical activity and relieved by rest. The woman was diagnosed with chronic kidney disease 2 years ago and was recently started on regular dialysis treatment. Her pulse rate is 105/min, blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 30/min, and temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F). On examination of the respiratory system, there is dullness on percussion, decreased vocal tactile fremitus, and decreased breath sounds over the right lung base. The rest of the physical exam is within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
A. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax (PSP)
B. Pleural effusion (Correct Answer)
C. Acute bronchitis
D. Pneumonia
E. Pulmonary tuberculosis (TB)
Explanation: ***Pleural effusion***
- The patient's symptoms of **progressive shortness of breath**, **dry cough**, and physical exam findings of **dullness to percussion**, **decreased vocal tactile fremitus**, and **decreased breath sounds** over the right lung base are classic signs of a **pleural effusion**.
- Given her history of **chronic kidney disease** and recent initiation of **dialysis**, she is at high risk for fluid overload, which can lead to **transudative pleural effusions** due to **increased hydrostatic pressure**.
*Primary spontaneous pneumothorax (PSP)*
- PSP typically presents with **sudden onset of pleuritic chest pain** and **shortness of breath**, not a progressive onset over a week.
- Physical exam findings for pneumothorax include **hyperresonance to percussion** and **absent or diminished breath sounds**, but **vocal tactile fremitus would be decreased or absent**, which is similar to pleural effusion. However, the patient's presentation of gradual onset and risk factors for fluid overload point away from a PSP.
*Acute bronchitis*
- Acute bronchitis usually presents with a **productive cough**, and symptoms are often preceded by an **upper respiratory tract infection**.
- Physical exam findings typically include **wheezing** or **rhonchi**, with normal percussion and fremitus, differing from the described findings.
*Pneumonia*
- Pneumonia would typically present with a **productive cough**, **fever**, and signs of consolidation on lung exam, such as **bronchial breath sounds** and **increased vocal fremitus**, along with dullness to percussion.
- While dullness and decreased breath sounds can be present, the **decreased vocal tactile fremitus** observed here strongly suggests fluid in the pleural space rather than consolidation.
*Pulmonary tuberculosis (TB)*
- Pulmonary TB often presents with **chronic cough (often productive)**, **night sweats**, **weight loss**, and **low-grade fever**, which are not the primary symptoms described.
- While CXR findings can vary, the acute presentation with clear signs of fluid accumulation in a patient with kidney disease makes TB less likely without other predisposing factors or prolonged symptomatology.
Question 687: A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his daughter because he was found to have decreased alertness that has gotten progressively worse. Three weeks ago he was diagnosed with an infection and given an antibiotic, though his daughter does not remember what drug was prescribed. His medical history is also significant for benign prostatic hyperplasia and hypertension, for which he was prescribed tamsulosin, a thiazide, and an ACE inhibitor. He has not sustained any trauma recently, and no wounds are apparent. On presentation, he is found to be confused. Labs are obtained with the following results:
Serum:
Na+: 135 mEq/L
BUN: 52 mg/dL
Creatinine: 2.1 mg/dL
Urine:
Osmolality: 548 mOsm/kg
Na+: 13 mEq/L
Creatinine: 32 mg/dL
Which of the following etiologies would be most likely given this patient's presentation?
A. Forgetting to take tamsulosin
B. Overdiuresis by thiazides (Correct Answer)
C. Toxic reaction to antibiotic
D. Allergic reaction to antibiotic
E. Hemorrhage
Explanation: ***Overdiuresis by thiazides***
- The patient exhibits elevated **BUN** and **creatinine** (52 mg/dL and 2.1 mg/dL respectively), suggestive of **prerenal acute kidney injury**. The low **urine sodium** (13 mEq/L) and high **urine osmolality** (548 mOsm/kg) indicate appropriate renal response to hypovolemia, reflecting reduced renal perfusion.
- **Thiazide diuretics** can cause significant volume depletion, leading to prerenal injury, and the patient's decreased alertness is consistent with dehydration and potential electrolyte imbalances from aggressive diuresis.
*Forgetting to take tamsulosin*
- **Tamsulosin** is an alpha-blocker used for benign prostatic hyperplasia; forgetting it would lead to worsening urinary symptoms, not acute kidney injury or decreased alertness.
- While it can cause orthostatic hypotension, skipping a dose would likely improve, not worsen, blood pressure, and would not explain the observed lab values.
*Toxic reaction to antibiotic*
- While some antibiotics can cause **nephrotoxicity** (e.g., aminoglycosides, vancomycin), this would typically manifest with **acute tubular necrosis**, characterized by a high **urine sodium** and low **urine osmolality**, which contradicts the patient's lab findings.
- The patient was diagnosed with an infection three weeks ago; a toxic reaction usually occurs shortly after administration or with chronic high doses, not with such a delayed presentation without specific signs of organ damage beyond kidney injury.
*Allergic reaction to antibiotic*
- An **allergic reaction** to an antibiotic would likely present with symptoms such as rash, urticaria, angioedema, or anaphylaxis, none of which are described.
- An allergic reaction would not directly cause the patient's specific pattern of **prerenal acute kidney injury** as indicated by the urine and serum labs.
*Hemorrhage*
- A **hemorrhage** could cause **prerenal acute kidney injury** due to hypovolemia, but there is no mention of trauma or signs of bleeding (e.g., melena, hematochezia, ecchymoses), and the patient's daughter did not report any.
- While hemorrhage is a possibility in elderly patients, the history of recent diuretic use provides a more direct and plausible explanation for the observed fluid status and renal parameters.
Question 688: A 69-year-old man is brought to the emergency room by his wife 30 minutes after losing consciousness while they were working in their garden together. The patient says that time seemed to slow down, his vision went dark, and he had a sensation of falling. After 3–5 seconds, he awoke slightly disoriented but quickly regained his baseline mental status. The patient says he has had a few similar episodes that occurred 1–2 months ago for which he did not seek any medical treatment. He says overall he has been more tired than usual and feeling out of breath on his morning walks. He denies any chest pain or palpitations. Past medical history is significant for type 1 diabetes mellitus. Current medications are atorvastatin and insulin. His family history is significant for his father who died of myocardial infarction in his 70’s. His blood pressure is 110/85 mm Hg and pulse is 82/min. On physical examination, there is a 3/6 systolic murmur best heard over the right sternal border with radiation to the carotids. S1 is normal but there is a soft unsplit S2. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. The remainder of the exam is unremarkable. Which of the following physical exam findings would also most likely be present in this patient?
A. A decrease in systolic blood pressure ≥ 10 mmHg during inspiration
B. A carotid biphasic pulse
C. Increased capillary pulsations of the fingertips
D. Distant heart sounds
E. A slow-rising and delayed upstroke of the carotid pulse (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***A slow-rising and delayed upstroke of the carotid pulse***
- The patient's symptoms (syncope, dyspnea, fatigue) coupled with the **systolic murmur radiating to the carotids**, **soft unsplit S2**, and **type 1 diabetes mellitus** (a risk factor) are highly suggestive of **aortic stenosis**.
- **Pulsus parvus et tardus** (small, slow-rising, and delayed carotid pulse) is a classic physical exam finding in severe **aortic stenosis** due to the obstruction of left ventricular outflow.
*A decrease in systolic blood pressure ≥ 10 mmHg during inspiration*
- This finding, known as **pulsus paradoxus**, is characteristic of **cardiac tamponade** or severe **obstructive lung disease**.
- The patient's presentation of exertional syncope and a significant systolic ejection murmur does not align with these conditions.
*A carotid biphasic pulse*
- A **bisferiens pulse** (biphasic pulse) is typically observed in conditions that cause a rapid ejection followed by a second, smaller pulse, such as **aortic regurgitation** with or without **aortic stenosis**, or **hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy**.
- While there is a systolic murmur, the overall clinical picture, particularly the unsplit S2, is more consistent with isolated **aortic stenosis**.
*Increased capillary pulsations of the fingertips*
- **Quincke's sign**, or capillary pulsations in the nail beds, is a characteristic finding of **severe aortic regurgitation** due to the wide pulse pressure.
- The patient’s symptoms and the murmur are more indicative of **aortic stenosis**, which is an outflow obstruction, rather than regurgitation.
*Distant heart sounds*
- **Distant heart sounds** are typically associated with conditions that create a barrier between the heart and the stethoscope, such as **pericardial effusion**, obesity, or emphysema.
- While common in a range of pathologies, it is not a specific or classic finding for **aortic stenosis**, and the other findings strongly point towards valvular disease rather than pericardial issues.
Question 689: A 67-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. He feels well. His last visit to a physician was 3 years ago. He has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, coronary artery disease, and hypertension. Current medications include albuterol, atenolol, lisinopril, and aspirin. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 18 years but stopped 20 years ago. He had a right lower extremity venous clot 15 years ago that required 3 months of anticoagulation therapy. A colonoscopy performed 3 years ago demonstrated 2 small, flat polyps that were resected. He is 175 cm (5 ft 9 in) tall and weighs 100 kg (220 lb); BMI is 32.5 kg/m2. His pulse is 85/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 150/80 mm Hg. Examination shows normal heart sounds and no carotid or femoral bruits. Scattered minimal expiratory wheezing and rhonchi are heard throughout both lung fields. Which of the following health maintenance recommendations is most appropriate at this time?
A. Bone densitometry scan
B. Abdominal ultrasonography (Correct Answer)
C. CT scan of the chest
D. Pulmonary function testing
E. Lower extremity ultrasonography
Explanation: ***Abdominal ultrasonography***
- This patient has a **history of smoking, obesity, hypertension, and coronary artery disease**, all of which are significant risk factors for **abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)**.
- Current **USPSTF guidelines** recommend a **one-time screening abdominal ultrasound** for men aged 65-75 who have ever smoked to detect AAA.
- This patient is 67 years old with an 18 pack-year smoking history (quit 20 years ago), making him eligible for this Grade B recommendation.
*Bone densitometry scan*
- **Osteoporosis screening** with bone densitometry is recommended for women aged 65 and older, but for men, it is typically recommended only if they have specific risk factors like chronic steroid use or hypogonadism, which are not present here.
- While his COPD might contribute to some bone loss risk, it's not the most immediate or strongly indicated screening compared to AAA.
*CT scan of the chest*
- Although the patient has a smoking history, a **CT scan of the chest** for lung cancer screening is recommended for individuals aged 50-80 with a **20 pack-year smoking history** who currently smoke or have quit within the past 15 years.
- This patient has only **18 pack-years** and quit smoking **20 years ago**, placing him outside the criteria for lung cancer screening.
*Pulmonary function testing*
- The patient has a known diagnosis of **COPD** and is already on appropriate medication (albuterol).
- While monitoring **pulmonary function** is important for COPD management, routine PFTs are not indicated at every follow-up unless there is a change in symptoms or treatment, and it is not a primary preventive screening recommendation.
*Lower extremity ultrasonography*
- The patient had a **deep venous thrombosis (DVT)** 15 years ago, which was fully treated with 3 months of anticoagulation.
- There are **no current symptoms of DVT** (e.g., leg pain, swelling, erythema), so a lower extremity ultrasound is not warranted as routine screening in the absence of new symptoms.
Question 690: A 33-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a wellness check-up. She states that recently she has been feeling well other than headaches that occur occasionally, which improve with ibuprofen and rest. She has a past medical history of hypertension and headaches and is currently taking hydrochlorothiazide. Her temperature is 99.2°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 157/108 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals a young woman who appears healthy. A normal S1 and S2 are auscultated on cardiac exam, and her lungs are clear with good air movement bilaterally. From her previous visit, it was determined that she has an elevated aldosterone and low renin level. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 3.7 mEq/L
HCO3-: 29 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Benign essential hypertension
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Cushing syndrome
D. Narrowing of the renal arteries
E. Primary hyperaldosteronism (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Primary hyperaldosteronism***
- The patient presents with **hypertension**, **mild hypokalemia (K+ of 3.7 mEq/L)**, and **metabolic alkalosis (HCO3- of 29 mEq/L)**, which are classic signs of primary hyperaldosteronism.
- The elevated aldosterone and low renin levels, as noted from her previous visit, are diagnostic for primary hyperaldosteronism.
*Benign essential hypertension*
- While essential hypertension is common, the presence of **hypokalemia**, **metabolic alkalosis**, and particularly the **elevated aldosterone with low renin** points away from benign essential hypertension, which typically has normal renin-aldosterone ratios.
- This patient's hypertension is likely **secondary** due to a specific endocrine imbalance.
*Pheochromocytoma*
- This condition presents with **episodic or paroxysmal hypertension**, **tachycardia**, **sweating**, and headaches, often in a more dramatic fashion.
- The patient's blood pressure is consistently elevated, and she lacks the typical paroxysmal symptoms and signs of catecholamine excess.
*Cushing syndrome*
- Cushing syndrome is characterized by **hypertension**, central obesity, moon facies, buffalo hump, and striae, none of which are described.
- While it can cause hypertension, it is due to cortisol excess and does not typically present with the specific aldosterone-renin profile seen in this patient.
*Narrowing of the renal arteries*
- **Renal artery stenosis** causes **renovascular hypertension** and is associated with **elevated renin levels** as the kidney perceives hypoperfusion and activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
- This patient presents with **low renin levels**, which directly contradicts the pathophysiology of renal artery stenosis.