A 33-year-old woman presents to the physician because of abdominal discomfort, weakness, and fever. She has had a significant weight loss of 15 kg (33.1 lb) over the past 2 months. She has no history of medical illness and is not on any medications. Her pulse is 96/min, the blood pressure is 167/92 mm Hg, the respiratory rate is 20/min, and the temperature is 37.7°C (99.8°F). Her weight is 67 kg (147.71 lb), height is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in), and BMI is 26.17 kg/m2. Abdominal examination shows purple striae and a vaguely palpable mass in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, which does not move with respirations. She has coarse facial hair and a buffalo hump along with central obesity. Her extremities have poor muscle bulk, and muscle weakness is noted on examination. An ultrasound of the abdomen demonstrates an adrenal mass with para-aortic lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most likely laboratory profile in this patient?
Q582
A 27-year-old Caucasian female presents to her physician for episodes of urinary incontinence that began shortly after a breakup with her boyfriend. She claimed to be psychologically devastated when she found him sleeping with her brother and has had trouble caring for herself ever since. The patient states that the episodes came on suddenly and occur randomly. The patient denies any burning or pain upon urination. Upon obtaining further history, the patient also states that she has "stress spells" in which her vision becomes blurry or has blind spots. The patient also complains of frequent headaches. These symptoms have persisted for the past few years and she attributes them to arguments with her boyfriend. Embarrassed, the patient even admits to episodes of fecal incontinence which she also blames on her boyfriend's perpetual verbal and occasional physical abuse. The patient is teary and a physical exam is deferred until her mood improves. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q583
A 52-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of shortness of breath and nonproductive cough. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 15 years. Cardiopulmonary examination shows fine inspiratory crackles bilaterally. There is clubbing present in the fingers bilaterally. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) show an FVC of 78% of expected and an FEV1/FVC ratio of 92%. A CT scan of the chest is shown. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Q584
A 24-year-old man presents with a complaint of breathlessness while jogging. He says that he recently started marathon training. He does not have any family history of asthma nor has any allergies. He currently takes no medication. The blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, and the heart rate is 67/min. With each heartbeat, he experiences pounding in his chest, and his head bobs. On physical examination, he has long fingers, funnel chest, and disproportionate body proportions with a decreased upper-to-lower segment ratio. On auscultation over the 2nd right intercostal space, an early diastolic murmur is heard, and 3rd and 4th heart sounds are heard. Echocardiography shows aortic root dilatation. The patient is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following is associated with this patient's condition?
Q585
A 38-year-old woman comes to the physician because of frequent headaches and blurring of vision. She also complains of weight gain, menstrual irregularities, and excessive growth of body hair. She says that, for the first time since she turned 18, her shoe and ring sizes have increased, and also complains that her voice has become hoarser. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows prominent frontal bossing, a protuberant mandible with spaces between the teeth, and large hands and feet. Serum studies show:
Na+ 140 mEq/L
Cl− 102 mEq/L
K+ 4.1 mEq/L
Ca2+ 10.6 mg/dL
Phosphorus 4.7 mg/dL
Glucose 180 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely sequela of this patient's condition?
Q586
A 47-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. He has no complaints and has no history of serious illness. He works as a forklift operator in a factory. His brother died of malignant melanoma. He smokes occasionally and drinks a glass of wine once a week. His pulse is 79/min and blood pressure is 129/84 mm Hg. Which of the following causes of death is this patient most at risk for over the next 15 years?
Q587
A 62-year-old man comes to the physician because of fatigue and swelling of the lower legs for 3 weeks. One year ago, he had an 85% stenosis in the left anterior descending artery, for which he received 2 stents. He was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus and arterial hypertension. Current medications include aspirin, metformin, and ramipril. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 92/min, and blood pressure is 142/95 mm Hg. Examination shows 2+ pretibial edema bilaterally. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count 6500/mm3
Platelet count 188,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 137 mEq/L
Cl− 105 mEq/L
K+ 5.2 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 60 mg/dL
Glucose 110 mg/dL
Creatinine 3.9 mg/dL
Albumin 3.6 g/dL
HbA1C 6.8%
Urine
Blood negative
Glucose 1+
Protein 3+
WBC 0–1/hpf
A renal biopsy shows sclerosis in the capillary tufts and arterial hyalinosis. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient's findings?
Q588
A tall, slender 32-year-old man comes to the emergency room because of sudden chest pain, cough, and shortness of breath. On physical examination, he has decreased breath sounds on the right. Chest radiography shows translucency on the right side of his chest. His pCO2 is elevated and pO2 is decreased. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Q589
An otherwise healthy 25-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of intermittent palpitations and worsening shortness of breath on exertion. He has not had chest pain or nocturnal dyspnea. The patient is 195 cm (6 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 70 kg (154 lbs); BMI is 18.4 kg/m2. His pulse is 110/min and blood pressure is 140/60 mm Hg. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q590
A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of lower limb weakness for the past 2 days. She says she also hasn’t been able to urinate for that same period. There is no history of trauma, fever, weight loss, recent respiratory tract infection, or diarrhea. She has a past medical history of left arm weakness 18 months ago that resolved spontaneously. Her father had type 2 diabetes mellitus, ischemic heart disease, and left-sided residual weakness secondary to an ischemic stroke involving the right middle cerebral artery. Her vital signs include: blood pressure 120/89 mm Hg, temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), pulse 78/min, and respiration rate 16/min. Muscle strength is 3/5 in both lower limbs with increased tone and exaggerated deep tendon reflexes. The sensation is decreased up to the level of the umbilicus. Muscle strength, tone, and deep tendon reflexes in the upper limbs are normal. On flexion of the neck, the patient experiences electric shock-like sensations that travel down to the spine. Funduscopic examination reveals mildly swollen optic discs bilaterally. Which of the following is the next best step in management for this patient?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 581: A 33-year-old woman presents to the physician because of abdominal discomfort, weakness, and fever. She has had a significant weight loss of 15 kg (33.1 lb) over the past 2 months. She has no history of medical illness and is not on any medications. Her pulse is 96/min, the blood pressure is 167/92 mm Hg, the respiratory rate is 20/min, and the temperature is 37.7°C (99.8°F). Her weight is 67 kg (147.71 lb), height is 160 cm (5 ft 3 in), and BMI is 26.17 kg/m2. Abdominal examination shows purple striae and a vaguely palpable mass in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, which does not move with respirations. She has coarse facial hair and a buffalo hump along with central obesity. Her extremities have poor muscle bulk, and muscle weakness is noted on examination. An ultrasound of the abdomen demonstrates an adrenal mass with para-aortic lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the most likely laboratory profile in this patient?
A. Impaired glucose tolerance, elevated serum cortisol, elevated 24-h urinary free cortisol, and high plasma ACTH
B. Normal glucose tolerance, elevated serum cortisol, normal 24-h urinary free cortisol, and normal plasma adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
C. Impaired glucose tolerance, elevated serum cortisol, elevated 24-h urinary free cortisol, and low plasma ACTH (Correct Answer)
D. Impaired glucose tolerance, reduced serum cortisol, normal 24-h urinary free cortisol, and low plasma ACTH
E. Impaired glucose tolerance, elevated serum cortisol, normal 24-h urinary free cortisol, and normal plasma ACTH
Explanation: ***Impaired glucose tolerance, elevated serum cortisol, elevated 24-h urinary free cortisol, and low plasma ACTH***
- The clinical picture of **Cushing's syndrome** is evident from purple striae, coarse facial hair, buffalo hump, central obesity, muscle weakness, hypertension, and abdominal mass. The adrenal mass with para-aortic lymphadenopathy points to an **adrenocortical carcinoma**, which independently produces cortisol.
- In cases of **adrenal tumors** producing cortisol, the **exogenous cortisol suppresses ACTH production** from the pituitary, leading to low plasma ACTH levels. Elevated cortisol leads to **insulin resistance** and impaired glucose tolerance.
*Impaired glucose tolerance, elevated serum cortisol, elevated 24-h urinary free cortisol, and high plasma ACTH*
- While significant **hypercortisolism** would cause impaired glucose tolerance, elevated serum and urinary free cortisol, **high plasma ACTH** is characteristic of **Cushing's disease** (pituitary ACTH overproduction), not an adrenal tumor.
- An adrenal tumor directly secretes cortisol, thereby **suppressing ACTH** via negative feedback.
*Normal glucose tolerance, elevated serum cortisol, normal 24-h urinary free cortisol, and normal plasma adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)*
- With the strong clinical signs of Cushing's syndrome and an adrenal mass, **elevated serum cortisol** and **elevated 24-h urinary free cortisol** are highly expected, making "normal" results for these parameters incorrect.
- **Impaired glucose tolerance** is a common consequence of chronic hypercortisolism, so normal glucose tolerance would be unlikely.
*Impaired glucose tolerance, reduced serum cortisol, normal 24-h urinary free cortisol, and low plasma ACTH*
- The clinical presentation clearly indicates **hypercortisolism** (Cushing's syndrome), making **reduced serum cortisol** and normal 24-h urinary free cortisol inconsistent with the diagnosis.
- Low plasma ACTH would be appropriate for an adrenal tumor, but the cortisol levels contradict the clinical picture.
*Impaired glucose tolerance, elevated serum cortisol, normal 24-h urinary free cortisol, and normal plasma ACTH*
- While **impaired glucose tolerance** and **elevated serum cortisol** are consistent with Cushing's syndrome, a **normal 24-h urinary free cortisol** would be highly unlikely given the other clinical signs and the presence of an adrenal mass secreting cortisol.
- **Normal plasma ACTH** is also incorrect; it should be suppressed in cases of primary adrenal hypercortisolism.
Question 582: A 27-year-old Caucasian female presents to her physician for episodes of urinary incontinence that began shortly after a breakup with her boyfriend. She claimed to be psychologically devastated when she found him sleeping with her brother and has had trouble caring for herself ever since. The patient states that the episodes came on suddenly and occur randomly. The patient denies any burning or pain upon urination. Upon obtaining further history, the patient also states that she has "stress spells" in which her vision becomes blurry or has blind spots. The patient also complains of frequent headaches. These symptoms have persisted for the past few years and she attributes them to arguments with her boyfriend. Embarrassed, the patient even admits to episodes of fecal incontinence which she also blames on her boyfriend's perpetual verbal and occasional physical abuse. The patient is teary and a physical exam is deferred until her mood improves. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the head
B. Psychological assessment for suicidal ideation
C. Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) for symptoms of regression
D. Urine dipstick and culture
E. Psychological assessment for conversion disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Psychological assessment for conversion disorder***
- The patient presents with neurological symptoms (vision changes, headaches, fecal incontinence) that are inconsistent with known neurological conditions and are often associated with **psychological stress** or trauma.
- The description of symptoms coming on suddenly and their variability, alongside the patient's emotional distress and history of trauma, are highly suggestive of **conversion disorder** (functional neurological symptom disorder).
*Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the head*
- While vision changes and headaches can indicate neurological issues, the sudden onset, variability, and association with traumatic events make **conversion disorder** a more likely initial consideration.
- An MRI would be considered if a neurological cause is suspected after ruling out psychological explanations or if there are **"hard" neurological signs** on examination.
*Psychological assessment for suicidal ideation*
- Although the patient is teary and distressed, there is no direct mention of hopelessness, helplessness, or thoughts of self-harm in the vignette to prioritize suicidal ideation specifically.
- **Suicidal ideation assessment** is crucial in any severely distressed patient, but the presenting symptoms point more specifically towards a stress-related somatic disorder.
*Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) for symptoms of regression*
- CBT is a valid treatment for many psychological conditions, but initiating it before a clear diagnosis is made is premature.
- The symptoms described are more consistent with a somatoform disorder rather than primarily **regression**, which involves retreating to an earlier developmental stage.
*Urine dipstick and culture*
- While urinary incontinence is reported, the patient denies burning or pain, and the incontinence is described as sudden and random, without typical signs of a **urinary tract infection (UTI)**.
- Given the other prominent neurological and psychological symptoms, a UTI is less likely to be the primary diagnosis explaining the constellation of issues.
Question 583: A 52-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of shortness of breath and nonproductive cough. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 15 years. Cardiopulmonary examination shows fine inspiratory crackles bilaterally. There is clubbing present in the fingers bilaterally. Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) show an FVC of 78% of expected and an FEV1/FVC ratio of 92%. A CT scan of the chest is shown. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
A. Bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
B. Pulmonary fibrosis (Correct Answer)
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D. Chronic bronchiectasis
E. Pulmonary tuberculosis
Explanation: ***Pulmonary fibrosis***
- The CT scan shows a pattern of **reticular opacities** and **honeycombing**, classic features of **pulmonary fibrosis**.
- Clinical presentation with **progressive dyspnea**, nonproductive cough, **fine inspiratory crackles**, and **clubbing** are highly suggestive of interstitial lung disease, with PFTs showing a **restrictive pattern** (reduced FVC, preserved FEV1/FVC ratio).
*Bronchopulmonary aspergillosis*
- This condition is typically characterized by **recurrent fleeting infiltrates**, **bronchiectasis**, and **eosinophilia** in asthmatic patients, which are not described.
- The CT findings would usually show **bronchial wall thickening** and **mucus plugging**, rather than widespread fibrosis and honeycombing.
*Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease*
- COPD typically presents with an **obstructive pattern** on PFTs (reduced FEV1/FVC ratio), which is not seen here.
- While smoking is a risk factor, the chest CT findings of extensive **honeycombing** and **fibrosis** are not characteristic of emphysema or chronic bronchitis.
*Chronic bronchiectasis*
- Bronchiectasis is characterized by **permanent dilatation of the bronchi**, often leading to chronic cough with copious sputum production and recurrent infections.
- While the CT scan may show some dilated airways, the predominant pattern of **honeycombing** and **reticular opacities** is more indicative of fibrosis, and the clinical picture does not emphasize chronic productive cough or infections.
*Pulmonary tuberculosis*
- Pulmonary tuberculosis presents with various patterns on CT, often including **cavitary lesions**, **nodules**, or **fibrocalcific changes**, typically in the upper lobes.
- The diffuse interstitial changes and **honeycombing** seen on this CT are not typical for tuberculosis, and symptoms like fever, night sweats, or weight loss are not mentioned.
Question 584: A 24-year-old man presents with a complaint of breathlessness while jogging. He says that he recently started marathon training. He does not have any family history of asthma nor has any allergies. He currently takes no medication. The blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, and the heart rate is 67/min. With each heartbeat, he experiences pounding in his chest, and his head bobs. On physical examination, he has long fingers, funnel chest, and disproportionate body proportions with a decreased upper-to-lower segment ratio. On auscultation over the 2nd right intercostal space, an early diastolic murmur is heard, and 3rd and 4th heart sounds are heard. Echocardiography shows aortic root dilatation. The patient is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following is associated with this patient's condition?
A. Klinefelter syndrome
B. Intravenous drug abuse
C. Marfan's Syndrome (Correct Answer)
D. Kawasaki syndrome
E. Gonorrhea
Explanation: ***Marfan's Syndrome***
- The patient presents with **tall stature**, **long fingers (arachnodactyly)**, **funnel chest (pectus excavatum)**, and **aortic root dilation** with **aortic regurgitation** (early diastolic murmur, head bobbing, pounding in the chest), all classic features of Marfan syndrome.
- This is a **connective tissue disorder** caused by a mutation in the **FBN1 gene**, leading to defective **fibrillin-1**, which is crucial for structural integrity in the heart, blood vessels, eyes, and skeleton.
*Klinefelter syndrome*
- Characterized by a **47, XXY karyotype** and typically presents with infertility, small testes, gynecomastia, and tall stature, but not the specific cardiovascular or skeletal features described.
- While it can cause tall stature, it does not explain the **arachnodactyly**, **pectus excavatum**, or the severe **aortic root dilation** and regurgitation.
*Intravenous drug abuse*
- Primarily associated with **infective endocarditis**, particularly affecting the **tricuspid valve**, leading to heart murmurs related to infection, not the skeletal and aortic root abnormalities seen here.
- This history would lead to a different clinical presentation, potentially involving fever, chills, and vegetations on valve leaflets, none of which are mentioned.
*Kawasaki syndrome*
- An **acute inflammatory vasculitis** primarily affecting young children, characterized by fever, rash, conjunctivitis, lymphadenopathy, and oral mucosal changes.
- While it can cause **coronary artery aneurysms**, it does not explain the skeletal abnormalities or the specific presentation of aortic root dilation with regurgitation in an adult.
*Gonorrhea*
- A **sexually transmitted infection** that can lead to disseminated gonococcal infection, causing arthritis, tenosynovitis, and dermatitis.
- It does not cause the specific skeletal abnormalities or the primary cardiac pathology of aortic root dilation and regurgitation described in this patient.
Question 585: A 38-year-old woman comes to the physician because of frequent headaches and blurring of vision. She also complains of weight gain, menstrual irregularities, and excessive growth of body hair. She says that, for the first time since she turned 18, her shoe and ring sizes have increased, and also complains that her voice has become hoarser. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. She takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows prominent frontal bossing, a protuberant mandible with spaces between the teeth, and large hands and feet. Serum studies show:
Na+ 140 mEq/L
Cl− 102 mEq/L
K+ 4.1 mEq/L
Ca2+ 10.6 mg/dL
Phosphorus 4.7 mg/dL
Glucose 180 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely sequela of this patient's condition?
A. Deposition of mucopolysaccharides in the myocardium
B. Thickening of the coronary artery walls
C. Prolongation of the QT interval on ECG
D. Left ventricular hypertrophy (Correct Answer)
E. Reduced cardiac output
Explanation: ***Left ventricular hypertrophy***
- **Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH)** is the **most common cardiac complication** of acromegaly, occurring in 60-90% of patients with chronic growth hormone (GH) excess.
- The pathophysiology involves direct effects of **GH** and **insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1)** on cardiac myocytes, leading to hypertrophy and interstitial fibrosis, along with increased afterload from hypertension.
- LVH typically manifests early in the disease course and can progress to **diastolic dysfunction** and eventually systolic dysfunction if untreated.
- This patient's clinical features (frontal bossing, prognathism, acral enlargement, hyperglycemia) are classic for **acromegaly**, making LVH the most likely cardiac sequela.
*Reduced cardiac output*
- While **acromegalic cardiomyopathy** can eventually progress to systolic dysfunction with reduced cardiac output and heart failure, this represents a **late-stage complication** occurring in <20% of cases.
- This develops after years of untreated disease when the initial compensatory LVH progresses to dilated cardiomyopathy.
- Since the question asks for the "most likely sequela," LVH is more appropriate as it occurs much more frequently and earlier in the disease course.
*Deposition of mucopolysaccharides in the myocardium*
- This finding is characteristic of **mucopolysaccharidoses** (e.g., Hurler syndrome, Hunter syndrome), which are lysosomal storage diseases.
- While soft tissue hypertrophy occurs in acromegaly, it is due to **increased collagen deposition and glycosaminoglycan accumulation in soft tissues**, not the myocardium specifically.
- This is not a recognized cardiac manifestation of acromegaly.
*Thickening of the coronary artery walls*
- While patients with acromegaly have increased cardiovascular risk due to **hypertension**, **diabetes mellitus**, and **dyslipidemia**, leading to accelerated atherosclerosis, this is not the primary or most characteristic cardiac sequela.
- Coronary artery disease can develop but is less specific to acromegaly than the direct cardiac effects of GH/IGF-1 excess.
*Prolongation of the QT interval on ECG*
- **QT prolongation** is associated with electrolyte abnormalities (hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, hypokalemia), certain medications, and specific genetic syndromes.
- This is not a recognized feature or sequela of acromegaly.
- The patient's electrolytes in this case are within normal limits.
Question 586: A 47-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. He has no complaints and has no history of serious illness. He works as a forklift operator in a factory. His brother died of malignant melanoma. He smokes occasionally and drinks a glass of wine once a week. His pulse is 79/min and blood pressure is 129/84 mm Hg. Which of the following causes of death is this patient most at risk for over the next 15 years?
A. Industrial accident
B. Coronary artery disease (Correct Answer)
C. Prostate cancer
D. Malignant melanoma
E. Lung cancer
Explanation: ***Coronary artery disease***
- **Coronary artery disease (CAD)** is the **leading cause of death** in middle-aged men in the United States, making it the statistically most likely cause of death for this patient over the next 15 years.
- This patient has multiple modifiable risk factors including male sex, smoking (even occasional), and blood pressure of 129/84 mm Hg (elevated blood pressure/stage 1 hypertension by current guidelines).
- Even with relatively modest risk factors, the cumulative 15-year risk of cardiovascular mortality substantially exceeds other causes of death in this demographic group.
*Industrial accident*
- While working as a forklift operator carries some occupational risk, **industrial accidents** account for a very small proportion of deaths compared to chronic diseases in this age group.
- There is no indication of high-risk working conditions or safety concerns that would elevate this above cardiovascular disease as a cause of death.
*Prostate cancer*
- At age 47, the patient is relatively young for **prostate cancer** mortality. Most prostate cancer deaths occur in men over 65.
- While prostate cancer is common in older men, it typically has a long natural history, and mortality within 15 years would be less likely than cardiovascular disease in this age group.
- No specific high-risk features (family history, African-American ethnicity) are mentioned.
*Malignant melanoma*
- Although his brother died of **malignant melanoma**, family history alone does not make this the most likely cause of death over cardiovascular disease.
- The patient has no described personal risk factors (numerous nevi, history of severe sunburns, fair skin) or current lesions of concern.
- Melanoma mortality rates are substantially lower than cardiovascular disease mortality in middle-aged men.
*Lung cancer*
- The patient smokes **occasionally**, which confers some increased risk, but this is not described as heavy or chronic smoking.
- **Lung cancer** typically requires more substantial cumulative tobacco exposure (pack-years) to become a leading cause of mortality.
- Even in smokers, cardiovascular disease often causes death before lung cancer in this age group, particularly with modest smoking history.
Question 587: A 62-year-old man comes to the physician because of fatigue and swelling of the lower legs for 3 weeks. One year ago, he had an 85% stenosis in the left anterior descending artery, for which he received 2 stents. He was diagnosed with hepatitis C 5 years ago. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus and arterial hypertension. Current medications include aspirin, metformin, and ramipril. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 92/min, and blood pressure is 142/95 mm Hg. Examination shows 2+ pretibial edema bilaterally. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count 6500/mm3
Platelet count 188,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 137 mEq/L
Cl− 105 mEq/L
K+ 5.2 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 60 mg/dL
Glucose 110 mg/dL
Creatinine 3.9 mg/dL
Albumin 3.6 g/dL
HbA1C 6.8%
Urine
Blood negative
Glucose 1+
Protein 3+
WBC 0–1/hpf
A renal biopsy shows sclerosis in the capillary tufts and arterial hyalinosis. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient's findings?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Arterial hypertension (Correct Answer)
C. Amyloidosis
D. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
E. Membranous nephropathy
Explanation: ***Arterial hypertension***
- The patient's **blood pressure of 142/95 mm Hg** and history of arterial hypertension, coupled with **arterial hyalinosis** and **glomerulosclerosis (sclerosis in the capillary tufts)** seen on biopsy, strongly indicate hypertensive nephrosclerosis as the primary cause of renal damage. **Arterial hyalinosis** is the pathognomonic finding of hypertensive nephropathy, resulting from chronic endothelial injury and plasma protein deposition in vessel walls.
- The elevated **urea nitrogen (60 mg/dL)** and **creatinine (3.9 mg/dL)**, along with significant **proteinuria (3+)**, indicate substantial kidney damage, consistent with chronic hypertensive nephrosclerosis.
- The inadequate blood pressure control despite ACE inhibitor therapy (ramipril) demonstrates ongoing hypertensive injury.
*Diabetes mellitus*
- While the patient has diabetes, the biopsy finding of **arterial hyalinosis** and **glomerulosclerosis** is more characteristic of hypertensive nephrosclerosis rather than diabetic nephropathy.
- Diabetic nephropathy typically presents with **glomerular basement membrane thickening**, **mesangial expansion**, and **Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules** (nodular glomerulosclerosis), which are not the primary biopsy findings described here.
- Additionally, the patient's **good glycemic control (HbA1C 6.8%)** makes advanced diabetic nephropathy less likely.
*Amyloidosis*
- Amyloidosis would typically show characteristic **amyloid deposits** in the glomeruli and interstitium, which stain positive with **Congo red** and exhibit apple-green birefringence under polarized light, findings not reported.
- Presentation usually includes significant proteinuria, often in the nephrotic range, and can affect multiple organs, but the specific biopsy findings of **arterial hyalinosis** point away from amyloidosis as the primary cause.
*Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis*
- This condition is typically characterized by **mesangial and endothelial proliferation**, **glomerular basement membrane thickening** with a "tram-track" appearance (due to mesangial interposition), and often immune complex deposits.
- While the patient has hepatitis C (a known risk factor for MPGN), the biopsy findings of **glomerulosclerosis** and **arterial hyalinosis** are not specific for MPGN, and the characteristic proliferative changes are not described.
*Membranous nephropathy*
- Membranous nephropathy is primarily characterized by **subepithelial immune complex deposits** and **diffuse thickening of the glomerular basement membrane** (spike and dome appearance on silver stain).
- It is a common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults, but the biopsy describes **glomerulosclerosis** and **arterial hyalinosis** which are not the hallmark features of membranous nephropathy.
Question 588: A tall, slender 32-year-old man comes to the emergency room because of sudden chest pain, cough, and shortness of breath. On physical examination, he has decreased breath sounds on the right. Chest radiography shows translucency on the right side of his chest. His pCO2 is elevated and pO2 is decreased. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
A. Spontaneous pneumothorax (Correct Answer)
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
C. Tension pneumothorax
D. Asthma
E. Pneumonia
Explanation: ***Spontaneous pneumothorax***
- The patient's presentation with **sudden chest pain**, **cough**, and **shortness of breath** in a **tall, slender young man** is classic for a primary spontaneous pneumothorax.
- **Decreased breath sounds** on the affected side and **translucency on chest X-ray** (indicating air in the pleural space) further support this diagnosis.
*Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease*
- COPD typically affects older individuals with a history of smoking and presents with **chronic progressive dyspnea**, not sudden onset.
- While COPD can lead to secondary spontaneous pneumothorax, the patient's age and lack of pre-existing lung disease make this less likely as the primary cause.
*Tension pneumothorax*
- A tension pneumothorax is a **life-threatening condition causing mediastinal shift** and severe hemodynamic compromise (e.g., hypotension, tracheal deviation) which are not described.
- While it shares some features, the absence of these critical signs means a simple spontaneous pneumothorax is more likely first.
*Asthma*
- Asthma presents with **episodic wheezing**, cough, and shortness of breath, often triggered by allergens or exercise.
- The sudden onset of symptoms with **decreased localized breath sounds** and radiological findings of transparencies do not align with typical asthma exacerbations.
*Pneumonia*
- Pneumonia usually involves **fever, productive cough, and localized crackles** or bronchial breath sounds on examination.
- Chest X-rays in pneumonia show **infiltrates or consolidation**, which contrast with the translucency seen in this case.
Question 589: An otherwise healthy 25-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of intermittent palpitations and worsening shortness of breath on exertion. He has not had chest pain or nocturnal dyspnea. The patient is 195 cm (6 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 70 kg (154 lbs); BMI is 18.4 kg/m2. His pulse is 110/min and blood pressure is 140/60 mm Hg. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pulmonary regurgitation
B. Tricuspid regurgitation
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Tricuspid stenosis
E. Aortic regurgitation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Aortic regurgitation***
- The patient's tall stature, low BMI, **palpitations**, **shortness of breath on exertion**, and **wide pulse pressure** (140/60 mm Hg) are classic signs of **aortic regurgitation**.
- Aortic regurgitation leads to **volume overload** of the left ventricle, causing compensatory left ventricular hypertrophy and dilation, which can manifest as palpitations and exertional dyspnea.
*Pulmonary regurgitation*
- Not associated with the **wide pulse pressure** and **prominent peripheral signs** often seen in aortic regurgitation.
- Typically presents with **right ventricular failure** symptoms such as peripheral edema, which are not described.
*Tricuspid regurgitation*
- Characterized by **right-sided heart failure symptoms** like **jugular venous distension** and **peripheral edema**, not seen in this patient.
- Does not cause a **wide pulse pressure** or the significant exertional dyspnea described without concomitant left heart involvement.
*Aortic stenosis*
- Would present with a **narrow pulse pressure** due to fixed outflow obstruction, contrary to the wide pulse pressure observed.
- Symptoms include **angina**, **syncope**, and **dyspnea**, but the physical exam findings are inconsistent with stenosis.
*Tricuspid stenosis*
- An extremely rare condition, primarily causing symptoms of **right atrial enlargement** and **venous congestion** (e.g., ascites, hepatomegaly).
- Does not explain the **wide pulse pressure** or the primary left-sided symptoms like exertional dyspnea without other cardiac involvement.
Question 590: A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of lower limb weakness for the past 2 days. She says she also hasn’t been able to urinate for that same period. There is no history of trauma, fever, weight loss, recent respiratory tract infection, or diarrhea. She has a past medical history of left arm weakness 18 months ago that resolved spontaneously. Her father had type 2 diabetes mellitus, ischemic heart disease, and left-sided residual weakness secondary to an ischemic stroke involving the right middle cerebral artery. Her vital signs include: blood pressure 120/89 mm Hg, temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), pulse 78/min, and respiration rate 16/min. Muscle strength is 3/5 in both lower limbs with increased tone and exaggerated deep tendon reflexes. The sensation is decreased up to the level of the umbilicus. Muscle strength, tone, and deep tendon reflexes in the upper limbs are normal. On flexion of the neck, the patient experiences electric shock-like sensations that travel down to the spine. Funduscopic examination reveals mildly swollen optic discs bilaterally. Which of the following is the next best step in management for this patient?
A. Plasmapheresis
B. Riluzole
C. Intravenous methylprednisolone (Correct Answer)
D. Interferon beta
E. Intravenous immunoglobulin
Explanation: ***Intravenous methylprednisolone***
- The patient presents with classic signs of an **acute multiple sclerosis (MS) exacerbation**, including acute-onset motor weakness, bladder dysfunction, Lhermitte’s sign, and optic disc swelling. High-dose intravenous methylprednisolone is the **first-line treatment** for acute MS exacerbations, as it reduces inflammation and shortens the recovery period.
- The history of a previous self-resolving neurological deficit 18 months prior (left arm weakness) suggests a demyelinating event, supporting a diagnosis of **relapsing-remitting MS**.
*Plasmapheresis*
- **Plasmapheresis** is considered an alternative treatment for severe MS relapses that are **refractory to corticosteroid therapy**. It is not typically the initial treatment of choice.
- In this case, the patient has not yet received corticosteroids, so plasmapheresis would not be the next best step.
*Riluzole*
- **Riluzole** is a medication used to treat **amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)**, a progressive neurodegenerative disease.
- This patient's symptoms are inconsistent with ALS; she has acute, multifocal neurological deficits and a history of a self-resolving episode, which are characteristic of MS.
*Interferon beta*
- **Interferon beta** is a **disease-modifying therapy** for MS used to reduce the frequency and severity of relapses and slow disease progression.
- It is not used for the **acute treatment of an MS exacerbation** but rather for long-term management.
*Intravenous immunoglobulin*
- **Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)** is sometimes used as an alternative treatment for MS exacerbations in patients who cannot tolerate or do not respond to corticosteroids, or in specific situations like **postpartum MS exacerbations**.
- However, **corticosteroids** are generally preferred as the initial treatment for acute MS exacerbations due to their efficacy and established role.