A 47-year-old man presents to the physician’s office with an inability to maintain an erection. He can achieve an erection, but it is brief and decreases soon after the penetration. His erectile dysfunction developed gradually over the past 2 years. He denies decreased libido, depressed mood, or anhedonia. He does not report any chronic conditions. He has a 20-pack-year history of smoking and drinks alcohol occasionally. He weighs 120 kg (264.5 lb), his height is 181 cm (5 ft 11 in), and his waist circumference is 110 cm (43 in). The blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg and the heart rate is 86/min. Physical examination is performed including a genitourinary and rectal examination. It reveals no abnormalities besides central obesity. Which of the following laboratory tests is indicated to investigate for the cause of the patient’s condition?
Q622
A 39-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of fatigue and hair loss. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 15 years. Her only medication is insulin. Her pulse is 59/min and blood pressure is 102/76 mm Hg. Physical examination shows dry skin, coarse hair, and a nontender, diffuse neck swelling in the anterior midline. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q623
A 10-year-old boy presents to the emergency department accompanied by his parents with a swollen and painful right knee after he fell from his bicycle a few hours ago. The patient’s mother says he fell off the bike and struck the ground with his whole weight on his right knee. Immediately, his right knee swelled significantly, and he experienced severe pain. The patient’s past medical history is significant for previous episodes of easy bruising that manifest as small bluish spots, but not nearly as severe. The family history is significant for an uncle who had similar symptoms, and who was diagnosed at the age of 13 years old. The patient is afebrile, and the vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, a large bruise is present over the right knee that is extending several inches down the leg. The right tibiofemoral joint is warm to the touch and severely tender to palpation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q624
A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of a cough and shortness of breath. He also noted several episodes of blood-tinged sputum over the last 4 days. He has a 3-month history of progressive fatigue. His temperature is 37.5°C (98.6°F), pulse is 86/min, respirations are 17/min, and blood pressure is 150/93 mm Hg. Examination shows pale conjunctivae. Crackles are heard on auscultation of the chest. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count 9200/mm3
Platelet count 305,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 136 mEq/L
Cl- 101 mEq/L
K+ 4.5 mEq/L
HCO3- 25 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 28 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.3 mg/dL
Anti-GBM antibodies positive
Antinuclear antibodies negative
Urine
Blood 2+
Protein 2+
RBC 11–13/hbf
RBC casts rare
He is started on prednisone and cyclophosphamide. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q625
A 40-year-old man presents to the physician for a pre-employment medical check-up. He has no symptoms and his past medical history is insignificant. He is a non-smoker. His temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), the heart rate is 76/min, the blood pressure is 124/82 mm Hg, and the respiratory rate is 16/min. His general and systemic examination does not reveal any abnormality. Laboratory evaluation is completely normal; however, his chest radiogram shows a single irregularly shaped nodule in the upper lobe of his right lung. The nodule has circumscribed margins and appears to be surrounded by normally aerated lung parenchyma. The nodule is approx. 7 mm (0.28 in) in diameter. The pattern of calcification is nonspecific and there are no signs of atelectasis or pneumonitis. The physician compares the radiogram with another radiogram which was obtained 5 years back. However, there was no pulmonary nodule in the previous radiogram. No other radiograms are available for comparison. Which of the following is the next best step in the diagnostic evaluation of this patient?
Q626
A 70-year-old male is brought to the emergency department from a nursing home due to worsening mental status. His nurse reports that the patient has been very lethargic and sleeping more than usual for the past week. She found him confused and difficult to arouse this morning and decided to bring him to the ER. His past medical history is significant for small cell carcinoma of the lung for which he is receiving chemotherapy. He is also on lithium and bupropion for bipolar disorder. Other medications include metoprolol, valsartan, metformin, and insulin. On admission, blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg, pulse rate is 100/min, respiratory rate is 17/min, and temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F). He is drowsy and disoriented. Physical examination is normal. Finger-stick glucose level is 110 mg/dL. Other laboratory studies show:
Na+ 120 mEq/L (136—145 mEq/L)
K+ 3.5 mEq/L (3.5—5.0 mEq/L)
Cl- 107 mEq/L (95—105 mEq/L)
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (0.6—1.2 mg/dL)
Serum osmolality 250 mOsm/kg (275—295 mOsm/kg)
Urine Na+ 70 mEq/L
Urine osmolality 340 mOsm/kg
He is admitted to the hospital for further management. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
Q627
A 32-year-old Caucasian woman presents with a three-month history of weight loss, anxiety, and tremors. She recalls frequent heart palpitations and new discomfort while being outside in the heat. Her labs include a TSH level of 0.1 mIU/L. Additionally, the patient’s serum is positive for antibodies that stimulate the TSH receptor. What process is unique to this patient’s diagnosis?
Q628
A 41-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-year history of fatigue, irregular menstrual cycles, and recurrent sinus infections. Examination shows hirsutism and hypopigmented linear striations on the abdomen. Serum studies show hypernatremia, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis. A 24-hour urinary cortisol level is elevated. Serum ACTH is also elevated. High-dose dexamethasone does not suppress serum cortisol levels. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
Q629
A 35-year-old Caucasian female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to your clinic with pleuritic chest pain that improves while leaning forward. Which of the following additional findings would you expect to observe in this patient?
Q630
A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of progressively worsening shortness of breath on exertion. He is concerned that he has asthma and would like to be started on albuterol. Which of the following findings is most likely to indicate a different diagnosis in this patient?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 621: A 47-year-old man presents to the physician’s office with an inability to maintain an erection. He can achieve an erection, but it is brief and decreases soon after the penetration. His erectile dysfunction developed gradually over the past 2 years. He denies decreased libido, depressed mood, or anhedonia. He does not report any chronic conditions. He has a 20-pack-year history of smoking and drinks alcohol occasionally. He weighs 120 kg (264.5 lb), his height is 181 cm (5 ft 11 in), and his waist circumference is 110 cm (43 in). The blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg and the heart rate is 86/min. Physical examination is performed including a genitourinary and rectal examination. It reveals no abnormalities besides central obesity. Which of the following laboratory tests is indicated to investigate for the cause of the patient’s condition?
A. Total serum bilirubin
B. 24-hour urine cortisol
C. Plasma calcium
D. Fasting serum glucose (Correct Answer)
E. Follicle-stimulating hormone
Explanation: ***Fasting serum glucose***
- The patient has **risk factors for insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes**, including obesity, central obesity (waist circumference 110 cm), hypertension, and a sedentary lifestyle.
- **Type 2 diabetes mellitus is a common cause of erectile dysfunction** due to vascular and neurological complications, making fasting serum glucose an essential diagnostic step.
*Total serum bilirubin*
- **Elevated bilirubin** is typically associated with **liver or hemolytic disorders**, neither of which are suggested by the patient's presentation.
- While chronic illness can impact sexual function, bilirubin is not a primary screening tool for erectile dysfunction.
*24-hour urine cortisol*
- A 24-hour urine cortisol test is used to diagnose **Cushing's syndrome**, which can cause obesity and hypertension, but the patient's symptoms are more consistent with metabolic syndrome.
- There are no other features suggestive of Cushing's, such as **proximal muscle weakness, striae, or buffalo hump**, making this test less relevant initially.
*Plasma calcium*
- **Abnormal calcium levels** can indicate conditions like hyperparathyroidism or certain malignancies, which are not typically linked as direct causes of erectile dysfunction.
- There are no symptoms such as **nephrolithiasis, bone pain, or neuropsychiatric changes** to suggest calcium dysregulation.
*Follicle-stimulating hormone*
- While **gonadotropin levels** (FSH and LH) are relevant in evaluating **hypogonadism**, this patient denies decreased libido or symptoms suggestive of primary hypogonadism.
- A **total testosterone level is a more appropriate initial screening test for hypogonadism** if indicated, as FSH primarily reflects testicular function.
Question 622: A 39-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of fatigue and hair loss. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 15 years. Her only medication is insulin. Her pulse is 59/min and blood pressure is 102/76 mm Hg. Physical examination shows dry skin, coarse hair, and a nontender, diffuse neck swelling in the anterior midline. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. DR5 subtype on HLA haplotype analysis
B. Biphasic spindle cells on biopsy of the swelling
C. Diffusely increased uptake on a radioactive iodine scan
D. B8 subtype on HLA haplotype analysis
E. Antimicrosomal antibodies in serum (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Antimicrosomal antibodies in serum***
- The patient's symptoms (fatigue, hair loss, dry skin, coarse hair, bradycardia, diffuse neck swelling) and history (type 1 diabetes) are highly suggestive of **Hashimoto's thyroiditis**, an autoimmune thyroid disease.
- **Antimicrosomal antibodies (anti-TPO antibodies)** are characteristic markers for Hashimoto's thyroiditis, indicating autoimmune destruction of thyroid tissue.
*DR5 subtype on HLA haplotype analysis*
- While type 1 diabetes is associated with certain HLA subtypes (e.g., DR3, DR4), **DR5** is not typically linked to Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
- This option is less specific and less directly indicative of the present thyroid pathology compared to antimicrosomal antibodies.
*Biphasic spindle cells on biopsy of the swelling*
- **Biphasic spindle cells** are characteristic of **solitary fibrous tumors** or **synovial sarcomas**, neither of which fits the clinical picture of a diffuse, nontender neck swelling associated with hypothyroidism.
- A biopsy of a typical Hashimoto's goiter would show **lymphocytic infiltration** and **Hürthle cells**.
*Diffusely increased uptake on a radioactive iodine scan*
- **Diffusely increased uptake** on a radioactive iodine scan is characteristic of **Graves' disease** (hyperthyroidism), where the thyroid gland is overactive.
- In Hashimoto's thyroiditis, especially in the hypothyroid phase, uptake is typically **reduced** or normal, as the gland's function is impaired.
*B8 subtype on HLA haplotype analysis*
- **HLA-B8** is associated with certain autoimmune conditions like **Graves' disease** and **myasthenia gravis**, but it is not a primary or direct indicator for Hashimoto's thyroiditis.
- As with other HLA subtypes, serological markers are more directly diagnostic for thyroid diseases.
Question 623: A 10-year-old boy presents to the emergency department accompanied by his parents with a swollen and painful right knee after he fell from his bicycle a few hours ago. The patient’s mother says he fell off the bike and struck the ground with his whole weight on his right knee. Immediately, his right knee swelled significantly, and he experienced severe pain. The patient’s past medical history is significant for previous episodes of easy bruising that manifest as small bluish spots, but not nearly as severe. The family history is significant for an uncle who had similar symptoms, and who was diagnosed at the age of 13 years old. The patient is afebrile, and the vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, a large bruise is present over the right knee that is extending several inches down the leg. The right tibiofemoral joint is warm to the touch and severely tender to palpation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Factor V Leiden
B. Hemophilia A (Correct Answer)
C. Homocystinuria
D. Protein C deficiency
E. von Willebrand disease
Explanation: ***Hemophilia A***
- The combination of a **hemarthrosis** (swollen, painful knee after trauma), a history of **easy bruising**, and a **family history** of similar bleeding issues in a male relative points strongly to an X-linked bleeding disorder like hemophilia A.
- Hemophilia A is caused by a deficiency in **Factor VIII**, leading to impaired fibrin clot formation and prolonged bleeding, especially into joints and muscles.
*Factor V Leiden*
- **Factor V Leiden** is a **thrombophilia**, a condition that increases the risk of **blood clotting** (thrombosis), not bleeding.
- It would manifest as deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, or other thrombotic events, which are contrary to the presented symptoms.
*Homocystinuria*
- **Homocystinuria** is an inherited disorder of **amino acid metabolism** that primarily affects connective tissue, the brain, and the cardiovascular system.
- While it can lead to **thromboembolic events**, it does not typically cause bleeding episodes or hemarthrosis.
*Protein C deficiency*
- **Protein C deficiency** is another **thrombophilia**, increasing the risk of **venous and arterial thrombosis**.
- Like Factor V Leiden, it is associated with excessive clotting, not the bleeding symptoms described in the patient.
*von Willebrand disease*
- **von Willebrand disease** is a common bleeding disorder, but it typically causes **mucocutaneous bleeding** (e.g., nosebleeds, heavy menstrual periods, prolonged bleeding from cuts).
- While severe forms can lead to joint bleeds, hemophilia A is a more classic presentation for severe spontaneous or post-traumatic **hemarthrosis** in a young boy with a significant family history.
Question 624: A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of a cough and shortness of breath. He also noted several episodes of blood-tinged sputum over the last 4 days. He has a 3-month history of progressive fatigue. His temperature is 37.5°C (98.6°F), pulse is 86/min, respirations are 17/min, and blood pressure is 150/93 mm Hg. Examination shows pale conjunctivae. Crackles are heard on auscultation of the chest. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count 9200/mm3
Platelet count 305,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 136 mEq/L
Cl- 101 mEq/L
K+ 4.5 mEq/L
HCO3- 25 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 28 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.3 mg/dL
Anti-GBM antibodies positive
Antinuclear antibodies negative
Urine
Blood 2+
Protein 2+
RBC 11–13/hbf
RBC casts rare
He is started on prednisone and cyclophosphamide. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Perform hemodialysis
B. Administer inhalative fluticasone
C. Perform plasmapheresis (Correct Answer)
D. Administer enalapril
E. Administer immune globulins
Explanation: ***Perform plasmapheresis***
- The patient presents with **Goodpasture syndrome**, characterized by **pulmonary hemorrhage** (cough, shortness of breath, hemoptysis) and **glomerulonephritis** (elevated creatinine, proteinuria, hematuria, RBC casts).
- Given the **positive anti-GBM antibodies** and rapidly progressive disease, **plasmapheresis** is crucial to remove circulating anti-GBM antibodies, along with immunosuppression (prednisone and cyclophosphamide), to halt tissue damage.
*Perform hemodialysis*
- While the patient has elevated creatinine and early signs of renal impairment, his **blood pressure is 150/93 mm Hg** and **creatinine is 2.3 mg/dL**, indicating that he is not in immediate renal failure requiring hemodialysis yet.
- Hemodialysis is used for **end-stage renal disease** or severe acute kidney injury with complications like severe uremia, hyperkalemia, or fluid overload, which are not explicitly present or severe enough for urgent dialysis in this case.
*Administer inhalative fluticasone*
- Inhalative fluticasone is a **corticosteroid primarily used for asthma or COPD** to reduce airway inflammation.
- While the patient has pulmonary symptoms, his condition is due to **systemic autoimmune disease (Goodpasture syndrome)**, not asthma, and requires systemic immunosuppression and antibody removal.
*Administer enalapril*
- Enalapril is an **ACE inhibitor** used to treat **hypertension** and **renal disease** by reducing proteinuria and blood pressure.
- While the patient has hypertension, his primary issue is an **aggressive autoimmune disease**, which requires immediate immunosuppression and plasmapheresis. Enalapril could be considered later for blood pressure control and renoprotection, but it is not the most urgent next step.
*Administer immune globulins*
- **Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)** may be used in certain autoimmune conditions as an immunomodulatory agent, but it is **not the first-line treatment for Goodpasture syndrome**.
- **Plasmapheresis** is the preferred method for rapidly removing pathogenic anti-GBM antibodies from circulation in Goodpasture syndrome, in conjunction with potent immunosuppressants.
Question 625: A 40-year-old man presents to the physician for a pre-employment medical check-up. He has no symptoms and his past medical history is insignificant. He is a non-smoker. His temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), the heart rate is 76/min, the blood pressure is 124/82 mm Hg, and the respiratory rate is 16/min. His general and systemic examination does not reveal any abnormality. Laboratory evaluation is completely normal; however, his chest radiogram shows a single irregularly shaped nodule in the upper lobe of his right lung. The nodule has circumscribed margins and appears to be surrounded by normally aerated lung parenchyma. The nodule is approx. 7 mm (0.28 in) in diameter. The pattern of calcification is nonspecific and there are no signs of atelectasis or pneumonitis. The physician compares the radiogram with another radiogram which was obtained 5 years back. However, there was no pulmonary nodule in the previous radiogram. No other radiograms are available for comparison. Which of the following is the next best step in the diagnostic evaluation of this patient?
A. CT-guided transthoracic needle aspiration (TTNA)
B. Transbronchial needle aspiration (TBNA)
C. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
D. Thin-section computed tomography (CT) through the nodule (Correct Answer)
E. Single-photon emission CT (SPECT) scan
Explanation: ***Thin-section computed tomography (CT) through the nodule***
- A **solitary pulmonary nodule (SPN)** discovered on a chest X-ray requires further characterization, even if asymptomatic. A **thin-section CT scan** is the next appropriate step to better define the nodule's characteristics, such as size, growth, borders, and presence of calcification patterns, which are crucial for assessing malignancy risk.
- The absence of a nodule on a chest radiogram 5 years prior and the non-specific calcification in an asymptomatic, non-smoking 40-year-old indicates a need for more detailed imaging to guide management, which a thin-section CT provides.
*CT-guided transthoracic needle aspiration (TTNA)*
- **TTNA** is an invasive procedure generally reserved for nodules with a **high suspicion of malignancy** based on initial imaging (like CT) and patient risk factors, or when less invasive methods have failed to yield a diagnosis.
- Performing TTNA directly after a chest X-ray without further CT characterization is premature as it carries risks such as **pneumothorax** and hemorrhage.
*Transbronchial needle aspiration (TBNA)*
- **TBNA** is typically used for sampling hilar, mediastinal, or peribronchial lesions, as well as peripheral nodules that are accessible via bronchoscope.
- Given the nodule's position in the **upper lobe of the right lung** and its relatively small size (7mm), initial assessment with CT is preferred before considering an invasive procedure like TBNA.
*Positron emission tomography (PET) scan*
- A **PET scan** is useful for assessing the **metabolic activity** of a nodule, which helps differentiate between benign and malignant lesions. However, it is typically performed after a thin-section CT scan has provided detailed anatomical information and the nodule is of sufficient size (usually >8-10 mm) to avoid false negatives.
- For a 7 mm nodule, the sensitivity of a PET scan can be lower, and it may not be the initial imaging modality chosen without more detailed CT information.
*Single-photon emission CT (SPECT) scan*
- **SPECT scans** are primarily used for evaluating specific organ functions, such as myocardial perfusion or bone metabolism, and are not indicated for the initial characterization or diagnostic evaluation of a solitary pulmonary nodule.
- This imaging modality would not provide the necessary anatomical detail or metabolic information relevant to determine the nature of a lung nodule.
Question 626: A 70-year-old male is brought to the emergency department from a nursing home due to worsening mental status. His nurse reports that the patient has been very lethargic and sleeping more than usual for the past week. She found him confused and difficult to arouse this morning and decided to bring him to the ER. His past medical history is significant for small cell carcinoma of the lung for which he is receiving chemotherapy. He is also on lithium and bupropion for bipolar disorder. Other medications include metoprolol, valsartan, metformin, and insulin. On admission, blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg, pulse rate is 100/min, respiratory rate is 17/min, and temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F). He is drowsy and disoriented. Physical examination is normal. Finger-stick glucose level is 110 mg/dL. Other laboratory studies show:
Na+ 120 mEq/L (136—145 mEq/L)
K+ 3.5 mEq/L (3.5—5.0 mEq/L)
Cl- 107 mEq/L (95—105 mEq/L)
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL (0.6—1.2 mg/dL)
Serum osmolality 250 mOsm/kg (275—295 mOsm/kg)
Urine Na+ 70 mEq/L
Urine osmolality 340 mOsm/kg
He is admitted to the hospital for further management. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A. Psychogenic polydipsia
B. Lithium
C. Infection
D. Carcinoma (Correct Answer)
E. Bupropion
Explanation: ***Carcinoma***
- This patient's **small cell lung carcinoma** is the most likely cause of his presentation, as it is one of the **most common causes of paraneoplastic SIADH**.
- The laboratory findings are **classic for SIADH**: euvolemic hyponatremia (Na+ 120 mEq/L), low serum osmolality (250 mOsm/kg), inappropriately concentrated urine (urine osmolality 340 mOsm/kg), and elevated urine sodium (70 mEq/L).
- The **altered mental status** (lethargy, confusion) is consistent with severe hyponatremia.
- Small cell lung cancer accounts for approximately **15% of all SIADH cases** and should always be considered in this clinical context.
*Psychogenic polydipsia*
- While excessive water intake can cause hyponatremia, it typically presents with **very dilute urine** (low urine osmolality <100 mOsm/kg) and **low urine sodium** (<20 mEq/L).
- This patient has **concentrated urine** (340 mOsm/kg) and **elevated urine sodium** (70 mEq/L), which are inconsistent with psychogenic polydipsia.
*Lithium*
- Lithium toxicity can cause neurological symptoms but typically causes **nephrogenic diabetes insipidus**, leading to **hypernatremia** or normal sodium levels, not hyponatremia.
- Lithium-induced SIADH is exceedingly rare and would not be the most likely diagnosis in a patient with known small cell lung cancer.
- The patient's creatinine is normal (0.8 mg/dL), making significant lithium toxicity less likely.
*Infection*
- Infections (particularly pneumonia, meningitis, or CNS infections) can cause SIADH and altered mental status.
- However, this patient has **no fever** (temperature 36.5°C), and there are no other signs suggesting active infection.
- The **direct paraneoplastic association** between small cell lung cancer and SIADH makes carcinoma the more likely primary cause.
*Bupropion*
- Bupropion has been rarely associated with SIADH in case reports, but this is an **uncommon adverse effect**.
- Given the patient's **well-established risk factor** (small cell lung carcinoma) for SIADH, the malignancy is a far more likely cause than medication effect.
Question 627: A 32-year-old Caucasian woman presents with a three-month history of weight loss, anxiety, and tremors. She recalls frequent heart palpitations and new discomfort while being outside in the heat. Her labs include a TSH level of 0.1 mIU/L. Additionally, the patient’s serum is positive for antibodies that stimulate the TSH receptor. What process is unique to this patient’s diagnosis?
A. Stimulation of retroorbital fibroblasts (Correct Answer)
B. Elevated levels of cholesterol and low density lipoprotein (LDL)
C. Binding of thyroid hormones to cardiac myocytes
D. Hyperplasia of thyroid follicular cells
E. Lymphocyte-mediated destruction of the thyroid gland
Explanation: ***Stimulation of retroorbital fibroblasts***
- This patient's symptoms (weight loss, anxiety, tremors, heat intolerance, palpitations, low TSH, positive TSH receptor antibodies) are highly classic for **Graves' disease**.
- Unique to Graves' disease among thyroid disorders is the **TSH receptor antibody** stimulation of retroorbital fibroblasts and adipocytes, leading to the characteristic symptom of **Graves' ophthalmopathy** (exophthalmos), which is a key distinguishing feature.
*Elevated levels of cholesterol and low density lipoprotein (LDL)*
- **Elevated cholesterol** and **LDL** are typically associated with **hypothyroidism**, where the metabolic rate is slowed down, leading to decreased clearance of lipids.
- In **hyperthyroidism** (Graves' disease), the metabolic rate is increased, often leading to **decreased cholesterol** and LDL levels.
*Binding of thyroid hormones to cardiac myocytes*
- While **thyroid hormones** do bind to receptors on **cardiac myocytes** in hyperthyroid states, leading to increased heart rate and contractility, this process is not unique to Graves' disease.
- This **binding** and its effects on the heart are a general feature of **hyperthyroidism**, regardless of its underlying cause (e.g., toxic multinodular goiter, thyroiditis).
*Hyperplasia of thyroid follicular cells*
- **Hyperplasia of thyroid follicular cells** occurs in various conditions, including other forms of **hyperthyroidism** and even in some forms of **goiter** without hyperthyroidism.
- While it is present in Graves' disease due to constant stimulation by TSH receptor antibodies, it is not a **unique pathological process** specific only to Graves' disease.
*Lymphocyte-mediated destruction of the thyroid gland*
- **Lymphocyte-mediated destruction** of the thyroid gland is characteristic of **Hashimoto's thyroiditis**, which typically leads to **hypothyroidism**.
- In contrast, Graves' disease involves **autoantibody stimulation** of the thyroid leading to hyperthyroidism, not destruction of the gland.
Question 628: A 41-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-year history of fatigue, irregular menstrual cycles, and recurrent sinus infections. Examination shows hirsutism and hypopigmented linear striations on the abdomen. Serum studies show hypernatremia, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis. A 24-hour urinary cortisol level is elevated. Serum ACTH is also elevated. High-dose dexamethasone does not suppress serum cortisol levels. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Adrenal adenoma
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Adrenal carcinoma
E. Small cell lung cancer (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Small cell lung cancer***
- The combination of **elevated ACTH** and **failure to suppress cortisol** with high-dose dexamethasone suggests an **ectopic ACTH-producing tumor**.
- **Small cell lung cancer** is the most common cause of **ectopic ACTH syndrome**, leading to severe Cushing's syndrome with rapid onset and significant metabolic derangements like **hypernatremia**, **hypokalemia**, and **metabolic alkalosis**.
*Pheochromocytoma*
- This condition causes episodic or sustained **hypertension** and symptoms related to catecholamine excess (e.g., palpitations, sweating, headaches).
- It does not primarily lead to the cortisol excess and distinct metabolic disturbances observed in this patient.
*Adrenal adenoma*
- An **adrenal adenoma** producing cortisol would lead to **Cushing's syndrome** with **low ACTH** due to negative feedback.
- The patient's **elevated ACTH** rules out a primary adrenal cause of cortisol excess.
*Pituitary adenoma*
- A **pituitary adenoma** (Cushing's disease) often shows **partial suppression** of cortisol with high-dose dexamethasone (though not always complete suppression).
- While it causes elevated ACTH, the prominent **metabolic derangements** and strong resistance to suppression are more typical of ectopic ACTH production.
*Adrenal carcinoma*
- An **adrenal carcinoma** producing cortisol would also lead to **Cushing's syndrome** with **low ACTH** due to negative feedback.
- The patient's **elevated ACTH** is inconsistent with a primary adrenal tumor.
Question 629: A 35-year-old Caucasian female with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to your clinic with pleuritic chest pain that improves while leaning forward. Which of the following additional findings would you expect to observe in this patient?
A. Exaggerated amplitude of pulse on inspiration (Correct Answer)
B. Pulsatile abdominal mass
C. Increase in jugular venous pressure on inspiration
D. S3 heart sound
E. Continuous machine-like murmur
Explanation: ***Exaggerated amplitude of pulse on inspiration***
- The clinical presentation of **pleuritic chest pain that improves while leaning forward** is highly suggestive of **acute pericarditis**.
- **Pulsus paradoxus** (an exaggerated drop in systolic blood pressure >10 mmHg during inspiration, manifesting as decreased pulse amplitude) can occur when pericarditis is complicated by **pericardial effusion**.
- While not present in all cases of acute pericarditis, pulsus paradoxus is the most relevant finding among the options listed and suggests developing **cardiac tamponade physiology**.
- Rheumatoid arthritis can cause serositis including pericarditis with effusion.
*Pulsatile abdominal mass*
- A **pulsatile abdominal mass** is characteristic of an **abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)**, which is unrelated to pericarditis.
- AAA typically presents with abdominal or back pain, not pleuritic chest pain.
*Increase in jugular venous pressure on inspiration*
- An **increase in JVP on inspiration** is known as **Kussmaul's sign**, which is characteristic of **constrictive pericarditis** or **right ventricular failure**.
- In acute pericarditis, this sign is not typically present unless chronic constriction has developed.
*S3 heart sound*
- An **S3 heart sound** is heard during early diastole and indicates **rapid ventricular filling**, typically associated with **heart failure** or **volume overload**.
- S3 is not a feature of acute pericarditis, which primarily involves pericardial inflammation.
*Continuous machine-like murmur*
- A **continuous machine-like murmur** is the classic finding for **patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)**, a congenital heart defect.
- This has no association with pericarditis or rheumatoid arthritis.
Question 630: A 32-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of progressively worsening shortness of breath on exertion. He is concerned that he has asthma and would like to be started on albuterol. Which of the following findings is most likely to indicate a different diagnosis in this patient?
A. Decrease in systolic blood pressure by 16 mm Hg during inspiration
B. Decrease in FEV1 by 6% after administration of high-dose methacholine (Correct Answer)
C. 129% of the predicted diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide
D. Visibility of 11 posterior ribs in the midclavicular line above the diaphragm on chest x-ray
E. Bipyramidal crystals measuring 50 μm on sputum analysis
Explanation: ***Decrease in FEV1 by 6% after administration of high-dose methacholine***
- A **positive methacholine challenge test** is defined by a decrease in **FEV1 of ≥20%**, which indicates bronchial hyperreactivity characteristic of asthma.
- A **6% decrease is negative** and essentially **rules out bronchial hyperreactivity**, the hallmark pathophysiologic feature of asthma.
- This finding most strongly indicates a **different diagnosis** should be pursued (such as cardiac causes, deconditioning, or other pulmonary pathology).
*Decrease in systolic blood pressure by 16 mm Hg during inspiration*
- This represents **pulsus paradoxus** (>10 mmHg drop during inspiration).
- While this can indicate **cardiac tamponade** or **constrictive pericarditis**, it is also a **classic finding in severe asthma exacerbations** due to large intrathoracic pressure swings.
- Therefore, this does not reliably indicate a different diagnosis from asthma.
*129% of the predicted diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide*
- **Elevated DLCO** is unusual and may suggest **pulmonary hemorrhage**, **polycythemia**, or **obesity**.
- Asthma typically has **normal or slightly reduced DLCO**, so this finding is somewhat atypical but not as definitive as a negative methacholine challenge.
*Visibility of 11 posterior ribs in the midclavicular line above the diaphragm on chest x-ray*
- **Hyperinflation** (>10 posterior ribs visible) is a hallmark of obstructive airway diseases including **asthma** and **COPD**.
- This finding **supports** rather than refutes an asthma diagnosis.
*Bipyramidal crystals measuring 50 μm on sputum analysis*
- These are **Charcot-Leyden crystals** formed from eosinophil breakdown.
- They are **characteristic of asthma** and other eosinophilic conditions.
- This finding **supports** an asthma diagnosis.