A 55-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-day history of chest pain and cough with rust-colored sputum. The chest pain is sharp, stabbing, and exacerbated by coughing. Ten days ago, she had a sore throat and a runny nose. She was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis at the age of 40 years and uses a wheelchair for mobility. She has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for the past 40 years. She does not drink alcohol. Current medications include ocrelizumab and dantrolene. Her temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 105/min. A few scattered inspiratory crackles are heard in the right lower lung. Cardiac examination shows no abnormalities. Neurologic examination shows stiffness and decreased sensation of the lower extremities; there is diffuse hyperreflexia. An x-ray of the chest is shown. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her current symptoms?
Q572
A 9-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother because of a 3-day history of face and foot swelling, dark urine, and a rash on her hands and feet. The mother reports that her daughter has had a low-grade fever, shortness of breath, and a dry cough for the past 8 days. She has had generalized weakness and pain in her right knee and ankle. She has a ventricular septum defect that was diagnosed at birth. The patient appears lethargic. Her temperature is 38.4 (101.1°F), pulse is 130/min, respirations are 34/min, and blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg. Examination shows small, non-blanching, purple lesions on her palms, soles, and under her fingernails. There is edema of the eyelids and feet. Funduscopic examination shows retinal hemorrhages. Holosystolic and early diastolic murmurs are heard. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 11.3 g/dL
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 61 mm/h
Leukocyte count 15,000/mm3
Platelet count 326,000/mm3
Urine
Blood 4+
Glucose negative
Protein 1+
Ketones negative
Transthoracic echocardiography shows a small outlet ventricular septum defect and a mild right ventricular enlargement. There are no wall motion abnormalities, valvular heart disease, or deficits in the pump function of the heart. Blood cultures grow Streptococcus pyogenes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q573
A 65-year-old woman comes to the physician because of increased difficulty hearing. She has also had dull and progressive pain in her hip and lower back for the past 2 months that is worse with exertion. Examination of the ears shows impaired hearing on the left with whispered voice test and lateralization to the right with Weber testing. There is localized tenderness over the right hip and groin area with decreased range of motion of the hip. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show:
Total protein 6.5 g/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 950 U/L
Calcium 9 mg/dL
Phosphorus 4 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient's symptoms?
Q574
A 57-year-old man presents to his primary care provider because of chest pain for the past 3 weeks. The chest pain occurs after climbing more than 2 flight of stairs or walking for more than 10 minutes and resolves with rest. He is obese, has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, and has smoked 15-20 cigarettes a day for the past 25 years. His father died from a myocardial infarction at 52 years of age. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 36.7 °C (98.06°F), a blood pressure of 145/93 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 85/min. The physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following best represents the most likely etiology of the patient’s condition?
Q575
A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a car accident with pain in the middle of his chest and some shortness of breath. He has sustained injuries to his right arm and leg. He did not lose consciousness. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. He is alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Examination shows several injuries to the upper extremities and chest. There are jugular venous pulsations 10 cm above the sternal angle. Heart sounds are faint on cardiac examination. The lungs are clear to auscultation. An ECG is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q576
A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of sudden right flank pain that began 3 hours ago. He also noticed blood in his urine. Over the past two weeks, he has developed progressive lower extremity swelling and a 4-kg (9-lb) weight gain. Examination shows bilateral 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities. Urinalysis with dipstick shows 4+ protein, positive glucose, and multiple red cell and fatty casts. Abdominal CT shows a large right kidney with abundant collateral vessels and a filling defect in the right renal vein. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q577
A 67-year-old male with a history of poorly controlled hypertension, COPD, and diabetes presents to his cardiologist for a routine appointment. He reports that he has no current complaints and has not noticed any significant changes in his health. On exam, the cardiologist hears an extra heart sound in late diastole that immediately precedes S1. This heart sound is most associated with which of the following?
Q578
A 54-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 1 hour after an episode of loss of consciousness that lasted 3 minutes. Since awakening, he has had weakness of the left arm and leg, and his speech has been slurred. He has had a fever for 10 days. He has not had vomiting or headache. He was treated for bacterial sinusitis 3 weeks ago with amoxicillin-clavulanate. He has hypertension, hypothyroidism, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Current medications include amlodipine, hydrochlorothiazide, metformin, simvastatin, aspirin, and levothyroxine. His temperature is 38.6°C (101.4°F), pulse is 106/min, and blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg. He is alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Examination shows multiple petechiae on his trunk and painless macules over both palms. A new grade 3/6 systolic murmur is heard best at the apex. He follows commands, but he slurs his words and has difficulty naming common objects. There is left facial droop. Muscle strength is 4/5 in the left upper and lower extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ on the left side and 2+ on the right side. The left big toe shows an extensor response. Fundoscopic examination shows retinal hemorrhages with white centers. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 15.3 g/dL
Leukocyte count 12,300/mm3
Serum
Na+ 136 mEq/L
Cl- 103 mEq/L
K+ 4.3 mEq/L
Glucose 108 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
Urine
Protein 1+
Glucose negative
Blood 1+
WBC 1–2/hpf
RBC 7–10/hpf
Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
Q579
A 34-year-old woman, who had her first child 2 weeks ago, visits her family physician with concerns about constant fatigue and difficulty with breastfeeding. She was discharged from the intensive care unit after hospitalization for severe postpartum hemorrhage. Since then, she has tried multiple pumps and self-stimulation to encourage breast milk production; however, neither of these strategies has worked. Her blood pressure is 88/56 mm Hg and heart rate is 120/min. Which of the following best explains the underlying condition of this patient?
Q580
A 58-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of increasing chest pain and shortness of breath. She has had a productive cough with foul-smelling sputum for 1 week. Seven months ago, the patient had an ischemic stroke. She has gastritis and untreated hypertension. She currently lives in an assisted-living community. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years. She has a 20-year history of alcohol abuse, but has not consumed any alcohol in the past 4 years. Her only medication is omeprazole. She appears to be in respiratory distress and speaks incoherently. Her temperature is 39.3°C (102.7°F), pulse is 123/min, respirations are 33/min, and blood pressure is 155/94 mm Hg. Auscultation of the lung shows rales and decreased breath sounds over the right upper lung field. Examination shows weakness and decreased sensation of the right upper and lower extremities. Babinski sign and facial drooping are present on the right. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows:
pH 7.48
PCO2 31 mm Hg
PO2 58 mm Hg
O2 saturation 74%
A chest x-ray shows infiltrates in the right posterior upper lobe. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for this patient's respiratory symptoms?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 571: A 55-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-day history of chest pain and cough with rust-colored sputum. The chest pain is sharp, stabbing, and exacerbated by coughing. Ten days ago, she had a sore throat and a runny nose. She was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis at the age of 40 years and uses a wheelchair for mobility. She has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for the past 40 years. She does not drink alcohol. Current medications include ocrelizumab and dantrolene. Her temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 105/min. A few scattered inspiratory crackles are heard in the right lower lung. Cardiac examination shows no abnormalities. Neurologic examination shows stiffness and decreased sensation of the lower extremities; there is diffuse hyperreflexia. An x-ray of the chest is shown. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her current symptoms?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Pericarditis
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Bacterial pneumonia (Correct Answer)
E. Bronchogenic carcinoma
Explanation: ***Bacterial pneumonia***
- The patient's symptoms of **fever**, **cough with rust-colored sputum**, **pleuritic chest pain**, and scattered **inspiratory crackles** localized to the right lower lung are highly suggestive of bacterial pneumonia. The chest X-ray likely shows characteristic **lobar consolidation**.
- The recent history of **upper respiratory infection** and risk factors like **smoking history** and **ocrelizumab** (an immunosuppressant for MS) further increase susceptibility to bacterial infection.
*Pulmonary embolism*
- While the patient does have risk factors for PE (wheelchair use, immobility from MS), the presentation is more consistent with pneumonia. **Rust-colored sputum** and **fever** are not typical features of PE.
- The **focal crackles** and **consolidation** on chest X-ray strongly favor pneumonia over PE, as chest radiographs in PE are often normal or show subtle findings like **Westermark sign** or **Hampton's hump**.
*Pericarditis*
- Chest pain in pericarditis is often **sharp**, **stabbing**, and exacerbated by **inspiration** and **lying flat**, which is similar to the pleuritic pain described. However, **rust-colored sputum** and **crackles** are not features of pericarditis.
- Pericarditis typically presents with a **pericardial friction rub** on cardiac auscultation, and the chest X-ray would not show consolidation.
*Pulmonary edema*
- Pulmonary edema can cause a cough, but it's typically frothy, white, or pink sputum, not **rust-colored**. The chest pain is often not pleuritic, and the primary cause is usually cardiac dysfunction leading to fluid overload.
- Chest X-ray would reveal **cardiomegaly**, **pulmonary vascular congestion**, **Kerley B lines**, and **bilateral interstitial or alveolar infiltrates**, which differ from the localized consolidation expected in this case.
*Bronchogenic carcinoma*
- While chronic cough and chest pain can be symptoms, **rust-colored sputum** developing acutely over a few days, along with a **fever**, is less consistent with the typical presentation of bronchogenic carcinoma.
- The recent **upper respiratory infection** preceding the symptoms makes an acute infectious process like pneumonia more likely than a new cancer diagnosis, though the smoking history is a risk factor for cancer.
Question 572: A 9-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother because of a 3-day history of face and foot swelling, dark urine, and a rash on her hands and feet. The mother reports that her daughter has had a low-grade fever, shortness of breath, and a dry cough for the past 8 days. She has had generalized weakness and pain in her right knee and ankle. She has a ventricular septum defect that was diagnosed at birth. The patient appears lethargic. Her temperature is 38.4 (101.1°F), pulse is 130/min, respirations are 34/min, and blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg. Examination shows small, non-blanching, purple lesions on her palms, soles, and under her fingernails. There is edema of the eyelids and feet. Funduscopic examination shows retinal hemorrhages. Holosystolic and early diastolic murmurs are heard. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 11.3 g/dL
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 61 mm/h
Leukocyte count 15,000/mm3
Platelet count 326,000/mm3
Urine
Blood 4+
Glucose negative
Protein 1+
Ketones negative
Transthoracic echocardiography shows a small outlet ventricular septum defect and a mild right ventricular enlargement. There are no wall motion abnormalities, valvular heart disease, or deficits in the pump function of the heart. Blood cultures grow Streptococcus pyogenes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Myocarditis
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
C. Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease
D. Kawasaki disease
E. Infective endocarditis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Infective endocarditis***
- The patient presents with **fever, new murmurs (holosystolic and early diastolic), Roth spots (retinal hemorrhages), Janeway lesions (non-blanching purple lesions on palms and soles), Osler's nodes (on fingertips/under fingernails), and splenomegaly (implied by elevated WBC and history of infection),** which are classic signs of infective endocarditis. The presence of a **ventricular septal defect (VSD)** is a predisposing cardiac lesion.
- **Positive blood cultures for *Streptococcus pyogenes*** confirms the infection, and the **dark urine with blood and protein** suggests **glomerulonephritis**, a common complication of endocarditis.
*Myocarditis*
- While myocarditis can cause **fever, shortness of breath, and cardiac dysfunction**, it typically does not present with the characteristic peripheral stigmata of endocarditis such as **Janeway lesions, Osler's nodes, or Roth spots**.
- The echocardiogram explicitly states **"no wall motion abnormalities, valvular heart disease, or deficits in the pump function"**, which would be expected in severe myocarditis.
*Acute lymphoblastic leukemia*
- Leukemia could explain **fatigue, fever, elevated WBC, and petechial rash**, but it would not typically cause **new cardiac murmurs, retinal hemorrhages (Roth spots), or positive blood cultures for *Streptococcus pyogenes***.
- The specific signs of endocarditis, and the absence of profound anemia or thrombocytopenia, make leukemia less likely.
*Hand-Foot-and-Mouth Disease*
- This viral illness is characterized by **fever and vesicular rash on the hands, feet, and oral cavity**, primarily affecting young children.
- It does not cause **cardiac murmurs, Roth spots, Osler's nodes, or Janeway lesions**, and would not typically lead to a *Streptococcus pyogenes* bacteremia.
*Kawasaki disease*
- Kawasaki disease presents with **fever, rash, conjunctivitis, oral mucosal changes, lymphadenopathy, and extremity changes (edema, peeling)**.
- It **does not typically feature new cardiac murmurs, Janeway lesions, Osler's nodes, Roth spots, or positive bacterial blood cultures**, and primarily affects younger children.
Question 573: A 65-year-old woman comes to the physician because of increased difficulty hearing. She has also had dull and progressive pain in her hip and lower back for the past 2 months that is worse with exertion. Examination of the ears shows impaired hearing on the left with whispered voice test and lateralization to the right with Weber testing. There is localized tenderness over the right hip and groin area with decreased range of motion of the hip. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show:
Total protein 6.5 g/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 950 U/L
Calcium 9 mg/dL
Phosphorus 4 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient's symptoms?
A. Defective bone matrix mineralization
B. Increased rate of bone remodeling (Correct Answer)
C. Metastatic destruction of the bone
D. Decreased bone mass with microarchitectural disruption
E. Proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow
Explanation: ***Increased rate of bone remodeling***
- The patient's symptoms (hip and back pain, conductive hearing loss, elevated **alkaline phosphatase** with normal calcium and phosphorus) are classic for **Paget's disease of bone**.
- The Weber test lateralizing to the right (away from the affected left ear) confirms **conductive hearing loss** on the left, which occurs in Paget's disease due to involvement of the temporal bone and ossicular chain.
- Paget's disease is characterized by anarchic, excessive **osteoclastic bone resorption** followed by compensatory, disorganized **osteoblastic bone formation**, leading to overall woven bone formation and an increased rate of bone turnover.
*Defective bone matrix mineralization*
- This mechanism is characteristic of **osteomalacia** or **rickets**, where there is inadequate mineralization of osteoid.
- While it can cause bone pain and weakness, the hearing loss and markedly elevated alkaline phosphatase without corresponding severe hypocalcemia or hypophosphatemia make this less likely.
*Metastatic destruction of the bone*
- **Bone metastases** can cause localized pain and elevated alkaline phosphatase due to osteoblastic response (blastic lesions) or lytic lesions, but typically present with normal calcium and phosphorus only when the disease burden is high.
- Hearing loss is not a common feature of bone metastases unless the skull base is specifically affected, and even then, the overall clinical picture with diffuse bone pain is more suggestive of a systemic bone disorder rather than localized metastasis.
*Decreased bone mass with microarchitectural disruption*
- This describes **osteoporosis**, which leads to increased fracture risk but typically does not cause the severe bone pain seen in this patient, significantly elevated alkaline phosphatase or hearing loss.
- Bone mass reduction in osteoporosis is primarily due to a gradual imbalance between normal bone resorption and bone formation, not an anarchic increase in remodeling seen in Paget's.
*Proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow*
- This phenomenon is indicative of **multiple myeloma**, which causes bone pain, lytic lesions, **hypercalcemia**, and can lead to kidney failure due to light chain deposition.
- While bone pain is present, the normal calcium, elevated alkaline phosphatase without significant hypercalcemia, and prominent hearing loss are inconsistent with a primary diagnosis of multiple myeloma.
Question 574: A 57-year-old man presents to his primary care provider because of chest pain for the past 3 weeks. The chest pain occurs after climbing more than 2 flight of stairs or walking for more than 10 minutes and resolves with rest. He is obese, has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, and has smoked 15-20 cigarettes a day for the past 25 years. His father died from a myocardial infarction at 52 years of age. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 36.7 °C (98.06°F), a blood pressure of 145/93 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 85/min. The physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following best represents the most likely etiology of the patient’s condition?
A. Hypertrophy of the interventricular septum
B. Multivessel atherosclerotic disease with or without a nonocclusive thrombus
C. Intermittent coronary vasospasm with or without coronary atherosclerosis
D. Fixed, atherosclerotic coronary stenosis (> 70%) (Correct Answer)
E. Sudden disruption of an atheromatous plaque, with a resulting occlusive thrombus
Explanation: ***Fixed, atherosclerotic coronary stenosis (> 70%)***
- The patient's presentation with **exertional chest pain** that resolves with rest (stable angina), along with multiple **cardiovascular risk factors** (obesity, type 2 diabetes mellitus, smoking, family history of early MI, hypertension), strongly points towards **stable ischemic heart disease**.
- This clinical picture is typically caused by a **fixed, hemodynamically significant stenosis** in one or more coronary arteries, usually greater than 70%, that limits blood flow during increased demand.
*Multivessel atherosclerotic disease with or without a nonocclusive thrombus*
- While the patient likely has **multivessel atherosclerosis**, the phrase "with or without a nonocclusive thrombus" leans towards **unstable angina** or NSTEMI, which typically involves a sudden change in symptoms or rest angina.
- The patient's symptoms are **stable and reproducible** with exertion, resolving with rest, which is characteristic of stable angina rather than a thrombotic event.
*Sudden disruption of an atheromatous plaque, with a resulting occlusive thrombus*
- This mechanism describes an **acute coronary syndrome (ACS)**, such as an **ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)** or **non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)**.
- ACS typically presents with new-onset, worsening, or rest angina, which is different from the stable, exertional pattern described in the patient.
*Intermittent coronary vasospasm with or without coronary atherosclerosis*
- **Coronary vasospasm** (e.g., Prinzmetal angina) typically causes chest pain that occurs **at rest**, often at night or in the early morning, and is not necessarily related to exertion.
- While the patient could have underlying atherosclerosis, the **predictable exertional nature** of his symptoms makes vasospasm less likely as the primary etiology.
*Hypertrophy of the interventricular septum*
- **Interventricular septal hypertrophy** is characteristic of **hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)**, which can cause exertional chest pain due to outflow tract obstruction or myocardial ischemia.
- However, HCM is less likely to be the primary etiology in a 57-year-old with multiple classic **atherosclerotic risk factors** and no mention of a heart murmur or family history of HCM.
Question 575: A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a car accident with pain in the middle of his chest and some shortness of breath. He has sustained injuries to his right arm and leg. He did not lose consciousness. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. He is alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Examination shows several injuries to the upper extremities and chest. There are jugular venous pulsations 10 cm above the sternal angle. Heart sounds are faint on cardiac examination. The lungs are clear to auscultation. An ECG is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Contrast-enhanced CT angiography
B. Transthoracic echocardiography (Correct Answer)
C. X-ray of the chest
D. CT scan of the brain
E. Contrast esophagram with gastrografin
Explanation: ***Transthoracic echocardiography***
- The patient's presentation with **chest pain**, shortness of breath, **hypotension**, **elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP)**, and **faint heart sounds** after trauma strongly suggests **Beck's triad**, which is classic for **cardiac tamponade**.
- **Transthoracic echocardiography** is the fastest and most accurate method to diagnose cardiac tamponade by visualizing pericardial fluid and its hemodynamic effects.
*Contrast-enhanced CT angiography*
- While CT angiography can detect vascular injuries or aortic dissection, it is not the initial diagnostic test for suspected cardiac tamponade.
- The patient's **hemodynamic instability** requires a rapid diagnostic tool to identify life-threatening conditions like tamponade.
*X-ray of the chest*
- A chest X-ray might show a **widened mediastinum** or **cardiomegaly** if there's a large effusion, but it is not sensitive enough to detect smaller effusions causing tamponade or to assess their hemodynamic impact.
- It does not provide real-time visualization of the heart and pericardium, which is crucial in this emergent setting.
*CT scan of the brain*
- A CT scan of the brain is indicated for suspected head injuries or neurological deficits, but the patient is alert and oriented, and his immediate life threat is clearly thoracic.
- Addressing the signs of cardiac tamponade takes precedence over evaluating the brain given his stable neurological status.
*Contrast esophagram with gastrografin*
- This study is used to diagnose **esophageal perforations**. While possible in significant trauma, the patient's symptoms of **Beck's triad** point specifically to cardiac tamponade, making esophageal perforation a less likely primary diagnosis and this investigation less urgent.
- It would not address the immediate, life-threatening cardiovascular compromise.
Question 576: A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of sudden right flank pain that began 3 hours ago. He also noticed blood in his urine. Over the past two weeks, he has developed progressive lower extremity swelling and a 4-kg (9-lb) weight gain. Examination shows bilateral 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities. Urinalysis with dipstick shows 4+ protein, positive glucose, and multiple red cell and fatty casts. Abdominal CT shows a large right kidney with abundant collateral vessels and a filling defect in the right renal vein. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Factor V Leiden
B. Malignant erythropoietin production
C. Antiphospholipid antibodies
D. Increased lipoprotein synthesis
E. Loss of antithrombin III (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Loss of antithrombin III***
- The patient presents with **nephrotic syndrome** (lower extremity edema, weight gain, 4+ proteinuria, fatty casts), which causes massive urinary loss of proteins, including **antithrombin III**, a critical inhibitor of coagulation.
- Loss of **antithrombin III** creates a **hypercoagulable state**, predisposing to **renal vein thrombosis** (RVT), which explains the acute flank pain, hematuria, enlarged kidney, and filling defect on CT.
- This is the underlying mechanism linking the nephrotic syndrome to the thrombotic complication.
*Factor V Leiden*
- This is a **genetic mutation** causing Factor V resistance to activated protein C, leading to hypercoagulability.
- While it can cause venous thrombosis, it does **not cause nephrotic syndrome** with massive proteinuria and fatty casts as seen in this patient.
- This would be a predisposing factor, not the underlying cause of the nephrotic syndrome itself.
*Antiphospholipid antibodies*
- These antibodies cause a **hypercoagulable state** and can lead to both arterial and venous thromboses, including RVT.
- However, they do **not directly cause nephrotic syndrome** with the massive proteinuria and fatty casts seen here.
- Like Factor V Leiden, this would predispose to thrombosis but doesn't explain the primary renal pathology.
*Increased lipoprotein synthesis*
- This is a **consequence** of nephrotic syndrome, where hepatic compensation for albumin loss leads to increased synthesis of all proteins, including lipoproteins, causing hyperlipidemia.
- It is a **secondary effect**, not the mechanism causing the hypercoagulable state and renal vein thrombosis.
*Malignant erythropoietin production*
- This would cause **polycythemia** (increased RBC count) and potentially thrombotic events due to hyperviscosity.
- It does **not explain** the profound nephrotic syndrome with massive proteinuria, edema, and fatty casts.
- There is no evidence of polycythemia in this clinical presentation.
Question 577: A 67-year-old male with a history of poorly controlled hypertension, COPD, and diabetes presents to his cardiologist for a routine appointment. He reports that he has no current complaints and has not noticed any significant changes in his health. On exam, the cardiologist hears an extra heart sound in late diastole that immediately precedes S1. This heart sound is most associated with which of the following?
A. Left ventricular hypertrophy (Correct Answer)
B. Increased filling pressures
C. Mitral regurgitation
D. Mitral stenosis
E. Ventricular dilation
Explanation: ***Left ventricular hypertrophy***
- An **S4 heart sound** in late diastole, immediately preceding S1, is typically heard with a **stiff, non-compliant left ventricle**, which is characteristic of **left ventricular hypertrophy**.
- The patient's history of **poorly controlled hypertension and diabetes** are significant risk factors for developing left ventricular hypertrophy.
*Increased filling pressures*
- While increased filling pressures can occur in heart failure, an **S4** specifically indicates **diastolic dysfunction due to a hypertrophied ventricle**, not merely high filling pressures.
- An **S3 heart sound** is more commonly associated with increased filling pressures and **ventricular dilation in systolic dysfunction**.
*Mitral regurgitation*
- **Mitral regurgitation** is typically characterized by a **holosystolic murmur**, which is a different auscultatory finding.
- While chronic mitral regurgitation can lead to ventricular hypertrophy, the **S4 sound** itself reflects the underlying **stiffness of the ventricle**, not directly the valvular insufficiency.
*Mitral stenosis*
- **Mitral stenosis** is characterized by an **opening snap** followed by a **mid-diastolic rumble**, which is distinct from an S4 heart sound.
- It involves a narrowed mitral valve orifice, causing impedance to blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle.
*Ventricular dilation*
- **Ventricular dilation** is typically associated with an **S3 heart sound**, which occurs in early diastole during rapid ventricular filling.
- An **S4** signifies a **non-compliant, stiff ventricle** (often hypertrophied), rather than a dilated one.
Question 578: A 54-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 1 hour after an episode of loss of consciousness that lasted 3 minutes. Since awakening, he has had weakness of the left arm and leg, and his speech has been slurred. He has had a fever for 10 days. He has not had vomiting or headache. He was treated for bacterial sinusitis 3 weeks ago with amoxicillin-clavulanate. He has hypertension, hypothyroidism, hyperlipidemia, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Current medications include amlodipine, hydrochlorothiazide, metformin, simvastatin, aspirin, and levothyroxine. His temperature is 38.6°C (101.4°F), pulse is 106/min, and blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg. He is alert and oriented to person, place, and time. Examination shows multiple petechiae on his trunk and painless macules over both palms. A new grade 3/6 systolic murmur is heard best at the apex. He follows commands, but he slurs his words and has difficulty naming common objects. There is left facial droop. Muscle strength is 4/5 in the left upper and lower extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ on the left side and 2+ on the right side. The left big toe shows an extensor response. Fundoscopic examination shows retinal hemorrhages with white centers. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 15.3 g/dL
Leukocyte count 12,300/mm3
Serum
Na+ 136 mEq/L
Cl- 103 mEq/L
K+ 4.3 mEq/L
Glucose 108 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
Urine
Protein 1+
Glucose negative
Blood 1+
WBC 1–2/hpf
RBC 7–10/hpf
Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
A. Temporal encephalitis
B. Contiguous spread of infection
C. Todd's paralysis
D. Ruptured saccular aneurysm
E. Septic emboli (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Septic emboli***
* The constellation of symptoms including **fever**, a **new cardiac murmur**, **petechiae**, **Janeway lesions** (painless macules on palms), **Roth spots** (retinal hemorrhages with white centers), and neurologic deficits (left-sided weakness, slurred speech, aphasia) strongly points towards **infective endocarditis** with subsequent **septic embolization**.
* The neurologic deficits are consistent with an **embolic stroke** originating from vegetations on an infected heart valve, showering emboli to the brain.
*Temporal encephalitis*
* While **fever** and **neurologic deficits** can be seen, **temporal encephalitis** typically presents with **seizures**, **altered mental status**, and *specific abnormalities on MRI*, which are not the primary or most distinguishing features here.
* The presence of **peripheral embolic phenomena** like petechiae, Janeway lesions, and Roth spots is not characteristic of primary encephalitis.
*Contiguous spread of infection*
* Although the patient had **bacterial sinusitis** 3 weeks prior, and intracranial complications can arise from contiguous spread, this mechanism would typically lead to conditions like **brain abscess** or **meningitis**, which usually present with different clinical findings such as headache, focal neurological signs progressing over time, or distinct CSF changes.
* The sudden onset of neurological deficits following a transient loss of consciousness, combined with widespread embolic signs, makes a **septic embolic event** much more likely than direct extension from sinusitis.
*Todd's paralysis*
* **Todd's paralysis** refers to a **post-ictal focal weakness** following a **seizure**. While the patient had a 3-minute loss of consciousness, which could represent a seizure, the **systemic signs of infection** and **embolism** (fever, new murmur, petechiae, Janeway lesions, Roth spots) are not explained by Todd's paralysis alone.
* Furthermore, the continued presence of neurological deficits along with the other findings suggests an underlying process other than a transient post-ictal state.
*Ruptured saccular aneurysm*
* A **ruptured saccular aneurysm** typically causes a **sudden, severe headache** (thunderclap headache), **nuchal rigidity**, and often **rapidly declining consciousness** due to **subarachnoid hemorrhage**.
* Although focal neurological deficits can occur, the absence of severe headache, nuchal rigidity, and the presence of widespread signs of **infective endocarditis** make an aneurysm rupture an unlikely primary diagnosis.
Question 579: A 34-year-old woman, who had her first child 2 weeks ago, visits her family physician with concerns about constant fatigue and difficulty with breastfeeding. She was discharged from the intensive care unit after hospitalization for severe postpartum hemorrhage. Since then, she has tried multiple pumps and self-stimulation to encourage breast milk production; however, neither of these strategies has worked. Her blood pressure is 88/56 mm Hg and heart rate is 120/min. Which of the following best explains the underlying condition of this patient?
A. Pituitary infarction (Correct Answer)
B. Pituitary infection
C. Pituitary hemorrhage
D. Pituitary infiltration by histiocytes
E. Pituitary stalk epithelial tumor
Explanation: ***Pituitary infarction***
- The patient's history of **severe postpartum hemorrhage** causing hypovolemic shock, followed by **fatigue**, **difficulty breastfeeding**, **hypotension**, and **tachycardia**, are classic signs of **Sheehan syndrome**, which is caused by ischemic necrosis (infarction) of the pituitary gland.
- The **lactotroph cells** in the anterior pituitary enlarge significantly during pregnancy, making them more vulnerable to ischemia when blood supply is compromised during hemorrhage.
*Pituitary infection*
- **Pituitary infections** (e.g., abscess) are rare and typically present with symptoms of inflammation such as fever, severe headaches, and meningeal signs, which are not described here.
- While an infection could potentially affect pituitary function, it is not the classic presentation following postpartum hemorrhage.
*Pituitary hemorrhage*
- While postpartum hemorrhage is the cause of the pituitary injury, the **pituitary itself is not hemorrhaging** in Sheehan's syndrome; rather, it is undergoing infarction due to global hypoperfusion.
- **Pituitary apoplexy** (hemorrhage into the pituitary) is an acute event with sudden onset of severe headache, visual disturbances, and rapid endocrine dysfunction, typically not related to postpartum hemorrhage directly in this manner.
*Pituitary infiltration by histiocytes*
- **Histiocytic infiltration** can occur in conditions like Langerhans cell histiocytosis or sarcoidosis, affecting pituitary function.
- However, these conditions have distinct clinical features and are not directly linked to a recent history of postpartum hemorrhage as the precipitating event.
*Pituitary stalk epithelial tumor*
- A **pituitary stalk epithelial tumor** would typically cause symptoms due to mass effect or hormonal imbalances, which might include galactorrhea (if prolactin-secreting) or hypopituitarism over time.
- This scenario does not fit the acute onset of symptoms following postpartum hemorrhage, which points to an ischemic event.
Question 580: A 58-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of increasing chest pain and shortness of breath. She has had a productive cough with foul-smelling sputum for 1 week. Seven months ago, the patient had an ischemic stroke. She has gastritis and untreated hypertension. She currently lives in an assisted-living community. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years. She has a 20-year history of alcohol abuse, but has not consumed any alcohol in the past 4 years. Her only medication is omeprazole. She appears to be in respiratory distress and speaks incoherently. Her temperature is 39.3°C (102.7°F), pulse is 123/min, respirations are 33/min, and blood pressure is 155/94 mm Hg. Auscultation of the lung shows rales and decreased breath sounds over the right upper lung field. Examination shows weakness and decreased sensation of the right upper and lower extremities. Babinski sign and facial drooping are present on the right. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows:
pH 7.48
PCO2 31 mm Hg
PO2 58 mm Hg
O2 saturation 74%
A chest x-ray shows infiltrates in the right posterior upper lobe. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for this patient's respiratory symptoms?
A. Gastritis
B. Living in an assisted-living community
C. History of smoking
D. Past history of alcohol abuse
E. A history of ischemic stroke (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***A history of ischemic stroke***
- The patient's prior **ischemic stroke** with residual neurological deficits (weakness, decreased sensation, facial drooping, Babinski sign) likely impairs her **swallowing reflexes** and **gag reflex**, greatly increasing the risk of **aspiration pneumonia**.
- **Aspiration** of foul-smelling sputum, infiltrates in the **right posterior upper lobe** (a common location for aspiration), and her respiratory distress combined with neurological deficits strongly point to aspiration pneumonia, for which stroke is a major risk factor.
*Gastritis*
- While gastritis affects the gastrointestinal tract, there is no direct evidence suggesting it is a predisposing factor for this patient's **respiratory symptoms** or acute pneumonia.
- No clear pathophysiological link between gastritis and increased risk of pneumonia.
*Living in an assisted-living community*
- Living in an **assisted-living community** can increase exposure to certain pathogens but does not directly predispose an individual to **aspiration pneumonia** in the same way neurological deficits do.
- While institutionalization can be a risk for healthcare-associated infections, the specifics of this patient's presentation (foul-smelling sputum, specific lobe involvement) point more strongly to aspiration.
*History of smoking*
- A **long history of smoking** increases the risk for many respiratory conditions like COPD and general pneumonia by impairing mucociliary clearance and immune function, but is not the *strongest* predisposing factor for the *specific presentation* of aspiration pneumonia.
- The symptoms, particularly the foul-smelling sputum and localization to the RUL, are more characteristic of **aspiration** rather than smoking-induced disease alone.
*Past history of alcohol abuse*
- A history of **chronic alcohol abuse** is a known risk factor for various types of pneumonia due to immunosuppression and a higher likelihood of aspiration; however, the patient has been abstinent for 4 years.
- While a past history can have lasting effects, the more recent and direct impact of the **ischemic stroke** on swallowing function makes it a stronger and more immediate predisposing factor in this acute presentation.