A 40-year-old man with persistent moderate asthma presents for a pulmonary function test. His ratio of forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) to forced vital capacity (FVC) is 0.69, and his FEV1 is 65% of his predicted values. What other findings can be expected in the remainder of his pulmonary function test?
Q612
A 56-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with frequent episodes of facial flushing for the past 2 weeks. He says the episodes are associated with mild headaches and a sensation of fullness in his head and neck. Additionally, he has developed recurrent, often severe, itching after taking a hot shower. The patient denies any smoking history but says he drinks alcohol socially. His blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg, and his temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F). On physical examination, his face and neck appear red. Cardiac examination reveals a regular rate and rhythm. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. The spleen is noted to be palpable just below the costal margin. A complete blood count shows a hemoglobin level of 19.5 g/dL, a total leukocyte count of 12,000/mm3, and a platelet count of 450,000/mm3. Which of the following sets of abnormalities is most likely present in this patient?
Q613
A 52-year-old postmenopausal woman seeks evaluation at a medical clinic with complaints of back pain and increased fatigue for 6 months. For the past week, the back pain has radiated to her legs and is stabbing in nature (7/10 in intensity). There are no associated paresthesias. She unintentionally lost 4.5 kg (10.0 lb) in the past 6 months. There is no history of trauma to the back. The past medical history is insignificant and she does not take any medications. The physical examination is normal. The laboratory results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 10 g/dL
Hematocrit 30%
Mean corpuscular volume 80 fL
Serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dL
Serum total protein 9 g/dL
Serum albumin 4.2 g/dL
Serum calcium 11.2 mg/dL
A peripheral blood smear shows normocytic normochromic cells. An X-ray reveals multiple osteolytic lesions in the vertebrae and long bones. Serum protein electrophoresis shows a monoclonal spike. A bone marrow biopsy shows increased plasma cells making up greater than 50% of the total cell population. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q614
A 72-year-old male with history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, cluster headaches, and basal cell carcinoma presents with complaints of progressive dyspnea. He has had increasing shortness of breath, especially when going on walks or mowing the lawn. In addition, he had two episodes of extreme lightheadedness while moving some of his furniture. His temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 135/92 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Physical exam is notable for clear lung fields and a 3/6 systolic ejection murmur best heard at the right 2nd intercostal space. In addition, the carotid pulses are delayed and diminished in intensity bilaterally. Which of the following would most likely be seen in association with this patient’s condition?
Q615
A 65-year-old woman comes to the physician for a 18-month history of gradual enlargement of her fingertips and a 2-month history of a hoarse voice. She has had decreased appetite after a respiratory tract infection 3 months ago and a 8-kg (17.6-lb) weight loss during this period. The patient has never smoked. She was diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea 10 years ago and uses a CPAP mask at night. She retired from her job as an administrative assistant at a local college 5 years ago. She appears tired. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows increased convexity of the nail fold and painful swelling of the soft tissue of her fingers and ankles. There is no discoloration of her lips and oral mucosa. There is faint wheezing in the right upper lung field. This patient's condition is most likely associated with which of the following findings?
Q616
A previously healthy 24-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after an episode of loss of consciousness. He was standing in line at a bus stop when he suddenly became tense, fell down, and lost consciousness; this was followed by 4 minutes of violent jerky movements of his arms and legs. He was confused after the episode. He has no recollection of the event or its immediate aftermath. On arrival, he is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. His temperature is 37.7°C (99.4°F), pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows blood in the mouth. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following laboratory findings?
Q617
A 69-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her husband because of multiple falls and difficulty maintaining balance while standing or walking over the past year. During this period, she has had blurred vision and diplopia. Her husband has had difficulty understanding her speech for the past 3 months. She has become withdrawn and now refuses to go to social gatherings. Examination shows a broad-based gait and dysarthria. The visual acuity is 20/20 in each eye. There is conjugate limitation of both eyes while looking down. Muscle tone is increased in bilateral upper extremities. Bradykinesia is present. Mental status examination shows apathy. She responds to questions with 1–2 words after a delay of several seconds. Grasp reflex is present. An MRI of the brain is most likely to show which of the following?
Q618
A 66-year old man with a 45-pack-year smoking history presents with abdominal pain and constipation. He reports that he has had a worsening cough for several months and has lost 20 pounds over this time period. You order a complete metabolic profile, which demonstrates hypercalcemia. A chest radiograph shows a centrally located mass suspicious for malignancy. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
Q619
A 42-year-old woman presents to the urgent care clinic with recurrent chest pain and pressure radiating to her jaw. ECG is obtained and shows ST-segment elevation, but her cardiac enzymes are repeatedly found to be within normal ranges. She has a heart rate of 82/min and a blood pressure of 128/76 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals regular heart sounds with no friction rub. Which of the following options is an acceptable treatment regimen for this patient’s suspected condition?
Q620
A 62-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife because she thinks he has had a stroke. He has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Current medications include enalapril and metformin. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes per day for the past 35 years. His blood pressure is 162/95 mm Hg. A CT scan of the brain shows a lacunar stroke involving the left subthalamic nucleus. The patient most likely presented with which of the following findings on physical examination?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 611: A 40-year-old man with persistent moderate asthma presents for a pulmonary function test. His ratio of forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) to forced vital capacity (FVC) is 0.69, and his FEV1 is 65% of his predicted values. What other findings can be expected in the remainder of his pulmonary function test?
A. Decreased diffusion capacity of carbon monoxide (DLCO)
B. Decrease in FEV1 with albuterol
C. Increase in fractional exhalation of nitric oxide (Correct Answer)
D. Decrease in total lung capacity
E. Increase in FEV1 with methacholine
Explanation: ***Increase in fractional exhalation of nitric oxide***
- An increase in **fractional exhalation of nitric oxide (FeNO)** is a marker of **airway inflammation**, which is characteristic of asthma.
- This finding would further support the diagnosis of asthma in a patient with **obstructive lung disease** as indicated by the FEV1/FVC ratio and reduced FEV1.
*Decreased diffusion capacity of carbon monoxide (DLCO)*
- A decreased **DLCO** is typically seen in conditions affecting the **alveolar-capillary membrane**, such as emphysema or interstitial lung disease.
- In uncomplicated asthma, the **DLCO** is usually normal or even slightly increased due to increased pulmonary blood volume.
*Decrease in FEV1 with albuterol*
- **Albuterol** is a **short-acting beta-agonist (SABA)**, a bronchodilator that should *increase* FEV1 in a patient with reversible airway obstruction like asthma.
- A **decrease** in FEV1 after albuterol administration would be an unexpected and abnormal response, not consistent with asthma.
*Decrease in total lung capacity*
- A **decrease in total lung capacity (TLC)** is characteristic of **restrictive lung diseases**, where lung expansion is limited.
- Asthma is an **obstructive lung disease**, and patients often exhibit **air trapping** and **hyperinflation**, leading to a *normal or increased* TLC, not a decrease.
*Increase in FEV1 with methacholine*
- **Methacholine** is a **bronchoconstrictor** used in bronchial challenge tests to *induce* bronchospasm and a *decrease* in FEV1 in asthmatic patients.
- An **increase** in FEV1 with methacholine would be contrary to its pharmacological effect and the expected response in asthma.
Question 612: A 56-year-old man presents to his general practitioner with frequent episodes of facial flushing for the past 2 weeks. He says the episodes are associated with mild headaches and a sensation of fullness in his head and neck. Additionally, he has developed recurrent, often severe, itching after taking a hot shower. The patient denies any smoking history but says he drinks alcohol socially. His blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg, and his temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F). On physical examination, his face and neck appear red. Cardiac examination reveals a regular rate and rhythm. Lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. The spleen is noted to be palpable just below the costal margin. A complete blood count shows a hemoglobin level of 19.5 g/dL, a total leukocyte count of 12,000/mm3, and a platelet count of 450,000/mm3. Which of the following sets of abnormalities is most likely present in this patient?
A. ↑ Blood viscosity, ↓ blood flow with an M-spike of immunoglobulin G
Explanation: ***↑ Blood viscosity, ↓ blood flow, ↓ erythropoietin***
- The patient's symptoms (facial flushing, headaches, fullness in head/neck, **post-shower pruritus**) and lab findings (hemoglobin **19.5 g/dL**, elevated WBC and platelets) are classic for **polycythemia vera (PV)**.
- In polycythemia vera, the increased red blood cell mass leads to **increased blood viscosity** and thus **decreased blood flow**, causing hyperviscosity symptoms.
- The excess RBC production is driven by autonomous proliferation (typically due to **JAK2 V617F mutation**), which occurs independently of erythropoietin. The elevated RBC mass suppresses **erythropoietin** levels through negative feedback from the kidneys.
- Post-shower pruritus (aquagenic pruritus) is pathognomonic for PV and results from basophil and mast cell degranulation triggered by temperature changes.
*↑ Blood viscosity, ↓ blood flow with an M-spike of immunoglobulin G*
- While increased blood viscosity and decreased blood flow occur in polycythemia vera, an **M-spike of immunoglobulin G** is characteristic of **multiple myeloma**, not polycythemia vera.
- Multiple myeloma presents with anemia (not erythrocytosis), bone pain, hypercalcemia, and renal dysfunction.
*↑ Blood viscosity, ↓ blood flow with blast cells*
- The presence of **blast cells** in peripheral blood would suggest **acute leukemia**, which is not supported by this clinical picture.
- Polycythemia vera is a chronic myeloproliferative neoplasm; blast cells are generally absent in the peripheral blood unless there is transformation to acute leukemia (rare complication).
*↑ Blood viscosity, ↓ blood flow with an M-spike of immunoglobulin M*
- An **M-spike of immunoglobulin M** is a hallmark of **Waldenström macroglobulinemia**, a lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma.
- While Waldenström can cause hyperviscosity syndrome, it presents with anemia, not erythrocytosis, along with lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly from lymphoid infiltration.
*↓ Blood viscosity, ↑ blood flow, ↓ erythropoietin, ↑ ferritin*
- **Decreased blood viscosity** and **increased blood flow** would occur in anemia, which is the opposite of this patient's presentation with significantly elevated hemoglobin.
- While erythropoietin is indeed decreased in polycythemia vera, **↑ ferritin** is not a primary feature and would be more suggestive of iron overload (hemochromatosis) or an acute phase response to inflammation.
Question 613: A 52-year-old postmenopausal woman seeks evaluation at a medical clinic with complaints of back pain and increased fatigue for 6 months. For the past week, the back pain has radiated to her legs and is stabbing in nature (7/10 in intensity). There are no associated paresthesias. She unintentionally lost 4.5 kg (10.0 lb) in the past 6 months. There is no history of trauma to the back. The past medical history is insignificant and she does not take any medications. The physical examination is normal. The laboratory results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 10 g/dL
Hematocrit 30%
Mean corpuscular volume 80 fL
Serum creatinine 1.5 mg/dL
Serum total protein 9 g/dL
Serum albumin 4.2 g/dL
Serum calcium 11.2 mg/dL
A peripheral blood smear shows normocytic normochromic cells. An X-ray reveals multiple osteolytic lesions in the vertebrae and long bones. Serum protein electrophoresis shows a monoclonal spike. A bone marrow biopsy shows increased plasma cells making up greater than 50% of the total cell population. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. POEMS syndrome
B. Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance
C. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
D. Metastatic bone disease
E. Multiple myeloma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Multiple myeloma***
- The patient's presentation with **back pain**, **fatigue**, **anemia**, **elevated creatinine**, **hypercalcemia**, **osteolytic lesions**, and a **monoclonal spike** on serum protein electrophoresis, along with **>50% plasma cells** in bone marrow, is classic for **multiple myeloma**.
- These findings fulfill the criteria for active multiple myeloma, characterized by end-organ damage (e.g., **CRAB criteria**: **C**alcium elevation, **R**enal failure, **A**nemia, **B**one lesions) and significant plasma cell infiltration.
*POEMS syndrome*
- While POEMS syndrome involves **monoclonal plasma cell proliferation**, it presents with features like **Polyneuropathy, Organomegaly, Endocrinopathy, Monoclonal protein, and Skin changes**, which are not described in this patient.
- The dominant symptoms of **bone pain**, **anemia**, **hypercalcemia**, and **renal failure** are not typical primary manifestations of POEMS syndrome.
*Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance*
- **MGUS** is characterized by the presence of a **monoclonal protein** without evidence of end-organ damage (**CRAB criteria**) or significant bone marrow plasma cell infiltration (typically <10%).
- This patient exhibits **hypercalcemia**, **renal dysfunction**, **anemia**, **bone lesions**, and **>50% plasma cells**, all of which rule out MGUS.
*Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia*
- This is a **lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma** often associated with **hyperviscosity syndrome**, **lymphadenopathy**, and a **monoclonal IgM spike**, none of which are highlighted in this patient's presentation.
- While it involves elevated protein and sometimes anemia, the **osteolytic lesions** and **hypercalcemia** are not characteristic of Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia; it rarely causes destructive bone lesions.
*Metastatic bone disease*
- Although metastatic bone disease can cause **osteolytic lesions** and **back pain**, it typically does not present with a **monoclonal protein spike** or **elevated plasma cells** in the bone marrow.
- The detailed laboratory findings, including **monoclonal gammopathy** and **high plasma cell percentage**, are highly specific to plasma cell dyscrasias rather than solid tumor metastases.
Question 614: A 72-year-old male with history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, cluster headaches, and basal cell carcinoma presents with complaints of progressive dyspnea. He has had increasing shortness of breath, especially when going on walks or mowing the lawn. In addition, he had two episodes of extreme lightheadedness while moving some of his furniture. His temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 135/92 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 94% on room air. Physical exam is notable for clear lung fields and a 3/6 systolic ejection murmur best heard at the right 2nd intercostal space. In addition, the carotid pulses are delayed and diminished in intensity bilaterally. Which of the following would most likely be seen in association with this patient’s condition?
A. Colonic angiodysplasia (Correct Answer)
B. Erectile dysfunction
C. Cerebral artery aneurysm
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Carotid atherosclerosis
Explanation: ***Colonic angiodysplasia***
- This patient's presentation of exertional dyspnea, lightheadedness, a 3/6 systolic ejection murmur best heard at the right 2nd intercostal space, and diminished/delayed carotid pulses is highly suggestive of **aortic stenosis**.
- **Heyde’s syndrome** is the classic association of severe aortic stenosis with acquired **Gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding** from colonic angiodysplasia.
*Erectile dysfunction*
- While erectile dysfunction is common in older males with **vascular disease** and comorbidities like hypertension and diabetes, it is not a direct or specific association with aortic stenosis in the same way Heyde's syndrome is.
- It reflects generalized vascular health but doesn't have a unique pathophysiological link to aortic valve pathology.
*Cerebral artery aneurysm*
- **Cerebral artery aneurysms** are associated with conditions like polycystic kidney disease or connective tissue disorders (e.g., Ehlers-Danlos, Marfan syndrome), but not typically with aortic stenosis.
- There is no direct causal or strong correlational link between aortic stenosis and cerebral aneurysms.
*Deep vein thrombosis*
- **Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)** is a risk in patients with immobility, certain malignancies, hypercoagulable states, and heart failure, but it is not specifically or exclusively associated with aortic stenosis as a unique complication.
- While chronic illness can increase DVT risk, it lacks the specific association seen with angiodysplasia.
*Carotid atherosclerosis*
- Carotid atherosclerosis is common in a 72-year-old male with risk factors like hypertension and diabetes. However, the prominent "diminished and delayed" carotid pulses described ("**pulsus parvus et tardus**") are a direct physical finding of **severe aortic stenosis** due to reduced stroke volume and delayed ejection, rather than simply being a concurrent atherosclerotic disease.
- While carotid atherosclerosis can coexist, the specific pulse characteristic is a direct consequence of the valvular pathology.
Question 615: A 65-year-old woman comes to the physician for a 18-month history of gradual enlargement of her fingertips and a 2-month history of a hoarse voice. She has had decreased appetite after a respiratory tract infection 3 months ago and a 8-kg (17.6-lb) weight loss during this period. The patient has never smoked. She was diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnea 10 years ago and uses a CPAP mask at night. She retired from her job as an administrative assistant at a local college 5 years ago. She appears tired. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows increased convexity of the nail fold and painful swelling of the soft tissue of her fingers and ankles. There is no discoloration of her lips and oral mucosa. There is faint wheezing in the right upper lung field. This patient's condition is most likely associated with which of the following findings?
A. Increased serum ACE
B. Increased serum ADH
C. Reticular opacities on chest x-ray (Correct Answer)
D. Peripheral cyanosis
E. Pleural effusion on chest x-ray
Explanation: ***Reticular opacities on chest x-ray***
- The patient presents with **digital clubbing** and **hypertrophic osteoarthropathy (HPO)** - evidenced by painful soft tissue swelling of fingers and ankles.
- While **lung cancer** is a major concern given the **hoarseness** (recurrent laryngeal nerve involvement), **unilateral wheezing** (bronchial obstruction), and **weight loss**, clubbing with HPO can also be associated with **idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)**.
- **Reticular opacities** are the characteristic radiographic finding of **interstitial lung disease**, including IPF, which commonly presents with digital clubbing.
- IPF patients may develop secondary infections and constitutional symptoms including weight loss.
*Increased serum ACE*
- **Elevated serum ACE** is primarily associated with **sarcoidosis**, a granulomatous disease.
- While sarcoidosis can cause clubbing and pulmonary symptoms, the **painful periostitis** (hypertrophic osteoarthropathy) and **unilateral wheezing** are not typical features.
*Increased serum ADH*
- **Increased serum ADH** indicates **syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)**, a paraneoplastic syndrome most commonly associated with **small cell lung cancer**.
- SIADH presents with **hyponatremia** and symptoms such as confusion, nausea, or seizures, which are not described in this patient.
*Peripheral cyanosis*
- **Peripheral cyanosis** indicates reduced oxygen saturation in peripheral tissues, typically from poor circulation or severe hypoxemia.
- While advanced interstitial lung disease can cause hypoxemia, the question specifically notes **no discoloration of lips and oral mucosa**, indicating absence of cyanosis.
*Pleural effusion on chest x-ray*
- **Pleural effusions** are commonly associated with **lung malignancy**, particularly adenocarcinoma.
- While lung cancer is in the differential given the hoarseness and unilateral findings, the **bilateral clubbing and symmetric HPO** are more characteristic of diffuse pulmonary processes like ILD rather than localized malignancy with effusion.
Question 616: A previously healthy 24-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after an episode of loss of consciousness. He was standing in line at a bus stop when he suddenly became tense, fell down, and lost consciousness; this was followed by 4 minutes of violent jerky movements of his arms and legs. He was confused after the episode. He has no recollection of the event or its immediate aftermath. On arrival, he is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. His temperature is 37.7°C (99.4°F), pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows blood in the mouth. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following laboratory findings?
A. Increased serum sodium
B. Reduced serum creatine kinase
C. Reduced serum bicarbonate (Correct Answer)
D. Increased serum magnesium
E. Increased serum calcium
Explanation: ***Reduced serum bicarbonate***
- The patient's presentation with sudden loss of consciousness, tonic-clonic movements, postictal confusion, and tongue biting is classic for a **generalized tonic-clonic seizure**
- Prolonged intense muscle activity during the seizure leads to **anaerobic metabolism** and **lactic acidosis**
- The accumulated lactic acid consumes bicarbonate as a buffer, resulting in **reduced serum bicarbonate** and metabolic acidosis
- This is typically transient and resolves within hours as lactate is cleared
*Increased serum sodium*
- Seizures do not typically cause **hypernatremia** as a direct consequence
- While severe hyponatremia can precipitate seizures, the seizure itself does not increase sodium levels
- Serum sodium is generally unchanged immediately post-seizure
*Reduced serum creatine kinase*
- The violent muscle contractions during a **tonic-clonic seizure** cause **rhabdomyolysis** (muscle breakdown)
- This results in a significant **increase in serum creatine kinase (CK)**, not a reduction
- Elevated CK is a common and expected finding after generalized tonic-clonic seizures and may peak 24-48 hours post-seizure
*Increased serum magnesium*
- There is no physiological mechanism by which a seizure would cause **hypermagnesemia**
- Magnesium levels are typically unaffected by seizure activity
- Note: Low magnesium can be a cause of seizures, but the seizure itself doesn't increase magnesium
*Increased serum calcium*
- **Serum calcium** levels are not directly affected by the acute seizure event
- While severe **hypocalcemia** can precipitate seizures, a seizure does not cause hypercalcemia
- Calcium homeostasis remains stable during and after typical seizures
Question 617: A 69-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her husband because of multiple falls and difficulty maintaining balance while standing or walking over the past year. During this period, she has had blurred vision and diplopia. Her husband has had difficulty understanding her speech for the past 3 months. She has become withdrawn and now refuses to go to social gatherings. Examination shows a broad-based gait and dysarthria. The visual acuity is 20/20 in each eye. There is conjugate limitation of both eyes while looking down. Muscle tone is increased in bilateral upper extremities. Bradykinesia is present. Mental status examination shows apathy. She responds to questions with 1–2 words after a delay of several seconds. Grasp reflex is present. An MRI of the brain is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Enlarged ventricles with mild cortical atrophy
B. Frontal atrophy with intact hippocampi
C. Atrophy of cerebellum and brainstem
D. Midbrain atrophy with intact pons (Correct Answer)
E. Asymmetric focal cortical atrophy
Explanation: ***Midbrain atrophy with intact pons***
- The constellation of **supranuclear ophthalmoplegia** (especially impaired vertical gaze), **postural instability with falls**, **dysarthria**, **bradykinesia**, and **cognitive changes** (apathy, delayed responses) in an older adult is highly characteristic of **Progressive Supranuclear Palsy (PSP)**.
- **PSP** classically manifests with **atrophy of the midbrain**, particularly the **tegmentum**, while the pons remains relatively spared, giving the characteristic "hummingbird sign" or "penguin sign" on MRI in sagittal view.
*Enlarged ventricles with mild cortical atrophy*
- This finding is common in **normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)**, which presents with a triad of **gait ataxia**, **urinary incontinence**, and **dementia**.
- While gait disturbance and cognitive decline are present here, the prominent **supranuclear ophthalmoplegia** and **increased muscle tone** are not typical of NPH.
*Frontal atrophy with intact hippocampi*
- This pattern is characteristic of **frontotemporal dementia (FTD)**, which often presents with **behavioral changes**, **personality alterations**, or **language deficits**.
- While apathy is present, the pronounced oculomotor dysfunction, bradykinesia, and falls point away from a primary FTD diagnosis.
*Atrophy of cerebellum and brainstem*
- **Cerebellar atrophy** would typically cause more prominent **appendicular ataxia**, **dysmetria**, and nystagmus, which are not the primary features described.
- Diffuse **brainstem atrophy** can be seen in various neurodegenerative conditions but does not specifically pinpoint the selective midbrain involvement characteristic of PSP.
*Asymmetric focal cortical atrophy*
- This finding is more typical of **cortical degenerative conditions** like **corticobasal degeneration (CBD)** or some forms of **frontotemporal dementia**.
- CBD might present with asymmetric parkinsonism and apraxia, but the prominent supranuclear ophthalmoplegia and the specific midbrain atrophy pattern are more indicative of PSP.
Question 618: A 66-year old man with a 45-pack-year smoking history presents with abdominal pain and constipation. He reports that he has had a worsening cough for several months and has lost 20 pounds over this time period. You order a complete metabolic profile, which demonstrates hypercalcemia. A chest radiograph shows a centrally located mass suspicious for malignancy. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
A. Metastatic abdominal cancer
B. Carcinoid tumor causing carcinoid syndrome
C. Squamous cell carcinoma producing a peptide with hormonal activity (Correct Answer)
D. Small cell carcinoma producing a peptide with hormonal activity
E. Squamous cell carcinoma producing parathyroid hormone
Explanation: ***Squamous cell carcinoma producing a peptide with hormonal activity***
- The combination of **hypercalcemia**, a **central lung mass** in a patient with a heavy **smoking history**, and symptoms like abdominal pain and constipation (due to hypercalcemia) strongly suggests **paraneoplastic syndrome** due to squamous cell carcinoma.
- **Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)** of the lung is well-known to produce **parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP)**, leading to **humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (HHM)**, which mimics the effects of PTH.
*Metastatic abdominal cancer*
- While metastatic cancer can cause weight loss and abdominal symptoms, it doesn't typically present with a **central lung mass** as the primary suspicious finding for malignancy and **hypercalcemia** without bone metastases.
- This option does not explain the presence of a **central lung mass** and associated hypercalcemia.
*Carcinoid tumor causing carcinoid syndrome*
- **Carcinoid tumors** can cause weight loss and abdominal pain, but they are typically associated with **carcinoid syndrome** (flushing, diarrhea, bronchospasm), not hypercalcemia.
- **Carcinoid tumors** rarely cause hypercalcemia and are not typically associated with large central lung masses and a heavy smoking history in this manner.
*Small cell carcinoma producing a peptide with hormonal activity*
- **Small cell lung carcinoma (SCLC)** is associated with **paraneoplastic syndromes**, most notably **SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion)** leading to hyponatremia, and **Cushing's syndrome** due to ectopic ACTH production.
- While SCLC is a central lung mass and associated with smoking, it is **less commonly linked to PTHrP-mediated hypercalcemia** than squamous cell carcinoma.
*Squamous cell carcinoma producing parathyroid hormone*
- **Squamous cell carcinoma** produces **parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP)**, not true **parathyroid hormone (PTH)**.
- **PTHrP** mimics PTH in its effects but is structurally different; ectopic production of actual PTH by a non-parathyroid tumor is extremely rare.
Question 619: A 42-year-old woman presents to the urgent care clinic with recurrent chest pain and pressure radiating to her jaw. ECG is obtained and shows ST-segment elevation, but her cardiac enzymes are repeatedly found to be within normal ranges. She has a heart rate of 82/min and a blood pressure of 128/76 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals regular heart sounds with no friction rub. Which of the following options is an acceptable treatment regimen for this patient’s suspected condition?
A. Calcium channel blockers and nitrates (Correct Answer)
B. Nitrates only
C. Beta-blockers, nitrates and aspirin
D. Aspirin and clopidogrel
E. Aspirin, clopidogrel, beta-blockers, and nitrates
Explanation: **Calcium channel blockers and nitrates**
- This patient likely has **Prinzmetal's angina** (vasospastic angina), characterized by recurrent chest pain, ST-segment elevation on ECG, and normal cardiac enzymes, consistent with **coronary artery spasm**.
- **Calcium channel blockers** (e.g., diltiazem, amlodipine) and **nitrates** are the cornerstone of treatment, as they directly relax coronary arteries and prevent spasms.
*Nitrates only*
- While **nitrates** can alleviate acute symptoms of Prinzmetal's angina by vasodilation, they are generally **insufficient for long-term prevention** of recurrent spasms.
- **Calcium channel blockers** are crucial for sustained prophylaxis against vasospasm.
*Beta-blockers, nitrates and aspirin*
- **Beta-blockers** are generally **contraindicated** in Prinzmetal's angina as they can worsen **coronary artery spasm** by blocking beta-2 mediated vasodilation, leading to unopposed alpha-adrenergic vasoconstriction.
- **Aspirin** is not the primary treatment for vasospastic angina, as the pain is due to spasm rather than thrombotic occlusion.
*Aspirin and clopidogrel*
- **Aspirin** and **clopidogrel** are **antiplatelet agents** primarily used to prevent thrombus formation in atherosclerotic coronary artery disease.
- They are not indicated as a first-line treatment for Prinzmetal's angina, where chest pain is due to **coronary vasospasm**, not platelet aggregation.
*Aspirin, clopidogrel, beta-blockers, and nitrates*
- This combination includes several treatments that are either **ineffective** or **harmful** for Prinzmetal's angina.
- **Beta-blockers** are contraindicated, and **antiplatelet agents** (aspirin, clopidogrel) are not primary treatments for vasospasm.
Question 620: A 62-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife because she thinks he has had a stroke. He has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Current medications include enalapril and metformin. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes per day for the past 35 years. His blood pressure is 162/95 mm Hg. A CT scan of the brain shows a lacunar stroke involving the left subthalamic nucleus. The patient most likely presented with which of the following findings on physical examination?
A. Cogwheel rigidity
B. Dystonia
C. Hemispatial agnosia
D. Vertical gaze palsy
E. Hemiballismus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hemiballismus***
- A lacunar stroke in the **subthalamic nucleus (STN)** typically causes **hemiballismus**, which is characterized by wild, involuntary, large-amplitude flinging movements on one side of the body.
- The STN is part of the **basal ganglia circuit** and its damage leads to disinhibition of the thalamus, resulting in hyperkinetic movements.
*Cogwheel rigidity*
- This is a feature of **Parkinson's disease**, resulting from damage to the **substantia nigra** affecting dopamine production, not typically a direct result of a lacunar stroke in the subthalamic nucleus.
- It is characterized by a jerky resistance to passive movement in a limb.
*Dystonia*
- Characterized by sustained or repetitive muscle contractions resulting in **twisting and repetitive movements** or abnormal fixed postures.
- While basal ganglia dysfunction can cause dystonia, it's a broader term, and **hemiballismus** is a more specific and classic presentation of STN lesions.
*Hemispatial agnosia*
- Refers to a deficit in attention to one side of space, most commonly associated with lesions in the **non-dominant (right) parietal lobe**.
- This is distinct from the motor symptoms expected from a subthalamic nucleus lesion.
*Vertical gaze palsy*
- Commonly associated with lesions in the **midbrain**, particularly the **dorsal midbrain syndrome (Parinaud syndrome)**.
- This is not a typical presentation of a lacunar stroke specifically involving the subthalamic nucleus.