A 45-year-old woman diagnosed with a meningioma localized to the tuberculum sellae undergoes endonasal endoscopic transsphenoidal surgery to resect her tumor. Although the surgery had no complications and the patient is recovering well with no neurological sequelae, she develops intense polydipsia and polyuria. Her past medical history is negative for diabetes mellitus, cardiovascular disease, or malignancies. Urine osmolality is 240 mOsm/L (300–900 mOsm/L), and her serum sodium level is 143 mEq/L (135–145 mEq/L). The attending decides to perform a water deprivation test. Which of the following results would you expect to see after the administration of desmopressin in this patient?
Q552
A 46-year-old woman comes to the physician because of increasingly severe lower back pain for the past week. The pain is constant, and she describes it as 9 out of 10 in intensity. Six months ago, she underwent a lumpectomy for hormone receptor-negative lobular carcinoma of the right breast. She has undergone multiple cycles of radiotherapy. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a well-healed surgical incision over the right breast. There is severe tenderness to palpation over the 12th thoracic vertebra. The straight-leg raise test is negative. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show:
Glucose 76 mg/dL
Creatinine 1 mg/dL
Total bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 234 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT) 16 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT) 12 U/L
γ-Glutamyltransferase (GGT) 40 U/L (N=5–50)
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q553
A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician for a 6-month history of headaches, anorexia, and vomiting. She has had a 10-kg (22-lb) weight loss during this period. She has type 1 diabetes mellitus for which she takes insulin. The patient's mother and sister have hypothyroidism. Her blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg. Physical examination shows hyperpigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa. Serum studies show a parathyroid hormone level of 450 pg/mL and antibodies directed against 21-hydroxylase. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q554
A 53-year-old diabetic man with cellulitis of the right lower limb presents to the emergency department because of symptoms of fever and chills. His pulse is 122/min, the blood pressure is 76/50 mm Hg, the respirations are 26/min, and the temperature is 40.0°C (104.0°F). His urine output is < 0.5mL/kg/h. He has warm peripheral extremities. The hemodynamic status of the patient is not improving in spite of the initiation of adequate fluid resuscitation. He is admitted to the hospital. Which of the following is the most likely laboratory profile?
Q555
A day after percutaneous coronary intervention for stable angina, a 63-year-old woman develops severe pain in her right small toe. She has no history of a similar episode. She has had diabetes mellitus for 16 years. After the procedure, her blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg, the pulse is 65/min, the respiratory rate is 15/min, and the temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F). Physical examination of the femoral artery access site shows no abnormalities. Distal pulses are palpable and symmetric. A photograph of the toe is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q556
A 45-year-old African American woman presents to her primary care physician for not feeling well. She states she has had a cough for the past week. In addition, she also has abdominal pain and trouble focusing that has been worsening. She states that she has also lost 5 pounds recently and that her gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has been very poorly controlled recently. The patient is a non-smoker and has a history of GERD for which she takes antacids. Laboratory studies are ordered and are below:
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
K+: 4.1 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen: 12 mg/dL
Glucose: 70 mg/dL
Creatinine: 0.9 mg/dL
Ca2+: 12.5 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase: 35 U/L
Phosphorus: 2.0 mg/dL
Urine:
Color: amber
Nitrites: negative
Sodium: 5 mmol/24 hours
Red blood cells: 0/hpf
Which of the following is the most likely explanation of this patient's current presentation?
Q557
A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room with dyspnea which began after swimming and progressed gradually over the last 3 days. She denies cough, chest pain, or other respiratory symptoms. She reports that for the past 4 months, she has had several dyspneic episodes that occurred after the exercising and progressed at rest, but none of these were as long as the current one. Also, she notes that her tongue becomes ‘wadded’ when she speaks and she tires very quickly during the day. The patient’s vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 125/60 mm Hg, heart rate 92/min, respiratory rate 34/min, and body temperature 36.2℃ (97.2℉). Blood saturation on room air is initially 92% but falls to 90% as she speaks up. On physical examination, the patient is slightly lethargic. Her breathing is rapid and shallow. Lung auscultation, as well as cardiac, and abdominal examinations show no remarkable findings. Neurological examination reveals slight bilateral ptosis increased by repetitive blinking, and easy fatigability of muscles on repeated movement worse on the face and distal muscles of the upper and lower extremities. Which arterial blood gas parameters would you expect to see in this patient?
Q558
A 47-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician because of pain on urination, urinary urgency, and urinary frequency for 4 days. This is the third time for her to have these symptoms over the past 7 months. She was recently treated for candidal intertrigo. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg and pulse of 75/min. Physical examination is unremarkable except for morbid obesity. Her father has type 2 diabetes complicated by end-stage chronic kidney disease. A1C is found to be 8.5%. The patient is given a prescription for her urinary symptoms. Which of the following is the best next step for this patient?
Q559
A 59-year-old man presents to his family practitioner with his wife. He has fallen several times over the past 3 months. Standing up from a seated position is especially difficult for him. He also complains of intermittent dizziness, excessive sweating, constipation, and difficulty performing activities of daily living. He denies fever, jerking of the limbs, memory disturbances, urinary incontinence, and abnormal limb movements. Past medical history includes a cholecystectomy 25 years ago and occasional erectile dysfunction. He takes a vitamin supplement with calcium and occasionally uses sildenafil. While supine, his blood pressure is 142/74 mm Hg and his heart rate is 64/min. After standing, his blood pressure is 118/60 mm Hg and his heart rate is 62/min. He is alert and oriented with a flat affect while answering questions. Extraocular movements are intact in all directions. No tremors are noticed. Muscle strength is normal in all limbs but with increased muscle tone. He is slow in performing intentional movements. His writing is small and he takes slow steps during walking with adducted arms and a slightly reduced arm swing. A trial of levodopa did not improve his symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q560
A 58-year-old man presents to the clinic concerned about his health after his elder brother recently became bed-bound due to a brain condition. He has also brought a head CT scan of his brother to reference, as shown in the picture. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, osteoarthritis, and hypercholesterolemia. His medication list includes aspirin, diclofenac sodium, metformin, and ramipril. He leads a sedentary lifestyle and smokes one pack of cigarettes daily. He also drinks 4–5 cups of red wine every weekend. His BMI is 33.2 kg/m2. His blood pressure is 164/96 mm Hg, the heart rate is 84/min, and the respiratory rate is 16/min. Which of the following interventions will be most beneficial for reducing the risk of developing the disease that his brother has?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 551: A 45-year-old woman diagnosed with a meningioma localized to the tuberculum sellae undergoes endonasal endoscopic transsphenoidal surgery to resect her tumor. Although the surgery had no complications and the patient is recovering well with no neurological sequelae, she develops intense polydipsia and polyuria. Her past medical history is negative for diabetes mellitus, cardiovascular disease, or malignancies. Urine osmolality is 240 mOsm/L (300–900 mOsm/L), and her serum sodium level is 143 mEq/L (135–145 mEq/L). The attending decides to perform a water deprivation test. Which of the following results would you expect to see after the administration of desmopressin in this patient?
A. Reduction in urine osmolality to 80 mOsm/L
B. Reduction in urine osmolality to 125 mOsm/L
C. Increase in urine osmolality to greater than 264 mOsm/L (Correct Answer)
D. No changes in urine osmolality values
E. Increase in urine osmolality to 250 mOsm/L
Explanation: ***Increase in urine osmolality to greater than 264 mOsm/L***
- The patient's symptoms of **polydipsia and polyuria** following pituitary surgery, along with **low urine osmolality** (240 mOsm/L) and **normal serum sodium**, are highly suggestive of **central diabetes insipidus (CDI)**.
- In central diabetes insipidus, the pituitary gland does not produce enough **antidiuretic hormone (ADH)**. Administration of **desmopressin (synthetic ADH)** will lead to a significant increase in urine osmolality as the kidneys are able to reabsorb water.
*Reduction in urine osmolality to 80 mOsm/L*
- A reduction in urine osmolality after desmopressin would indicate a worsening or no improvement in water reabsorption, which is inconsistent with the expected response in **central diabetes insipidus**.
- This result would be more characteristic of **nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (NDI)** if the baseline urine osmolality was already very low and did not change significantly, or if there was an underlying renal issue.
*Reduction in urine osmolality to 125 mOsm/L*
- Similar to the previous option, a reduction in urine osmolality is contrary to the expected effect of desmopressin in **central diabetes insipidus**, where the goal is to concentrate the urine.
- This value is still very dilute and would suggest that the kidneys are unable to respond to ADH, which is not the case in CDI where the problem is ADH deficiency.
*No changes in urine osmolality values*
- No change in urine osmolality after desmopressin would suggest that the kidneys are **unresponsive to ADH**, which is characteristic of **nephrogenic diabetes insipidus**.
- In the described patient, the issue is an ADH deficiency due to pituitary surgery, not renal unresponsiveness.
*Increase in urine osmolality to 250 mOsm/L*
- While an increase in urine osmolality is expected, an increase only to 250 mOsm/L might be considered a **suboptimal response** or a less significant improvement than typically seen in true **central diabetes insipidus**.
- In CDI, desmopressin usually leads to a substantial increase in urine osmolality, often exceeding 264 mOsm/L or even reaching normal concentrated levels (e.g., >750 mOsm/L), especially if the baseline is very low.
Question 552: A 46-year-old woman comes to the physician because of increasingly severe lower back pain for the past week. The pain is constant, and she describes it as 9 out of 10 in intensity. Six months ago, she underwent a lumpectomy for hormone receptor-negative lobular carcinoma of the right breast. She has undergone multiple cycles of radiotherapy. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a well-healed surgical incision over the right breast. There is severe tenderness to palpation over the 12th thoracic vertebra. The straight-leg raise test is negative. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show:
Glucose 76 mg/dL
Creatinine 1 mg/dL
Total bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 234 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT) 16 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT) 12 U/L
γ-Glutamyltransferase (GGT) 40 U/L (N=5–50)
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Bone biopsy
B. Positron emission tomography
C. MRI of the spine (Correct Answer)
D. Bone scintigraphy
E. X-ray of the spine
Explanation: ***MRI of the spine***
- The patient's history of **breast carcinoma**, severe localized back pain, and **elevated alkaline phosphatase** strongly suggest **vertebral metastasis**. MRI is the most sensitive and preferred imaging modality for detecting **spinal cord compression** or bone metastases in such cases.
- **MRI** provides detailed soft tissue contrast, allowing for precise visualization of the spinal cord, nerve roots, and extent of tumor involvement, which is crucial for treatment planning.
*Bone biopsy*
- While a bone biopsy can confirm the diagnosis of metastasis, it is an **invasive procedure** and usually performed after less invasive imaging has identified a suspicious lesion.
- It is not the most appropriate *initial* step, especially when rapid assessment for **spinal cord compression** (a neurosurgical emergency) is needed.
*Positron emission tomography*
- **PET scans** are useful for detecting distant metastases and assessing metabolic activity of tumors, but they provide less detailed anatomical information than MRI regarding **spinal cord compromise**.
- Although it can detect bone metastases, its utility is more in systemic staging rather than immediate evaluation of severe localized spinal pain and potential compression.
*Bone scintigraphy*
- **Bone scintigraphy** (bone scan) is sensitive for detecting increased bone turnover associated with metastases, but it has **lower spatial resolution** than MRI and cannot directly visualize the spinal cord.
- It may miss purely lytic lesions and is less specific for evaluating the extent of soft tissue involvement or risk of **spinal cord compression**.
*X-ray of the spine*
- **Plain radiographs** are often the *first* imaging study for back pain, but they have **low sensitivity** for detecting early bone metastases, especially before significant bone destruction has occurred.
- X-rays would likely miss small lesions or those infiltrating the bone marrow and are inadequate for assessing **spinal cord compression**.
Question 553: A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician for a 6-month history of headaches, anorexia, and vomiting. She has had a 10-kg (22-lb) weight loss during this period. She has type 1 diabetes mellitus for which she takes insulin. The patient's mother and sister have hypothyroidism. Her blood pressure is 80/60 mm Hg. Physical examination shows hyperpigmentation of the lips and oral mucosa. Serum studies show a parathyroid hormone level of 450 pg/mL and antibodies directed against 21-hydroxylase. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Sheehan syndrome
B. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A
C. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B
D. Autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 1
E. Autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 2 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 2***
- This patient presents with **Addison's disease** (hyperpigmentation, hypotension, weight loss, anorexia, vomiting), **Type 1 diabetes mellitus**, and likely **autoimmune thyroid disease** (family history of hypothyroidism). This classic triad is characteristic of autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 2 (Schmidt syndrome).
- The presence of **21-hydroxylase antibodies** confirms autoimmune adrenalitis, which is the primary cause of Addison's disease in APS Type 2. The elevated **parathyroid hormone** (PTH) level indicates **secondary hyperparathyroidism**, often a reactive response to vitamin D deficiency or chronic illness, not a primary component of this syndrome.
*Sheehan syndrome*
- This is a cause of **hypopituitarism** due to **postpartum hemorrhage** leading to ischemic necrosis of the pituitary gland.
- The patient's symptoms (hyperpigmentation, diabetes mellitus, 21-hydroxylase antibodies) do not align with the typical presentation or etiology of Sheehan syndrome. Additionally, Sheehan syndrome would present with **hypopigmentation** (due to decreased ACTH), not hyperpigmentation.
*Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A*
- This syndrome is characterized by **medullary thyroid carcinoma**, **pheochromocytoma**, and **primary hyperparathyroidism**.
- The patient's symptoms and laboratory findings (hyperpigmentation, T1DM, 21-hydroxylase antibodies) are not consistent with MEN 2A, which is a hereditary cancer syndrome, not an autoimmune disorder.
*Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B*
- This rare syndrome includes **medullary thyroid carcinoma**, **pheochromocytoma**, **mucosal neuromas**, and **marfanoid habitus**.
- This patient does not exhibit any of the hallmark features of MEN 2B.
*Autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome type 1*
- APS type 1 is characterized by a triad of **chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis**, **hypoparathyroidism**, and **Addison's disease**.
- While Addison's disease is present, the patient's other conditions (Type 1 diabetes, autoimmune thyroid disease) and the **elevated PTH** (rather than hypoparathyroidism) rule out APS type 1. APS-1 typically presents in childhood, while APS-2 presents in adulthood.
Question 554: A 53-year-old diabetic man with cellulitis of the right lower limb presents to the emergency department because of symptoms of fever and chills. His pulse is 122/min, the blood pressure is 76/50 mm Hg, the respirations are 26/min, and the temperature is 40.0°C (104.0°F). His urine output is < 0.5mL/kg/h. He has warm peripheral extremities. The hemodynamic status of the patient is not improving in spite of the initiation of adequate fluid resuscitation. He is admitted to the hospital. Which of the following is the most likely laboratory profile?
E. WBC count: 8880/mm3; high CVP; blood culture: gram-positive bacteremia; blood lactate level: 2.1 mmol/L
Explanation: ***WBC count: 16,670/mm3; low CVP; blood culture: gram-negative bacteremia; blood lactate level: 2.2 mmol/L***
- This profile aligns with **septic shock** driven by gram-negative bacteria, presenting with **tachycardia**, **hypotension**, **fever**, and **poor urine output** despite fluid resuscitation.
- A **high WBC count** (leukocytosis), **low CVP** (due to vasodilation and relative hypovolemia), **gram-negative bacteremia** (common in severe sepsis), and **elevated lactate** (indicating tissue hypoperfusion) are characteristic findings.
*WBC count: 11,670/mm3; low CVP; blood culture: gram-negative bacteremia; blood lactate level: 0.9 mmol/L*
- While most components suggest sepsis (WBC count and low CVP), a **lactate level of 0.9 mmol/L** is within the normal range, contradicting the severe hypoperfusion and shock observed in the patient.
- The patient's presentation with **hypotension** unresponsive to fluids and **oliguria** strongly indicates significant tissue hypoperfusion, which would typically result in a higher lactate.
*WBC count: 1234/mm3; high CVP; blood culture: gram-negative bacteremia; blood lactate level: 1.6 mmol/L*
- A **WBC count of 1234/mm3 (leukopenia)** is an atypical response for severe infection and sepsis; often, sepsis presents with leukocytosis.
- A **high CVP** indicates fluid overload or cardiac dysfunction, which is not consistent with the initial low blood pressure and the need for fluid resuscitation seen in distributive shock.
*WBC count: 6670/mm3; low central venous pressure (CVP); blood culture: gram-positive bacteremia; blood lactate level: 1.1 mmol/L*
- A **WBC count of 6670/mm3** is within the normal range and does not reflect an adequate inflammatory response to severe infection and shock.
- A **normal lactate level (1.1 mmol/L)** does not support the clinical picture of shock and tissue hypoperfusion despite the presence of gram-positive bacteremia.
*WBC count: 8880/mm3; high CVP; blood culture: gram-positive bacteremia; blood lactate level: 2.1 mmol/L*
- A **WBC count of 8880/mm3** is normal, which is unlikely in a severe sepsis presentation.
- A **high CVP** is not consistent with the distributive shock state where there is often relative hypovolemia and vasodilation leading to low CVP.
Question 555: A day after percutaneous coronary intervention for stable angina, a 63-year-old woman develops severe pain in her right small toe. She has no history of a similar episode. She has had diabetes mellitus for 16 years. After the procedure, her blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg, the pulse is 65/min, the respiratory rate is 15/min, and the temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F). Physical examination of the femoral artery access site shows no abnormalities. Distal pulses are palpable and symmetric. A photograph of the toe is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Buerger disease
B. Diabetic foot
C. Cellulitis
D. Atheroembolism (Correct Answer)
E. Raynaud phenomenon
Explanation: ***Atheroembolism***
- The sudden onset of severe toe pain with **discoloration (blue toe syndrome)** following a **percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)** strongly suggests atheroembolism, also known as cholesterol embolization syndrome. The procedure can dislodge atherosclerotic plaques, leading to distal embolization.
- Distal pulses may remain palpable because the emboli typically lodge in small arterioles, not major arteries, causing localized ischemia. The patient’s history of **diabetes mellitus** and stable angina indicates underlying atherosclerosis, increasing the risk.
*Burger’s syndrome*
- **Buerger's disease (thromboangiitis obliterans)** primarily affects young male smokers and presents with inflammation and thrombosis of small to medium-sized arteries and veins. This patient is an older female without a primary smoking history mentioned, and the acute onset after PCI is inconsistent.
- It usually presents with claudication, rest pain, and ischemic ulcers, often in multiple digits or limbs, rather than a single acute event days after a cardiological procedure.
*Reynaud’s phenomenon*
- Raynaud's phenomenon involves **episodic vasospasm** of digital arteries, typically triggered by cold or emotional stress, leading to classic white, blue, and red color changes. The pain is usually not as severe or localized to one toe, and it's not typically a complication of PCI.
- The patient's presentation of a single discolored toe, without history of similar episodes and following a vascular intervention, does not align with the episodic and bilateral nature of Raynaud's.
*Diabetic foot*
- A **diabetic foot** commonly involves neuropathy, infection, or chronic ischemia leading to ulcers or gangrene, often due to long-standing poorly controlled diabetes. While the patient has diabetes, the acute onset of severe pain and discoloration in one toe directly after an invasive procedure makes atheroembolism a more specific diagnosis.
- Diabetic neuropathy can lead to pain, but the acute ischemic discoloration ("blue toe") is more indicative of acute vascular occlusion rather than typical slow-progressing diabetic foot complications.
*Cellulitis*
- **Cellulitis** is a bacterial infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissue, presenting with localized redness, warmth, swelling, and tenderness, often with systemic symptoms like fever and chills.
- While there is redness and pain, the **blueish discoloration (cyanosis)** and the clear temporal relationship with a recent vascular procedure point away from an infectious etiology and towards an ischemic event.
Question 556: A 45-year-old African American woman presents to her primary care physician for not feeling well. She states she has had a cough for the past week. In addition, she also has abdominal pain and trouble focusing that has been worsening. She states that she has also lost 5 pounds recently and that her gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has been very poorly controlled recently. The patient is a non-smoker and has a history of GERD for which she takes antacids. Laboratory studies are ordered and are below:
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
K+: 4.1 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen: 12 mg/dL
Glucose: 70 mg/dL
Creatinine: 0.9 mg/dL
Ca2+: 12.5 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase: 35 U/L
Phosphorus: 2.0 mg/dL
Urine:
Color: amber
Nitrites: negative
Sodium: 5 mmol/24 hours
Red blood cells: 0/hpf
Which of the following is the most likely explanation of this patient's current presentation?
A. Malignancy
B. Antacid overuse
C. Increased 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D
D. Viral illness
E. Increased parathyroid hormone (PTH) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Increased parathyroid hormone (PTH)***
- The patient presents with **hypercalcemia** (12.5 mg/dL) and **hypophosphatemia** (2.0 mg/dL) along with symptoms like cough, abdominal pain, trouble focusing, weight loss, and worsening GERD, which are consistent with hypercalcemia. **Primary hyperparathyroidism** is a common cause of hypercalcemia and is characterized by inappropriately elevated PTH leading to increased calcium and decreased phosphate.
- **Worsening GERD** can be a clinical manifestation of hypercalcemia, which can increase gastrin secretion. The combination of hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia strongly points to issues with parathyroid hormone regulation.
*Malignancy*
- While malignancy can cause hypercalcemia (often through **parathyroid hormone-related peptide [PTHrP]** secretion or bone metastases), it typically presents with **low or suppressed PTH** levels, which contradicts the scenario implying elevated PTH.
- **Hypercalcemia of malignancy** is often associated with more rapid onset and severe symptoms, and typically involves different patterns of phosphate and 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D levels depending on the mechanism.
*Antacid overuse*
- Overuse of calcium-containing antacids can lead to **milk-alkali syndrome**, causing hypercalcemia. However, this syndrome is also characterized by **metabolic alkalosis** and **renal dysfunction**, neither of which are suggested by the provided lab values (normal HCO3-, normal creatinine).
- Milk-alkali syndrome typically presents with **normal or elevated phosphate levels**, not the hypophosphatemia seen in this patient.
*Increased 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D*
- Elevated **1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D** (active vitamin D) can cause hypercalcemia, often seen in conditions like **granulomatous diseases** (e.g., sarcoidosis) or **vitamin D intoxication**. However, this usually leads to increased phosphate absorption and thus **normal or elevated phosphate levels**, not hypophosphatemia.
- While sarcoidosis (a granulomatous disease) could cause a cough and fatigue in an African American woman, the associated hypophosphatemia is not characteristic of vitamin D-mediated hypercalcemia without a primary PTH abnormality.
*Viral illness*
- A simple viral illness typically presents with **acute, self-limiting symptoms** like cough, fever, and malaise. It is highly unlikely to cause the chronic symptoms of abdominal pain, cognitive issues, weight loss, and especially the distinct electrolyte abnormalities of **hypercalcemia** and **hypophosphatemia**.
- Viral illnesses do not directly lead to **calcium-phosphorus dysregulation** in the manner seen in this patient, and the duration and severity of her symptoms are not consistent with a typical viral infection.
Question 557: A 27-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency room with dyspnea which began after swimming and progressed gradually over the last 3 days. She denies cough, chest pain, or other respiratory symptoms. She reports that for the past 4 months, she has had several dyspneic episodes that occurred after the exercising and progressed at rest, but none of these were as long as the current one. Also, she notes that her tongue becomes ‘wadded’ when she speaks and she tires very quickly during the day. The patient’s vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 125/60 mm Hg, heart rate 92/min, respiratory rate 34/min, and body temperature 36.2℃ (97.2℉). Blood saturation on room air is initially 92% but falls to 90% as she speaks up. On physical examination, the patient is slightly lethargic. Her breathing is rapid and shallow. Lung auscultation, as well as cardiac, and abdominal examinations show no remarkable findings. Neurological examination reveals slight bilateral ptosis increased by repetitive blinking, and easy fatigability of muscles on repeated movement worse on the face and distal muscles of the upper and lower extremities. Which arterial blood gas parameters would you expect to see in this patient?
A. PaCO2 = 51 mm Hg, PaO2 = 58 mm Hg (Correct Answer)
B. PaCO2 = 37 mm Hg, PaO2 = 46 mm Hg
C. PaCO2 = 34 mm Hg, PaO2 = 61 mm Hg
D. PaCO2 = 31 mm Hg, PaO2 = 67 mm Hg
E. PaCO2 = 43 mm Hg, PaO2 = 55 mm Hg
Explanation: ***PaCO2 = 51 mm Hg, PaO2 = 58 mm Hg***
- The patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of a **myasthenic crisis**, including progressive dyspnea, worsened by exertion (speaking), ptosis, and generalized muscle fatigability. These symptoms indicate **respiratory muscle weakness**, leading to hypoventilation.
- **Hypoventilation** results in **hypercapnia (elevated PaCO2)** and **hypoxemia (decreased PaO2)**. An elevated PaCO2 of 51 mm Hg and decreased PaO2 of 58 mm Hg are consistent with this presentation, reflecting inadequate ventilation.
*PaCO2 = 37 mm Hg, PaO2= 46 mm Hg*
- A PaCO2 of 37 mm Hg is within the normal range or slightly low, suggesting that the patient is not significantly hypercapnic, which contradicts the clinical picture of **respiratory muscle weakness and hypoventilation**.
- While PaO2 is significantly low at 46 mm Hg (indicating hypoxemia), the normal/low PaCO2 would point to a primary **oxygenation defect** (e.g., V/Q mismatch) rather than a ventilatory failure.
*PaCO2 = 34 mm Hg, PaO2 = 61 mm Hg*
- A PaCO2 of 34 mm Hg indicates **hypocapnia**, which is more consistent with hyperventilation rather than the hypoventilation expected from **respiratory muscle weakness** in myasthenic crisis.
- While PaO2 of 61 mm Hg indicates hypoxemia, the accompanying hypocapnia suggests a primary **respiratory drive issue** or conditions causing hyperventilation, not ventilatory failure due to muscle weakness.
*PaCO2 = 31 mm Hg, PaO2 = 67 mm Hg*
- A PaCO2 of 31 mm Hg reflects significant **hypocapnia**, indicating that the patient is **hyperventilating**. This is contrary to what would be expected in a myasthenic crisis where respiratory muscle weakness leads to hypoventilation.
- While PaO2 is decreased, suggesting some respiratory compromise, the ventilatory pattern (hypocapnia) does not match the clinical syndrome of **respiratory muscle fatigue**.
*PaCO2 = 43 mm Hg, PaO2 = 55 mm Hg*
- A PaCO2 of 43 mm Hg is within the **normal reference range**, which would mean there is no CO2 retention and thus no obvious **alveolar hypoventilation** from respiratory muscle weakness.
- While PaO2 of 55 mm Hg indicates hypoxemia, the normal PaCO2 suggests that the hypoxemia is due to other causes like a **V/Q mismatch** rather than inadequate overall ventilation.
Question 558: A 47-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician because of pain on urination, urinary urgency, and urinary frequency for 4 days. This is the third time for her to have these symptoms over the past 7 months. She was recently treated for candidal intertrigo. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg and pulse of 75/min. Physical examination is unremarkable except for morbid obesity. Her father has type 2 diabetes complicated by end-stage chronic kidney disease. A1C is found to be 8.5%. The patient is given a prescription for her urinary symptoms. Which of the following is the best next step for this patient?
A. Sulphonylurea added to metformin
B. Bariatric surgery
C. Repeating the A1c test
D. Basal-bolus insulin
E. Metformin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Metformin***
- The patient has symptoms suggestive of **uncontrolled type 2 diabetes**, including recurrent infections (urinary, intertrigo) and a familial history, despite an A1C of 8.5%.
- **Metformin** is typically the first-line pharmacologic treatment for type 2 diabetes unless contraindicated, as it improves insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic glucose production.
*Sulphonylurea added to metformin*
- While adding a sulfonylurea to metformin is an option for patients not reaching glycemic targets on metformin alone, **monotherapy with metformin** is the initial step for newly diagnosed or uncontrolled diabetes.
- Sulfonylureas carry a higher risk of **hypoglycemia** compared to metformin and are generally added if metformin monotherapy is insufficient.
*Bariatric surgery*
- Bariatric surgery is a treatment option for **morbidly obese** individuals with type 2 diabetes, but it is typically considered after lifestyle modifications and pharmacotherapy have been attempted or when the BMI is very high (e.g., >40 or >35 with comorbidities).
- It is not the immediate next step for managing newly diagnosed or uncontrolled diabetes, especially when first-line medications haven't been initiated.
*Repeating the A1c test*
- The elevated **A1C of 8.5%**, combined with classic symptoms of hyperglycemia (recurrent infections, polyuria from urinary symptoms), is sufficient for a diagnosis of diabetes.
- Repeating the test immediately is unlikely to change the diagnosis and would delay necessary treatment initiation.
*Basal-bolus insulin*
- Basal-bolus insulin regimens are typically reserved for patients with very **high A1C levels** (e.g., >10%), significant symptoms of hyperglycemia, or those who have failed multiple oral hypoglycemic agents.
- Given an A1C of 8.5%, initiating insulin is usually not the first pharmacologic step; metformin monotherapy is preferred.
Question 559: A 59-year-old man presents to his family practitioner with his wife. He has fallen several times over the past 3 months. Standing up from a seated position is especially difficult for him. He also complains of intermittent dizziness, excessive sweating, constipation, and difficulty performing activities of daily living. He denies fever, jerking of the limbs, memory disturbances, urinary incontinence, and abnormal limb movements. Past medical history includes a cholecystectomy 25 years ago and occasional erectile dysfunction. He takes a vitamin supplement with calcium and occasionally uses sildenafil. While supine, his blood pressure is 142/74 mm Hg and his heart rate is 64/min. After standing, his blood pressure is 118/60 mm Hg and his heart rate is 62/min. He is alert and oriented with a flat affect while answering questions. Extraocular movements are intact in all directions. No tremors are noticed. Muscle strength is normal in all limbs but with increased muscle tone. He is slow in performing intentional movements. His writing is small and he takes slow steps during walking with adducted arms and a slightly reduced arm swing. A trial of levodopa did not improve his symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Huntington disease
B. Shy-Drager syndrome (Correct Answer)
C. Parkinson’s disease
D. Progressive supranuclear palsy
E. Wilson disease
Explanation: ***Shy-Drager syndrome***
- The patient presents with **parkinsonism** (bradykinesia, rigidity, postural instability as evidenced by falls and difficulty standing) combined with severe **autonomic dysfunction** including orthostatic hypotension, intermittent dizziness, excessive sweating, constipation, and erectile dysfunction.
- The **lack of improvement with levodopa**, the prominent **autonomic features**, and the absence of specific Parkinson's disease red flags (like resting tremor or initial unilateral symptoms) strongly point to Shy-Drager syndrome, which is now classified under **Multiple System Atrophy (MSA)** with predominant parkinsonian features (MSA-P).
*Huntington disease*
- This is characterized by **chorea** (involuntary jerking movements) and psychiatric disturbances, which are not described in the patient's presentation.
- Typically presents with **cognitive decline** and **motor incoordination**, not the parkinsonian symptoms seen here.
*Parkinson’s disease*
- While this patient exhibits many features of **parkinsonism**, the prominent **autonomic dysfunction** and the **lack of response to levodopa** differentiate this case from typical Parkinson's disease.
- **Resting tremor** is a hallmark of Parkinson's disease, but it is explicitly noted that no tremors were noticed in this patient.
*Progressive supranuclear palsy*
- Key features include **supranuclear ophthalmoplegia** (especially vertical gaze palsy), prominent early falls, and neck dystonia (retrocollis).
- While early falls are present, the patient's **extraocular movements are intact in all directions**, making PSP less likely.
*Wilson disease*
- A rare genetic disorder characterized by **copper accumulation**, leading to hepatic, neurologic, and psychiatric symptoms.
- Manifestations include **hepatic dysfunction**, **Kayser-Fleischer rings** in the cornea, and a variety of movement disorders (e.g., tremor, rigidity), but not typically the severe orthostatic hypotension or lack of levodopa response seen here.
Question 560: A 58-year-old man presents to the clinic concerned about his health after his elder brother recently became bed-bound due to a brain condition. He has also brought a head CT scan of his brother to reference, as shown in the picture. The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, osteoarthritis, and hypercholesterolemia. His medication list includes aspirin, diclofenac sodium, metformin, and ramipril. He leads a sedentary lifestyle and smokes one pack of cigarettes daily. He also drinks 4–5 cups of red wine every weekend. His BMI is 33.2 kg/m2. His blood pressure is 164/96 mm Hg, the heart rate is 84/min, and the respiratory rate is 16/min. Which of the following interventions will be most beneficial for reducing the risk of developing the disease that his brother has?
A. Statin therapy
B. Quit smoking
C. Stop aspirin
D. Blood sugar control
E. Blood pressure control (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Blood pressure control***
- The brother's CT scan shows features of **white matter hyperintensities (WMH)**, indicative of **cerebral small vessel disease**, a significant risk factor for **neurodegenerative conditions** and dementia, which can cause a patient to become bedridden.
- **Hypertension** is the most potent and modifiable risk factor for the development and progression of WMH and other forms of cerebral small vessel disease; therefore, strict **blood pressure control** is the most beneficial intervention.
*Statin therapy*
- Statins are crucial for managing **hypercholesterolemia** and reducing the risk of **atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease** and stroke.
- While beneficial for overall vascular health, **dyslipidemia** is less strongly associated with WMH and cerebral small vessel disease than hypertension.
*Quit smoking*
- **Smoking** is a significant risk factor for **stroke**, **atherosclerosis**, and several neurodegenerative disorders.
- While important for overall health, **smoking cessation** has a less direct and immediate impact on the progression of existent WMH compared to **blood pressure control**.
*Stop aspirin*
- **Aspirin** is used for **primary or secondary prevention** of cardiovascular events due to its **antiplatelet effects**.
- There is no indication that stopping aspirin would benefit in preventing further cerebral small vessel disease; rather, it could increase the risk of other vascular events in this patient with multiple risk factors.
*Blood sugar control*
- **Type 2 diabetes mellitus** is a known risk factor for **vascular dementia** and can contribute to small vessel disease.
- While important for long-term health, the impact of **blood sugar control** on WMH progression is less substantial compared to **blood pressure control**.