A 65-year-old woman was referred to a specialist for dysphagia and weight loss. She has a history of difficulty swallowing solid foods, which has become worse over the past year. She has unintentionally lost 2.3 kg (5 lb). A previous gastroscopy showed mild gastritis with a positive culture for Helicobacter pylori. A course of triple antibiotic therapy and omeprazole was prescribed. Follow-up endoscopy appeared normal with no H. pylori noted on biopsy. Her heartburn improved but the dysphagia persisted. She had a myocardial infarction four years ago, complicated by acute mitral regurgitation. Physical examination revealed a thin woman with normal vital signs. Auscultation of the heart reveals a 3/6 blowing systolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla. Breath sounds are reduced at the base of the right lung. The abdomen is mildly distended but not tender. The liver and spleen are not enlarged. Electrocardiogram shows sinus rhythm with a non-specific intraventricular block. Chest X-ray shows an enlarged cardiac silhouette with mild pleural effusion. What is the most probable cause of dysphagia?
Q542
A 62-year-old man is brought to the physician by his wife for increased forgetfulness and unsteady gait over the past 3 months. He is a journalist and has had difficulty concentrating on his writing. He also complains of urinary urgency recently. His temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F) and blood pressure is 139/83 mm Hg. He is oriented only to person and place. He is able to recall 2 out of 3 words immediately and 1 out of 3 after five minutes. He has a slow, broad-based gait and takes short steps. Neurological examination is otherwise normal. Urinalysis is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q543
A 19-year-old woman presents with worsening pain in her neck for the past 5 days. She says she is not able to wear her tie for her evening job because it is too painful. She also reports associated anxiety, palpitations, and lethargy for the past 10 days. Past medical history is significant for a recent 3-day episode of flu-like symptoms about 20 days ago which resolved spontaneously. She is a non-smoker and occasionally drinks beer with friends on weekends. Her vital signs include: blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg, pulse 118/min. On physical examination, her distal extremities are warm and sweaty. There is severe bilateral tenderness to palpation of her thyroid gland, as well as mild symmetrical swelling noted. No nodules palpated. An ECG is normal. Laboratory findings are significant for low thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), elevated T4 and T3 levels, and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 30 mm/hr. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's most likely diagnosis?
Q544
A 62-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of headache, blurring of vision, and numbness of the right leg for the past 2 hours. He has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Current medications include enalapril and metformin. He is oriented only to person. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 99/min and blood pressure is 158/94 mm Hg. Examination shows equal pupils that are reactive to light. Muscle strength is normal in all extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. Sensation to fine touch and position is decreased over the right lower extremity. The confrontation test shows loss of the nasal field in the left eye and the temporal field in the right eye with macular sparing. He is unable to read phrases shown to him but can write them when they are dictated to him. He has short-term memory deficits. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this patient's symptoms?
Q545
A 61-year-old man comes to the physician for shortness of breath and chest discomfort that is becoming progressively worse. He has had increasing problems exerting himself for the past 5 years. He is now unable to walk more than 50 m on level terrain without stopping and mostly rests at home. He has smoked 1–2 packs of cigarettes daily for 40 years. He appears distressed. His pulse is 85/min, blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg, and respirations are 25/min. Physical examination shows a plethoric face and distended jugular veins. Bilateral wheezing is heard on auscultation of the lungs. There is yellow discoloration of the fingers on the right hand and 2+ lower extremity edema. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q546
A 64-year-old homeless man comes to the emergency department with right ear pain and difficulty hearing for 2 weeks. Over the last 5 days, he has also noticed discharge from his right ear. He does not recall the last time he saw a physician. His temperature is 39.0°C (102.2°F), blood pressure is 153/92 mm Hg, pulse is 113/minute, and respirations are 18/minute. He appears dirty and is malodorous. Physical examination shows mild facial asymmetry with the right corner of his mouth lagging behind the left when the patient smiles. He experiences severe ear pain when the right auricle is pulled superiorly. On otoscopic examination, there is granulation tissue at the transition between the cartilaginous and the osseous part of the ear canal. Which of the following is most likely associated with this patient's condition?
Q547
A 63-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. She reports feeling tired sometimes and having itchy skin. Over the past 2 years, the amount of urine she passes has been slowly decreasing. She has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus complicated with diabetic nephropathy. Her current medications include insulin, furosemide, amlodipine, and a multivitamin. Her nephrologist recently added erythropoietin to her medication regimen. She follows a diet low in salt, protein, potassium, and phosphorus. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 145/87 mm Hg. Physical examination shows 1+ edema around the ankles bilaterally. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.8 g/dL
Serum
Glucose 98 mg/dL
Albumin 4 g/dL
Na+ 145 mEq/L
Cl– 100 mEq/L
K+ 5.1 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 46 mg/dL
Creatinine 3.1 mg/dL
Which of the following complications is the most common cause of death in patients receiving long-term treatment for this patient's renal condition?
Q548
A 55-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of progressively worsening urinary incontinence. She has started to wear incontinence pads because of frequent involuntary dribbling of urine that occurs even when resting. She has the sensation of a full bladder even after voiding. Her only medication is insulin. Physical examination shows a palpable suprapubic mass. Urinalysis is unremarkable. Urodynamic studies show an increased post-void residual volume. Which of the following interventions is most likely to benefit this patient?
Q549
A 55-year-old man with a past medical history of diabetes and hypertension presents to the emergency department with crushing substernal chest pain. He was given aspirin and nitroglycerin en route and states that his pain is currently a 2/10. The patient's initial electrocardiogram (ECG) is within normal limits, and his first set of cardiac troponins is 0.10 ng/mL (reference range < 0.10 ng/mL). The patient is sent to the observation unit. During a pharmacologic stress test, the patient is given dipyridamole, which causes his chest pain to recur. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this patient's current symptoms?
Q550
A 15-year-old male presents to his pediatrician after school for follow-up after an appendectomy one week ago. The patient denies any abdominal pain, fevers, chills, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation. He eats solids and drinks liquids without difficulty. He is back to playing basketball for his school team without any difficulty. He notes that his urine appears more amber than usual but suspects that it is due to dehydration. His physical exam is unremarkable; his laparoscopic incision sites are all clean without erythema. The pediatrician orders an urinalysis, which is notable for the following:
Urine:
Epithelial cells: Scant
Glucose: Negative
Protein: 3+
WBC: 3/hpf
Bacteria: None
Leukocyte esterase: Negative
Nitrites: Negative
The patient is told to return in 3 days for a follow up appointment; however, his urinalysis at that time is similar. What is the best next step in management?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 541: A 65-year-old woman was referred to a specialist for dysphagia and weight loss. She has a history of difficulty swallowing solid foods, which has become worse over the past year. She has unintentionally lost 2.3 kg (5 lb). A previous gastroscopy showed mild gastritis with a positive culture for Helicobacter pylori. A course of triple antibiotic therapy and omeprazole was prescribed. Follow-up endoscopy appeared normal with no H. pylori noted on biopsy. Her heartburn improved but the dysphagia persisted. She had a myocardial infarction four years ago, complicated by acute mitral regurgitation. Physical examination revealed a thin woman with normal vital signs. Auscultation of the heart reveals a 3/6 blowing systolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla. Breath sounds are reduced at the base of the right lung. The abdomen is mildly distended but not tender. The liver and spleen are not enlarged. Electrocardiogram shows sinus rhythm with a non-specific intraventricular block. Chest X-ray shows an enlarged cardiac silhouette with mild pleural effusion. What is the most probable cause of dysphagia?
A. Benign stricture
B. Thoracic aortic aneurysm
C. Left atrium enlargement (Correct Answer)
D. Achalasia
E. Diffuse esophageal spasm
Explanation: ***Left atrium enlargement***
- The patient's history of a **myocardial infarction** complicated by **acute mitral regurgitation** four years ago, combined with the current finding of a **3/6 blowing systolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla**, strongly suggests chronic severe mitral regurgitation leading to **left atrial enlargement**.
- An enlarged left atrium can compress the **esophagus**, leading to **dysphagia**, particularly for solids, which is consistent with the patient's symptoms. The chest X-ray showing an **enlarged cardiac silhouette** and mild pleural effusion further supports a cardiac cause.
*Benign stricture*
- While benign strictures can cause **dysphagia for solids**, the patient's **normal follow-up endoscopy** makes this diagnosis less likely, as strictures would typically be visible.
- Her improved heartburn after H. pylori eradication also suggests that **reflux esophagitis**, a common cause of benign strictures, is not the primary ongoing issue.
*Thoracic aortic aneurysm*
- A thoracic aortic aneurysm can cause **dysphagia due to esophageal compression**, but it is less likely to be the primary cause given the prominent cardiac findings specifically pointing to **mitral valve disease** and left atrial enlargement.
- While the enlarged cardiac silhouette could be partially due to a dilated aorta, the specific murmur and history of mitral regurgitation make left atrial enlargement a more direct and probable cause of esophageal compression.
*Achalasia*
- **Achalasia** is characterized by the **failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to relax** and loss of esophageal peristalsis, typically causing dysphagia for both solids and liquids. The patient's primary complaint of difficulty swallowing solids and the absence of typical achalasia symptoms (e.g., regurgitation of undigested food, chest pain not resolving with nitrates) make this less likely.
- The **normal endoscopy** also makes achalasia less probable, as it can sometimes show findings of esophageal dilation.
*Diffuse esophageal spasm*
- **Diffuse esophageal spasm** presents with intermittent **chest pain** and dysphagia for both solids and liquids, often triggered by stress or cold liquids. The patient's long-standing dysphagia predominantly for solids, without mention of significant chest pain or episodic nature, makes diffuse esophageal spasm less likely.
- This condition is also typically diagnosed with **esophageal manometry**, which has not been performed, but the strong cardiac findings point away from a primary esophageal motility disorder.
Question 542: A 62-year-old man is brought to the physician by his wife for increased forgetfulness and unsteady gait over the past 3 months. He is a journalist and has had difficulty concentrating on his writing. He also complains of urinary urgency recently. His temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F) and blood pressure is 139/83 mm Hg. He is oriented only to person and place. He is able to recall 2 out of 3 words immediately and 1 out of 3 after five minutes. He has a slow, broad-based gait and takes short steps. Neurological examination is otherwise normal. Urinalysis is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Frontotemporal dementia
B. Normal pressure hydrocephalus (Correct Answer)
C. Vascular dementia
D. Lewy body dementia
E. Alzheimer disease
Explanation: ***Normal pressure hydrocephalus***
- This patient presents with the classic triad of **normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)**: **gait disturbance** (unsteady, broad-based, short-stepped), **urinary urgency** (often incontinence), and **cognitive impairment** (forgetfulness, difficulty concentrating).
- The symptoms are progressive over three months and the neurological examination (apart from gait) is otherwise normal, fitting the profile of NPH.
*Frontotemporal dementia*
- This dementia subtype typically presents with prominent **behavioral changes** (disinhibition, apathy) or **language disturbance** (aphasia), which are not highlighted in this case.
- While cognitive decline occurs, the classic triad of gait disturbance and urinary symptoms is not characteristic.
*Vascular dementia*
- Vascular dementia usually presents with a **step-wise decline** in cognitive function, often associated with a history of stroke or vascular risk factors like hypertension, hyperlipidemia, or diabetes.
- The presented symptoms do not describe a step-wise decline, and the gait disturbance in NPH is distinct from focal neurological deficits seen in multi-infarct dementia.
*Lewy body dementia*
- Key features of Lewy body dementia include **fluctuating cognition**, **recurrent visual hallucinations**, and **spontaneous parkinsonism**, none of which are explicitly mentioned here.
- While gait disturbance can occur, it's typically more **parkinsonian** (shuffling gait) rather than broad-based and unsteady, and urinary urgency is not a primary diagnostic criterion.
*Alzheimer disease*
- Alzheimer disease predominantly features prominent and progressive **memory impairment**, particularly for new information, along with other cognitive deficits. While forgetfulness is present, the pronounced gait disturbance and urinary urgency are not typical early or prominent features.
- Gait disturbance in Alzheimer's is usually a later symptom, and urinary issues are often due to a later stage of cognitive decline or other causes.
Question 543: A 19-year-old woman presents with worsening pain in her neck for the past 5 days. She says she is not able to wear her tie for her evening job because it is too painful. She also reports associated anxiety, palpitations, and lethargy for the past 10 days. Past medical history is significant for a recent 3-day episode of flu-like symptoms about 20 days ago which resolved spontaneously. She is a non-smoker and occasionally drinks beer with friends on weekends. Her vital signs include: blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg, pulse 118/min. On physical examination, her distal extremities are warm and sweaty. There is severe bilateral tenderness to palpation of her thyroid gland, as well as mild symmetrical swelling noted. No nodules palpated. An ECG is normal. Laboratory findings are significant for low thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), elevated T4 and T3 levels, and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 30 mm/hr. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's most likely diagnosis?
A. Atropine injection
B. Increase dietary intake of iodine
C. Aspirin (Correct Answer)
D. Reassurance
E. Levothyroxine administration
Explanation: ***Aspirin***
- This patient presents with symptoms and signs consistent with **subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain's thyroiditis)**, including recent flu-like illness, painful thyroid gland, symptoms of hyperthyroidism, and elevated ESR.
- **Aspirin** or other **NSAIDs** are the primary treatment for managing the pain and inflammation associated with subacute thyroiditis.
*Atropine injection*
- **Atropine** is an anticholinergic medication primarily used to treat **bradycardia** and certain poisonings, which is not indicated here.
- While the patient has tachycardia, it is secondary to hyperthyroidism and would not be directly managed with atropine.
*Increase dietary intake of iodine*
- Increasing **iodine intake** can worsen hyperthyroidism, especially in susceptible individuals like those with **iodine-induced hyperthyroidism**.
- It is not relevant for the treatment of subacute thyroiditis, where the primary issue is inflammation and thyroid hormone release from damaged follicles.
*Reassurance*
- While patient reassurance is always part of good clinical care, it is **insufficient** as the sole treatment for a condition causing significant pain and hyperthyroid symptoms.
- The patient requires specific intervention to manage her symptoms and inflammation.
*Levothyroxine administration*
- **Levothyroxine** is a synthetic thyroid hormone used to treat **hypothyroidism** or suppress TSH in certain thyroid conditions.
- This patient is currently hyperthyroid, so administering levothyroxine would exacerbate her symptoms and is contraindicated.
Question 544: A 62-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of headache, blurring of vision, and numbness of the right leg for the past 2 hours. He has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Current medications include enalapril and metformin. He is oriented only to person. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 99/min and blood pressure is 158/94 mm Hg. Examination shows equal pupils that are reactive to light. Muscle strength is normal in all extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. Sensation to fine touch and position is decreased over the right lower extremity. The confrontation test shows loss of the nasal field in the left eye and the temporal field in the right eye with macular sparing. He is unable to read phrases shown to him but can write them when they are dictated to him. He has short-term memory deficits. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this patient's symptoms?
A. Infarct of the right middle cerebral artery
B. Infarct of the right anterior cerebral artery
C. Infarct of the right posterior cerebral artery
D. Herpes simplex encephalitis
E. Infarct of the left posterior cerebral artery (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Infarct of the left posterior cerebral artery***
- The patient's inability to read but ability to write when dictated, known as **alexia without agraphia**, is a classic sign of an infarct in the **left posterior cerebral artery (PCA)** affecting the **splenium of the corpus callosum** and the **left visual cortex**.
- The **right homonymous hemianopsia** with **macular sparing** (loss of the nasal field in the left eye and the temporal field in the right eye) is also characteristic of a left PCA infarct due to involvement of the optic radiations or primary visual cortex, with macular sparing often observed.
*Infarct of the right middle cerebral artery*
- A right MCA infarct would typically present with **left-sided motor and sensory deficits**, **left homonymous hemianopsia**, and **neglect** of the left side, which do not align with the patient's specific presentation of alexia without agraphia and right homonymous hemianopsia.
*Infarct of the right anterior cerebral artery*
- A right ACA infarct would primarily cause **left-sided lower extremity weakness** and **sensory loss**, often affecting the **frontal lobe** with behavioral changes.
- It would not explain the visual field deficits or alexia without agraphia seen in this patient.
*Infarct of the right posterior cerebral artery*
- A right PCA infarct would cause **left homonymous hemianopsia** with or without macular sparing, but would not produce alexia without agraphia, which is a specific **language processing deficit** localized to the dominant (left) hemisphere.
- It could lead to visual agnosia or prosopagnosia, but not the specific reading-writing dissociation observed.
*Herpes simplex encephalitis*
- Herpes simplex encephalitis typically presents with **fever**, **headache**, **seizures**, and **altered mental status**, often with **focal neurological deficits** affecting the **temporal** and **frontal lobes**.
- While it can cause memory deficits and altered mental status, it would not typically present with the acute, specific combination of alexia without agraphia and distinct visual field deficits of vascular origin.
Question 545: A 61-year-old man comes to the physician for shortness of breath and chest discomfort that is becoming progressively worse. He has had increasing problems exerting himself for the past 5 years. He is now unable to walk more than 50 m on level terrain without stopping and mostly rests at home. He has smoked 1–2 packs of cigarettes daily for 40 years. He appears distressed. His pulse is 85/min, blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg, and respirations are 25/min. Physical examination shows a plethoric face and distended jugular veins. Bilateral wheezing is heard on auscultation of the lungs. There is yellow discoloration of the fingers on the right hand and 2+ lower extremity edema. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Coronary plaque deposits
B. Chronic respiratory acidosis
C. Increased left atrial pressure
D. Elevated pulmonary artery pressure (Correct Answer)
E. Decreased intrathoracic gas volume
Explanation: ***Elevated pulmonary artery pressure***
* The patient's long history of **heavy smoking** and progressive exertional dyspnea, wheezing, plethoric face, distended jugular veins, and lower extremity edema are highly suggestive of **cor pulmonale** due to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
* **COPD** leads to chronic hypoxia and vasoconstriction of pulmonary arteries, increasing **pulmonary artery pressure**, which eventually causes right ventricular failure (cor pulmonale) manifested by the systemic venous congestion symptoms.
*Coronary plaque deposits*
* While **coronary plaque deposits** can lead to chest discomfort, the prominent signs of **right-sided heart failure** (jugular venous distension, lower extremity edema) and chronic respiratory symptoms point away from isolated coronary artery disease as the primary cause.
* The patient's wheezing and long smoking history are more indicative of a **respiratory rather than purely cardiac origin** for his dyspnea.
*Chronic respiratory acidosis*
* **Chronic respiratory acidosis** can occur in severe COPD, but it is a **consequence** of impaired gas exchange, not the primary cause of the patient's presenting symptoms of shortness of breath and chest discomfort with signs of overt heart failure.
* While important, acidosis alone does not explain the **physical findings of right heart failure** such as jugular venous distention and peripheral edema.
*Increased left atrial pressure*
* **Increased left atrial pressure** is characteristic of **left-sided heart failure**, which typically presents with pulmonary edema (rales, pink frothy sputum) and symptoms like orthopnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
* This patient's symptoms, particularly the **plethoric face, distended jugular veins, and lower extremity edema**, are classic signs of **right-sided heart failure**, not left-sided heart failure.
*Decreased intrathoracic gas volume*
* **Decreased intrathoracic gas volume** is usually seen in restrictive lung diseases (e.g., pulmonary fibrosis), not obstructive diseases like COPD, where gas trapping leads to **increased intrathoracic gas volume**.
* The patient's wheezing and long smoking history are classic for **obstructive lung disease**, which is associated with air trapping and hyperinflation, rather than decreased lung volumes.
Question 546: A 64-year-old homeless man comes to the emergency department with right ear pain and difficulty hearing for 2 weeks. Over the last 5 days, he has also noticed discharge from his right ear. He does not recall the last time he saw a physician. His temperature is 39.0°C (102.2°F), blood pressure is 153/92 mm Hg, pulse is 113/minute, and respirations are 18/minute. He appears dirty and is malodorous. Physical examination shows mild facial asymmetry with the right corner of his mouth lagging behind the left when the patient smiles. He experiences severe ear pain when the right auricle is pulled superiorly. On otoscopic examination, there is granulation tissue at the transition between the cartilaginous and the osseous part of the ear canal. Which of the following is most likely associated with this patient's condition?
A. Opacified mastoid air cells
B. Elevated HBA1c (Correct Answer)
C. Condylar degeneration
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Malignant epithelial growth of the external auditory canal
Explanation: ***Elevated HBA1c***
- The patient's presentation with **severe ear pain**, **granulation tissue** in the external auditory canal, **facial nerve palsy**, and fever, particularly in an elderly, immunocompromised individual (homeless, poor hygiene), is highly suggestive of **necrotizing (malignant) otitis externa**.
- **Diabetes mellitus**, indicated by an elevated HbA1c, is the most significant predisposing factor for necrotizing otitis externa, as it impairs the immune response and promotes the growth of **Pseudomonas aeruginosa**, the most common causative organism.
*Opacified mastoid air cells*
- While opacified mastoid air cells can be seen in mastoiditis, this condition typically presents with signs of inflammation **behind the ear** and often follows an acute otitis media.
- The patient's symptoms, especially the granulation tissue and facial nerve involvement, are more characteristic of necrotizing otitis externa, which primarily affects the external auditory canal and skull base.
*Condylar degeneration*
- **Condylar degeneration** refers to issues with the temporomandibular joint (TMJ), which can cause ear pain, but typically presents with jaw clicking, limited mouth opening, and local pain in the TMJ area.
- It does not explain the **granulation tissue**, fever, or **facial nerve palsy** observed in this patient.
*Streptococcus pneumoniae*
- **Streptococcus pneumoniae** is a common cause of **acute otitis media** and invasive bacterial infections.
- However, in cases of **necrotizing otitis externa**, the primary causative agent is almost exclusively **Pseudomonas aeruginosa**.
*Malignant epithelial growth of the external auditory canal*
- While a malignant epithelial growth (e.g., squamous cell carcinoma) could cause ear pain, discharge, and potentially granulation tissue, it typically progresses more slowly and is less often associated with rapid onset of **fever** and **facial nerve palsy** to the extent seen here.
- The clinical picture, especially in a diabetic patient, points more strongly towards an invasive infection rather than primary malignancy.
Question 547: A 63-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. She reports feeling tired sometimes and having itchy skin. Over the past 2 years, the amount of urine she passes has been slowly decreasing. She has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus complicated with diabetic nephropathy. Her current medications include insulin, furosemide, amlodipine, and a multivitamin. Her nephrologist recently added erythropoietin to her medication regimen. She follows a diet low in salt, protein, potassium, and phosphorus. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 145/87 mm Hg. Physical examination shows 1+ edema around the ankles bilaterally. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.8 g/dL
Serum
Glucose 98 mg/dL
Albumin 4 g/dL
Na+ 145 mEq/L
Cl– 100 mEq/L
K+ 5.1 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 46 mg/dL
Creatinine 3.1 mg/dL
Which of the following complications is the most common cause of death in patients receiving long-term treatment for this patient's renal condition?
A. Malignancy
B. Anemia
C. Cardiovascular disease (Correct Answer)
D. Discontinuation of treatment
E. Gastrointestinal bleeding
Explanation: ***Cardiovascular disease***
- Patients with **end-stage renal disease (ESRD)**, particularly those on dialysis, have a significantly increased risk of cardiovascular events, including **heart failure**, **myocardial infarction**, and stroke. This is due to accelerated **atherosclerosis**, hypertension, volume overload, and chronic inflammation prevalent in ESRD.
- The patient's history of **hypertension** and **type 2 diabetes mellitus** with **diabetic nephropathy** further exacerbates the risk of cardiovascular complications, making it the leading cause of mortality.
*Malignancy*
- While patients with ESRD do have an increased risk of certain **malignancies** (e.g., kidney, bladder cancer), it is not the most common cause of death compared to cardiovascular disease.
- The immune dysregulation in uremia contributes to this increased risk, but **cardiovascular disease** remains a more significant factor in mortality.
*Anemia*
- **Anemia** is a common complication of ESRD due to decreased **erythropoietin production**, as evidenced by the patient's low hemoglobin and erythropoietin prescription.
- While anemia contributes to fatigue and can worsen cardiovascular outcomes, it is a modifiable risk factor and generally not the direct cause of death; rather, the underlying cardiovascular issues it exacerbates are.
*Discontinuation of treatment*
- While **non-compliance** or discontinuation of treatment can lead to poor outcomes and mortality, it is not considered the most common *medical* cause of death in patients receiving long-term treatment for ESRD.
- The question asks for a medical complication, and cardiovascular disease is a direct physiological consequence of chronic kidney disease and its treatments.
*Gastrointestinal bleeding*
- **Gastrointestinal bleeding** can occur in ESRD patients due to uremic coagulopathy, angiodysplasia, and peptic ulcers, and it can be severe.
- However, while a serious complication, it is **less common** as a cause of death compared to the overwhelming burden of cardiovascular disease in this patient population.
Question 548: A 55-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of progressively worsening urinary incontinence. She has started to wear incontinence pads because of frequent involuntary dribbling of urine that occurs even when resting. She has the sensation of a full bladder even after voiding. Her only medication is insulin. Physical examination shows a palpable suprapubic mass. Urinalysis is unremarkable. Urodynamic studies show an increased post-void residual volume. Which of the following interventions is most likely to benefit this patient?
A. Prazosin therapy
B. Duloxetine therapy
C. Oxybutynin therapy
D. Intermittent catheterization (Correct Answer)
E. Amitriptyline therapy
Explanation: ***Intermittent catheterization***
- This patient presents with symptoms and findings consistent with **overflow incontinence** due to **diabetic autonomic neuropathy** affecting bladder function.
- Intermittent catheterization is the most effective intervention for managing **high post-void residual volumes** and preventing complications like UTIs and kidney damage in such cases.
*Prazosin therapy*
- **Prazosin** is an alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist, typically used to treat **hypertension** and **benign prostatic hyperplasia**.
- While it can relax the bladder neck, it is not the primary treatment for overflow incontinence due to impaired detrusor contractility and a high post-void residual.
*Duloxetine therapy*
- **Duloxetine** is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) primarily used to treat **stress incontinence** by increasing urethral sphincter tone.
- It would not address the underlying issue of poor bladder emptying and high post-void residual volume in this patient.
*Oxybutynin therapy*
- **Oxybutynin** is an anticholinergic medication used to treat **urge incontinence** by reducing involuntary detrusor contractions.
- In this case of overflow incontinence, it could worsen bladder emptying by further inhibiting detrusor muscle contraction.
*Amitriptyline therapy*
- **Amitriptyline** is a tricyclic antidepressant that can have anticholinergic effects and is occasionally used for **nocturia** or **neuropathic pain**.
- It is not indicated for the management of overflow incontinence due to poor bladder emptying and could potentially exacerbate urinary retention.
Question 549: A 55-year-old man with a past medical history of diabetes and hypertension presents to the emergency department with crushing substernal chest pain. He was given aspirin and nitroglycerin en route and states that his pain is currently a 2/10. The patient's initial electrocardiogram (ECG) is within normal limits, and his first set of cardiac troponins is 0.10 ng/mL (reference range < 0.10 ng/mL). The patient is sent to the observation unit. During a pharmacologic stress test, the patient is given dipyridamole, which causes his chest pain to recur. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this patient's current symptoms?
A. Stress induced cardiomyopathy
B. Vasospastic vessel disease
C. Coronary steal (Correct Answer)
D. Dislodged occlusive thrombus
E. Cardiac sarcoidosis
Explanation: ***Coronary steal***
- The patient's chest pain recurring with dipyridamole strongly suggests **coronary steal**, as dipyridamole is a **vasodilator** that diverts blood flow away from stenotic areas.
- This phenomenon is a hallmark of significant **coronary artery disease**, where non-ischemic areas dilate and 'steal' blood from areas distal to a fixed stenosis.
*Stress induced cardiomyopathy*
- This condition, also known as **Takotsubo cardiomyopathy**, usually follows extreme emotional or physical stress and presents with **ST-segment elevation** and apical ballooning on echocardiography, none of which are described.
- While it mimics a myocardial infarction, the diagnostic clues (no stressor, normal ECG, and chest pain recurrence with dipyridamole) do not align.
*Vasospastic vessel disease*
- **Vasospastic angina** (Prinzmetal's angina) causes chest pain due to coronary artery spasms, often occurring at rest and responsive to vasodilators like nitroglycerin.
- However, dipyridamole is more likely to exacerbate pain in fixed stenoses (coronary steal) rather than cause spasms, and the patient's presentation with initial crushing pain is less typical of vasospasm alone.
*Dislodged occlusive thrombus*
- A dislodged thrombus would typically cause an acute **myocardial infarction** with significant ECG changes (ST elevation or depression) and a substantial rise in cardiac troponins, neither of which are present.
- The recurrence of pain with dipyridamole is not characteristic of symptom recurrence due to a dislodged thrombus.
*Cardiac sarcoidosis*
- **Cardiac sarcoidosis** involves granulomatous inflammation of the heart, leading to arrhythmias, heart failure, or heart block, but it does not typically present as recurrent chest pain exacerbated by dipyridamole.
- The disease is usually diagnosed by biopsy or characteristic imaging findings, which are not mentioned and do not fit the acute presentation.
Question 550: A 15-year-old male presents to his pediatrician after school for follow-up after an appendectomy one week ago. The patient denies any abdominal pain, fevers, chills, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation. He eats solids and drinks liquids without difficulty. He is back to playing basketball for his school team without any difficulty. He notes that his urine appears more amber than usual but suspects that it is due to dehydration. His physical exam is unremarkable; his laparoscopic incision sites are all clean without erythema. The pediatrician orders an urinalysis, which is notable for the following:
Urine:
Epithelial cells: Scant
Glucose: Negative
Protein: 3+
WBC: 3/hpf
Bacteria: None
Leukocyte esterase: Negative
Nitrites: Negative
The patient is told to return in 3 days for a follow up appointment; however, his urinalysis at that time is similar. What is the best next step in management?
A. Urine electrolytes and creatinine
B. Repeat urinalysis
C. Basic metabolic panel
D. Renal biopsy
E. Urine dipstick in the morning and in the afternoon (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Urine dipstick in the morning and in the afternoon***
- Persistent **proteinuria (3+)** without other signs of infection or inflammation, especially in an otherwise healthy and active adolescent, raises suspicion for **orthostatic (postural) proteinuria**.
- Collecting urine samples at different times of the day (morning upon waking and in the afternoon after standing/activity) is crucial to differentiate orthostatic proteinuria from persistent proteinuria, as protein excretion in orthostatic proteinuria is typically higher when upright and absent or significantly reduced in the first morning void.
*Urine electrolytes and creatinine*
- While these can provide information about renal function and tubular handling, they are not the primary or initial step for evaluating isolated **proteinuria** in an asymptomatic patient.
- They would be more useful if there were signs of **renal dysfunction** or electrolyte imbalances, which are not present here.
*Repeat urinalysis*
- The urinalysis has already been repeated with similar results, confirming the presence of isolated **proteinuria**.
- Simply repeating it again without further investigation into the cause is unlikely to provide new diagnostic information.
*Basic metabolic panel*
- A BMP would provide information on **serum creatinine**, BUN, and electrolytes, which can assess overall kidney function.
- However, in an asymptomatic patient with isolated proteinuria, it doesn't directly help in differentiating the cause of proteinuria, especially concerning orthostatic proteinuria.
*Renal biopsy*
- A **renal biopsy** is an invasive procedure and is generally reserved for cases of persistent, significant proteinuria of unclear etiology, especially if associated with **hematuria**, declining renal function, or other systemic features suggesting intrinsic kidney disease.
- It would be premature to consider a biopsy without first attempting to characterize the nature of the proteinuria.