A 21-year-old man presents to his physician because he has been feeling increasingly tired and short of breath at work. He has previously had these symptoms but cannot recall the diagnosis he was given. Chart review reveals the following results:
Oxygen tension in inspired air = 150 mmHg
Alveolar carbon dioxide tension = 50 mmHg
Arterial oxygen tension = 71 mmHg
Respiratory exchange ratio = 0.80
Diffusion studies reveal normal diffusion distance. The patient is administered 100% oxygen but the patient's blood oxygen concentration does not improve. Which of the following conditions would best explain this patient's findings?
Q472
A 57-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for weakness. The patient states that she barely feels able to lift a bag of groceries from her car into her house anymore. The patient has a past medical history of a suicide attempt, constipation, anxiety, asthma, and atopic dermatitis. Her current medications include fluoxetine, lisinopril, albuterol, diphenhydramine, sodium docusate, and a multivitamin. She was recently started on atorvastatin for dyslipidemia. Her temperature is 97°F (36.1°C), blood pressure is 90/65 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, respirations are 11/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical exam, you note a fatigued appearing woman with thinning hair. Cardiopulmonary exam is within normal limits. She demonstrates 3/5 strength in her upper and lower extremities with 1+ sluggish reflexes. Sensation is symmetrical and present in the upper and lower extremities. Pain/tenderness upon palpation of the patient's extremities is noted. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below:
Hemoglobin: 12 g/dL
Hematocrit: 36%
Leukocyte count: 5,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 190,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 90 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.1 mg/dL
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 10 U/L
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q473
A 38-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with complaints of several episodes of palpitations accompanied by panic attacks over the last month. She also is concerned about many instances over the past few weeks where food has been getting stuck in her throat and she has had trouble swallowing. She denies any prior medical problems and reports a family history of cancer in her mother and maternal grandfather but cannot recall any details regarding the type of cancer(s) or age of diagnosis. Her vital signs at today's visit are as follows: T 37.6 deg C, HR 106, BP 158/104, RR 16, SpO2 97%. Physical examination is significant for a nodule on the anterior portion of the neck that moves with swallowing, accompanied by mild lymphadenopathy. A preliminary work-up is initiated, which shows hypercalcemia, elevated baseline calcitonin, and an inappropriately elevated PTH level. Diagnostic imaging shows bilateral adrenal lesions on an MRI of the abdomen/pelvis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q474
A 76-year-old man is brought to his geriatrician by his daughter, who reports that he has been "losing his memory." While the patient previously performed all household duties by himself, he has recently had several bills that were unpaid. He also called his daughter on several occasions after getting lost while driving and having "accidents" before getting to the toilet. On exam, the patient is conversant and alert to person, place, and time, though his gait is wide-based and slow. Which of the following diagnostic procedures would be most appropriate to confirm the suspected diagnosis in this patient?
Q475
A 43-year-old man is referred by his family physician because his urine dipstick reveals 3+ protein and urinalysis reveals 1-2 red cells/high power field, but is otherwise negative. He does not have any current complaints. His family history is irrelevant. He denies smoking and alcohol use. His temperature is 36.7°C (98.06°F), blood pressure is 130/82 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient’s condition?
Q476
A 69-year-old man presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath that has been worsening over the past month. The patient states that he has had worsening shortness of breath that has progressed to shortness of breath with simple activities and minor exertion. When he was unable to climb the stairs to his house today, he decided to come to the emergency department. The patient has a past medical history of poorly managed diabetes mellitus, hypertension, end stage renal disease, and obesity. His current medications include insulin, metformin, lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, and ibuprofen. The patient is notably non-compliant with his medications. An EKG and chest radiograph are normal. The patient had dialysis two days ago and attends most of his appointments. Laboratory values are ordered and are seen below:
Serum:
Na+: 135 mEq/L
K+: 4.5 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
HCO3-: 19 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen: 29 mg/dL
Glucose: 75 mg/dL
Creatinine: 2.5 mg/dL
Ca2+: 9.2 mg/dL
Mg2+: 1.7 mEq/L
AST: 11 U/L
ALT: 11 U/L
Leukocyte count and differential:
Leukocyte count: 4,500/mm^3
Platelet count: 150,000/mm^3
Neutrophil: 54%
Lymphocyte: 25%
Monocyte: 3%
Eosinophil: 1%
Basophil: 1%
Hemoglobin: 8.2 g/dL
Hematocrit: 22%
Mean corpuscular volume: 82 µm^3
The patient appears comfortable at rest but demonstrates notable shortness of breath when exerting himself. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 89/min, blood pressure is 144/85 mmHg, respirations are 10/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. Pulmonary and cardiac exam are within normal limits. Which of the following is a side-effect of the long-term therapy this patient should be started on right now?
Q477
A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. She has a 10-year history of type I diabetes mellitus treated with lispro and glargine. Upon questioning, she mentions that she stopped taking her insulin 3 days ago due to recent malaise and decreased appetite. She denies recent weight change, illicit drug use, or sexual activity. She does not take any other medications and she does not use tobacco products or alcohol. Upon physical examination she is afebrile. Her blood pressure is 105/70 mm Hg, pulse is 108/min and respiratory rate is 25/min. She appears lethargic, with clear breath sounds bilateral and a soft, nontender and nondistended abdomen. Laboratory results are as follows:
Sodium 130 mEq/L
Potassium 5.6 mEq/L
Chloride 91 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 12 mEq/L
Glucose 450 mg/dL
Which of the following is most likely to be found in this patient?
Q478
A 61-year-old man presents with back pain and hematuria. The patient says his back pain gradually onset 6 months ago and has progressively worsened. He describes the pain as moderate, dull and aching, and localized to the lower back and right flank. Also, he says that, for the past 2 weeks, he has been having intermittent episodes of hematuria. The patient denies any recent history of fever, chills, syncope, night sweats, dysuria or pain on urination. His past medical history is significant for a myocardial infarction (MI) 3 years ago status post percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty and peripheral vascular disease of the lower extremities, worst in the popliteal arteries, with an ankle:brachial index of 1.4. Also, he has had 2 episodes of obstructive nephrolithiasis in the past year caused by calcium oxalate stones, for which he takes potassium citrate. His family history is significant for his father who died of renovascular hypertension at age 55. The patient reports a 20-pack-year smoking history and moderates to heavy daily alcohol use. A review of systems is significant for an unintentional 6.8 kg (15 lb) weight loss over the last 2 months. The vital signs include: blood pressure 145/95 mm Hg, pulse 71/min, temperature 37.2℃ (98.9℉), and respiratory rate 18/min. On physical examination, the patient has moderate right costovertebral angle tenderness (CVAT). A contrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals an enhancing mass in the upper pole of the right kidney. A percutaneous renal biopsy of the mass confirms renal cell carcinoma. Which of the following was the most significant risk factor for the development of renal cell carcinoma (RCC) in this patient?
Q479
A 42-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a recurrent rash that has remitted and relapsed over the last 2 years. The patient states that she has tried multiple home remedies when she has flare-ups, to no avail. The patient is wary of medical care and has not seen a doctor in at least 15 years. On examination, she has multiple disc-shaped, erythematous lesions on her neck, progressing into her hairline. The patient notes no other symptoms. Lab work is performed and is positive for antinuclear antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q480
A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department acutely confused. The patient was found down at a local construction site by his coworkers. The patient has a past medical history of a seizure disorder and schizophrenia and is currently taking haloperidol. He had recent surgery 2 months ago to remove an inflamed appendix. His temperature is 105°F (40.6°C), blood pressure is 120/84 mmHg, pulse is 150/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a confused man who cannot answer questions. His clothes are drenched in sweat. He is not making purposeful movements with his extremities although no focal neurological deficits are clearly apparent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 471: A 21-year-old man presents to his physician because he has been feeling increasingly tired and short of breath at work. He has previously had these symptoms but cannot recall the diagnosis he was given. Chart review reveals the following results:
Oxygen tension in inspired air = 150 mmHg
Alveolar carbon dioxide tension = 50 mmHg
Arterial oxygen tension = 71 mmHg
Respiratory exchange ratio = 0.80
Diffusion studies reveal normal diffusion distance. The patient is administered 100% oxygen but the patient's blood oxygen concentration does not improve. Which of the following conditions would best explain this patient's findings?
A. Septal defect since birth (Correct Answer)
B. Use of opioid medications
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. Vacation at the top of a mountain
Explanation: ***Septal defect since birth***
- A congenital heart disease like a **septal defect** causes a right-to-left **shunt**, meaning deoxygenated blood bypasses the lungs and mixes with oxygenated blood.
- This type of shunt leads to **hypoxemia that is refractory to 100% oxygen** because the shunted blood will never pick up oxygen from the lungs.
*Use of opioid medications*
- Opioid use causes **respiratory depression**, leading to **hypoventilation** and increased arterial CO2 with decreased arterial O2.
- However, the hypoxemia from hypoventilation would typically improve significantly with **100% oxygen administration**, unlike in this case.
*Pulmonary fibrosis*
- **Pulmonary fibrosis** causes thickening of the alveolar-capillary membrane, leading to impaired gas exchange and **diffusion limitation**.
- While it causes hypoxemia, the diffusion studies are stated to be **normal**, and hypoxemia due to diffusion limitation often improves with supplemental oxygen.
*Pulmonary embolism*
- A **pulmonary embolism** leads to V/Q mismatch by blocking blood flow to a portion of the lung, causing ventilation with no perfusion.
- Hypoxemia from V/Q mismatch generally **responds well to supplemental oxygen**, as the non-affected lung areas can compensate, unlike the scenario described.
*Vacation at the top of a mountain*
- Being at a high altitude causes **hypobaric hypoxia**, meaning there is a reduced partial pressure of oxygen in the inspired air.
- This type of hypoxemia typically **improves with supplemental oxygen** as it increases the inspired oxygen tension, which is contrary to the patient's findings.
Question 472: A 57-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for weakness. The patient states that she barely feels able to lift a bag of groceries from her car into her house anymore. The patient has a past medical history of a suicide attempt, constipation, anxiety, asthma, and atopic dermatitis. Her current medications include fluoxetine, lisinopril, albuterol, diphenhydramine, sodium docusate, and a multivitamin. She was recently started on atorvastatin for dyslipidemia. Her temperature is 97°F (36.1°C), blood pressure is 90/65 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, respirations are 11/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical exam, you note a fatigued appearing woman with thinning hair. Cardiopulmonary exam is within normal limits. She demonstrates 3/5 strength in her upper and lower extremities with 1+ sluggish reflexes. Sensation is symmetrical and present in the upper and lower extremities. Pain/tenderness upon palpation of the patient's extremities is noted. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below:
Hemoglobin: 12 g/dL
Hematocrit: 36%
Leukocyte count: 5,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 190,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 90 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.1 mg/dL
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 10 U/L
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Discontinue atorvastatin
B. TSH level (Correct Answer)
C. Coenzyme Q10
D. Muscle biopsy
E. Aldolase level
Explanation: ***TSH level***
- The patient's symptoms of **generalized weakness**, **constipation**, **fatigue**, **thinning hair**, and **sluggish reflexes** are highly suggestive of **hypothyroidism**.
- A TSH level is the most appropriate initial screening test for evaluating thyroid function.
*Discontinue atorvastatin*
- While **statins can cause myopathy**, leading to muscle weakness and pain, the patient's presentation with **thinning hair** and **sluggish reflexes** points more strongly towards hypothyroidism.
- Labs would likely show elevated **creatine kinase** in statin-induced myopathy, which is not provided as elevated here.
*Coenzyme Q10*
- **Coenzyme Q10** supplementation is sometimes suggested for statin-induced myopathy, but there is limited evidence for its efficacy, and it would not address the broader constellation of symptoms seen here.
- This is an intervention, not a diagnostic step, and the underlying cause of weakness needs to be identified first.
*Muscle biopsy*
- A **muscle biopsy** is an invasive procedure and is typically reserved for cases where less invasive tests have failed to provide a diagnosis, especially in suspected **inflammatory myopathies** or **muscular dystrophies**.
- It is not the initial diagnostic step for generalized weakness, particularly with symptoms suggestive of an endocrine disorder.
*Aldolase level*
- **Aldolase** is an enzyme found in muscle tissue and can be elevated in conditions causing **muscle breakdown**, similar to creatine kinase.
- While it may be elevated in myopathies, the clinical picture with **thinning hair** and **sluggish reflexes** makes hypothyroidism a more likely initial diagnosis to investigate.
Question 473: A 38-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with complaints of several episodes of palpitations accompanied by panic attacks over the last month. She also is concerned about many instances over the past few weeks where food has been getting stuck in her throat and she has had trouble swallowing. She denies any prior medical problems and reports a family history of cancer in her mother and maternal grandfather but cannot recall any details regarding the type of cancer(s) or age of diagnosis. Her vital signs at today's visit are as follows: T 37.6 deg C, HR 106, BP 158/104, RR 16, SpO2 97%. Physical examination is significant for a nodule on the anterior portion of the neck that moves with swallowing, accompanied by mild lymphadenopathy. A preliminary work-up is initiated, which shows hypercalcemia, elevated baseline calcitonin, and an inappropriately elevated PTH level. Diagnostic imaging shows bilateral adrenal lesions on an MRI of the abdomen/pelvis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Familial medullary thyroid cancer (FMTC)
B. Li-Fraumeni syndrome
C. Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) IIa (Correct Answer)
D. Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) I
E. Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) IIb
Explanation: ***Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) IIa***
- This patient presents with **medullary thyroid cancer** (due to the thyroid nodule, elevated calcitonin, and family history of cancer), **pheochromocytoma** (indicated by palpitations, panic attacks, hypertension, and adrenal lesions), and **primary hyperparathyroidism** (evidenced by hypercalcemia and inappropriately elevated PTH). These three conditions are the classic triad of MEN IIa.
- The symptoms of food getting stuck in her throat are also consistent with the presence of a **thyroid nodule**.
*Familial medullary thyroid cancer (FMTC)*
- While the patient has **medullary thyroid cancer**, FMTC is typically characterized solely by medullary thyroid carcinoma without the associated pheochromocytoma or primary hyperparathyroidism seen in this case.
- This patient's presentation includes **adrenal lesions** and **hyperparathyroidism**, which are not features of isolated FMTC.
*Li-Fraumeni syndrome*
- This syndrome is associated with a high risk of various cancers, including sarcomas, breast cancer, brain tumors, and adrenocortical carcinoma, but it is not typically associated with **medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, or primary hyperparathyroidism** as a primary presentation.
- The genetic basis is a mutation in the **TP53 gene**, and the clinical picture does not match the specific endocrine tumors observed here.
*Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) I*
- MEN I is characterized by tumors of the **parathyroid, pituitary, and pancreas** (the 3 Ps).
- This patient's presentation of medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, and primary hyperparathyroidism does not include pituitary or pancreatic tumors, and medullary thyroid cancer and pheochromocytoma are not part of the MEN I spectrum.
*Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) IIb*
- MEN IIb includes **medullary thyroid cancer** and **pheochromocytoma**, which are present in this patient.
- However, MEN IIb also classically presents with characteristic **mucosal neuromas** and a **marfanoid habitus**, and *lacks* primary hyperparathyroidism, which this patient clearly exhibits.
Question 474: A 76-year-old man is brought to his geriatrician by his daughter, who reports that he has been "losing his memory." While the patient previously performed all household duties by himself, he has recently had several bills that were unpaid. He also called his daughter on several occasions after getting lost while driving and having "accidents" before getting to the toilet. On exam, the patient is conversant and alert to person, place, and time, though his gait is wide-based and slow. Which of the following diagnostic procedures would be most appropriate to confirm the suspected diagnosis in this patient?
A. Warfarin
B. Donepezil
C. Carbidopa/Levodopa
D. Memantine
E. Lumbar puncture (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Lumbar puncture***
- The patient's symptoms of **cognitive decline**, **gait disturbance**, and **urinary incontinence** (losing control before reaching the toilet) represent the classic triad of **Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH)**.
- **Lumbar puncture** with removal of CSF (30-50 mL) serves as both a **diagnostic and therapeutic test** (tap test); transient improvement in symptoms, especially gait, strongly supports the diagnosis of NPH.
- This is the only **diagnostic procedure** among the options; the others are medications/treatments.
*Warfarin*
- This is an **anticoagulant medication** (not a diagnostic procedure) used to prevent blood clots in atrial fibrillation or venous thromboembolism.
- Has no role in diagnosing or treating NPH, which involves CSF dynamics, not coagulation.
*Donepezil*
- **Donepezil** is an **acetylcholinesterase inhibitor medication** (not a diagnostic procedure) used to treat Alzheimer's disease symptoms.
- While the patient has cognitive decline, the classic NPH triad (cognitive, gait, incontinence) distinguishes this from typical Alzheimer's dementia.
- This is a treatment option, not a diagnostic test.
*Carbidopa/Levodopa*
- This **medication combination** (not a diagnostic procedure) is the primary treatment for **Parkinson's disease**, replacing dopamine.
- While Parkinson's causes gait issues, it doesn't typically present with this specific triad, and parkinsonian gait differs from NPH's magnetic/apraxic gait.
- This is a treatment, not a diagnostic procedure.
*Memantine*
- **Memantine** is an **NMDA receptor antagonist medication** (not a diagnostic procedure) used in moderate to severe Alzheimer's disease.
- Like donepezil, this treats dementia symptoms but is not a diagnostic test for NPH.
Question 475: A 43-year-old man is referred by his family physician because his urine dipstick reveals 3+ protein and urinalysis reveals 1-2 red cells/high power field, but is otherwise negative. He does not have any current complaints. His family history is irrelevant. He denies smoking and alcohol use. His temperature is 36.7°C (98.06°F), blood pressure is 130/82 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient’s condition?
A. Reassurance
B. Repeat the urine dipstick test
C. 24-hour urine collection (Correct Answer)
D. Start captopril
E. Urine culture
Explanation: ***24-hour urine collection***
- The presence of **3+ proteinuria on dipstick** (approximately ≥300 mg/dL) is significant and requires **quantification** to assess the degree of proteinuria and guide further management.
- A **24-hour urine collection** is the traditional gold standard method to quantify total protein excretion and determine if the patient has clinically significant proteinuria (>150 mg/day is abnormal; >3.5 g/day indicates nephrotic-range proteinuria).
- Alternatively, a **spot urine protein-to-creatinine ratio (PCR)** or **albumin-to-creatinine ratio (ACR)** can be used, but among the given options, 24-hour collection is the appropriate next step.
- The concurrent finding of **microscopic hematuria (1-2 RBCs/hpf)** further supports the need for evaluation of possible **glomerular disease** or other renal pathology.
*Repeat the urine dipstick test*
- Repeating a dipstick is appropriate for **trace or 1+ proteinuria** to rule out transient causes (exercise, fever, orthostatic proteinuria, concentrated urine).
- However, **3+ proteinuria is too significant** to simply repeat the dipstick; it requires quantification to determine the severity and guide further diagnostic workup (e.g., renal biopsy if nephrotic-range).
*Urine culture*
- While infection can cause proteinuria and hematuria, the urinalysis is described as "otherwise negative," suggesting an absence of **leukocytes, nitrites, or bacteria** typical of a urinary tract infection.
- The patient is **asymptomatic** without dysuria, frequency, or fever, making infection unlikely.
- A urine culture would be appropriate if there were clinical signs of UTI.
*Reassurance*
- Giving reassurance would be **inappropriate and potentially harmful** given the finding of **3+ proteinuria**, which is a significant indicator of potential renal pathology.
- Proteinuria of this magnitude can indicate **glomerulonephritis, diabetic nephropathy, hypertensive nephrosclerosis**, or other kidney diseases requiring further evaluation.
- The presence of concurrent **microscopic hematuria** raises additional concern for glomerular disease.
*Start captopril*
- Captopril, an **ACE inhibitor**, is used to reduce proteinuria and provide renoprotection in patients with **confirmed chronic kidney disease**, particularly in the setting of **diabetes or hypertension**.
- Initiating treatment is **premature** without first quantifying the proteinuria, establishing a diagnosis, and ruling out secondary causes.
- The patient's blood pressure (130/82 mm Hg) is at the upper limit of normal but does not mandate immediate antihypertensive therapy before completing the diagnostic evaluation.
Question 476: A 69-year-old man presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath that has been worsening over the past month. The patient states that he has had worsening shortness of breath that has progressed to shortness of breath with simple activities and minor exertion. When he was unable to climb the stairs to his house today, he decided to come to the emergency department. The patient has a past medical history of poorly managed diabetes mellitus, hypertension, end stage renal disease, and obesity. His current medications include insulin, metformin, lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, and ibuprofen. The patient is notably non-compliant with his medications. An EKG and chest radiograph are normal. The patient had dialysis two days ago and attends most of his appointments. Laboratory values are ordered and are seen below:
Serum:
Na+: 135 mEq/L
K+: 4.5 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
HCO3-: 19 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen: 29 mg/dL
Glucose: 75 mg/dL
Creatinine: 2.5 mg/dL
Ca2+: 9.2 mg/dL
Mg2+: 1.7 mEq/L
AST: 11 U/L
ALT: 11 U/L
Leukocyte count and differential:
Leukocyte count: 4,500/mm^3
Platelet count: 150,000/mm^3
Neutrophil: 54%
Lymphocyte: 25%
Monocyte: 3%
Eosinophil: 1%
Basophil: 1%
Hemoglobin: 8.2 g/dL
Hematocrit: 22%
Mean corpuscular volume: 82 µm^3
The patient appears comfortable at rest but demonstrates notable shortness of breath when exerting himself. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 89/min, blood pressure is 144/85 mmHg, respirations are 10/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. Pulmonary and cardiac exam are within normal limits. Which of the following is a side-effect of the long-term therapy this patient should be started on right now?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Pruritus
C. Hypertension (Correct Answer)
D. Hypokalemia
E. Visual halos
Explanation: ***Hypertension***
- This patient is experiencing symptomatic **anemia of chronic kidney disease** (Hgb 8.2 g/dL, Hct 22%) and should be started on **erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESA)** such as erythropoietin or darbepoetin.
- **Hypertension is the most common side effect** of erythropoietin therapy, occurring in **20-30% of patients**. The mechanism involves increased blood viscosity from rising hematocrit, increased peripheral vascular resistance, and direct vasoconstrictive effects.
- Patients on ESA therapy require **close blood pressure monitoring** and may need adjustment of antihypertensive medications. Blood pressure should be controlled before initiating ESA therapy.
- Other important side effects include thrombotic events, headache, and flu-like symptoms.
*Visual halos*
- Visual halos are a classic symptom of **digoxin toxicity**, not a side effect of erythropoietin therapy.
- While this patient has multiple cardiac risk factors, the primary issue is **anemia requiring ESA therapy**, not heart failure requiring digoxin.
*Hyperkalemia*
- Hyperkalemia is associated with **renal failure**, **ACE inhibitors** (lisinopril), or **potassium-sparing diuretics**, but the patient's current potassium is normal (4.5 mEq/L).
- Hyperkalemia is **not a recognized side effect** of erythropoietin therapy.
*Pruritus*
- Pruritus can be a symptom of **chronic kidney disease** or **uremia** itself, but it is not a direct side effect of **erythropoietin therapy**.
- While ESRD patients commonly experience pruritus, this is not related to ESA treatment.
*Hypokalemia*
- Hypokalemia is **not a recognized side effect** of erythropoietin therapy.
- While ESA stimulates red blood cell production in bone marrow, this does not cause clinically significant potassium shifts or hypokalemia.
- The patient's current potassium level is normal at 4.5 mEq/L.
Question 477: A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. She has a 10-year history of type I diabetes mellitus treated with lispro and glargine. Upon questioning, she mentions that she stopped taking her insulin 3 days ago due to recent malaise and decreased appetite. She denies recent weight change, illicit drug use, or sexual activity. She does not take any other medications and she does not use tobacco products or alcohol. Upon physical examination she is afebrile. Her blood pressure is 105/70 mm Hg, pulse is 108/min and respiratory rate is 25/min. She appears lethargic, with clear breath sounds bilateral and a soft, nontender and nondistended abdomen. Laboratory results are as follows:
Sodium 130 mEq/L
Potassium 5.6 mEq/L
Chloride 91 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 12 mEq/L
Glucose 450 mg/dL
Which of the following is most likely to be found in this patient?
A. Suppression of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion
B. Total body potassium depletion (Correct Answer)
C. Signs of hypocalcemia
D. Loss of sodium in urine is greater than free water loss
E. Normal-to-high phosphate levels
Explanation: ***Total body potassium depletion***
- Despite the **hyperkalemia** observed in the lab results (Potassium 5.6 mEq/L), patients with **diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)** commonly experience significant **total body potassium depletion** due to osmotic diuresis and vomiting.
- The apparent hyperkalemia is often due to an **extracellular shift of potassium** in acidosis, while intracellular stores are diminished.
*Suppression of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion*
- Patients with DKA are typically **volume depleted** due to osmotic diuresis and vomiting, which would lead to **increased (not suppressed) ADH secretion** to conserve water.
- **Elevated plasma osmolality** due to hyperglycemia also stimulates ADH release.
*Signs of hypocalcemia*
- While electrolyte imbalances are common in DKA, **hypocalcemia** is not a typical direct finding. **Hyperphosphatemia** can sometimes induce hypocalcemia, but phosphate levels are not yet known.
- The patient's presentation does not suggest symptoms specifically related to hypocalcemia (e.g., tetany, arrhythmias).
*Loss of sodium in urine is greater than free water loss*
- In DKA, **osmotic diuresis** due to hyperglycemia leads to significant **loss of free water** in the urine, often exceeding sodium loss.
- This results in **hypernatremia** or **pseudohyponatremia** after correction for glucose, but the primary loss is overall fluid.
*Normal-to-high phosphate levels*
- Patients with DKA typically experience **hypophosphatemia** due to increased renal phosphate wasting, despite an initial shift of phosphate out of cells with acidosis.
- **Phosphate depletion** is a characteristic feature and often requires repletion during treatment.
Question 478: A 61-year-old man presents with back pain and hematuria. The patient says his back pain gradually onset 6 months ago and has progressively worsened. He describes the pain as moderate, dull and aching, and localized to the lower back and right flank. Also, he says that, for the past 2 weeks, he has been having intermittent episodes of hematuria. The patient denies any recent history of fever, chills, syncope, night sweats, dysuria or pain on urination. His past medical history is significant for a myocardial infarction (MI) 3 years ago status post percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty and peripheral vascular disease of the lower extremities, worst in the popliteal arteries, with an ankle:brachial index of 1.4. Also, he has had 2 episodes of obstructive nephrolithiasis in the past year caused by calcium oxalate stones, for which he takes potassium citrate. His family history is significant for his father who died of renovascular hypertension at age 55. The patient reports a 20-pack-year smoking history and moderates to heavy daily alcohol use. A review of systems is significant for an unintentional 6.8 kg (15 lb) weight loss over the last 2 months. The vital signs include: blood pressure 145/95 mm Hg, pulse 71/min, temperature 37.2℃ (98.9℉), and respiratory rate 18/min. On physical examination, the patient has moderate right costovertebral angle tenderness (CVAT). A contrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis reveals an enhancing mass in the upper pole of the right kidney. A percutaneous renal biopsy of the mass confirms renal cell carcinoma. Which of the following was the most significant risk factor for the development of renal cell carcinoma (RCC) in this patient?
A. History of obstructive nephrolithiasis
B. Moderate to heavy daily alcohol use
C. 20-pack-year smoking history (Correct Answer)
D. Family history of renovascular hypertension
E. Peripheral vascular disease
Explanation: ***20-pack-year smoking history***
- **Smoking** is the single most important modifiable risk factor for **renal cell carcinoma (RCC)**, increasing the risk by 50-100% in a dose-dependent manner.
- The duration and intensity of smoking, as indicated by a **20-pack-year history**, significantly contribute to the cumulative risk of developing RCC.
*History of obstructive nephrolithiasis*
- While **kidney stones** (nephrolithiasis) can cause symptoms similar to RCC (e.g., pain, hematuria), they are generally **not considered a direct risk factor** for RCC.
- The presence of calcium oxalate stones does not predispose an individual to kidney cancer directly.
*Moderate to heavy daily alcohol use*
- The relationship between **alcohol consumption** and RCC risk is not as clear or as strong as with smoking.
- Some studies suggest a potential link, but it is generally considered a **minor or inconsistent risk factor** compared to smoking.
*Family history of renovascular hypertension*
- **Renovascular hypertension** is hypertension caused by kidney artery stenosis, and while it might indicate underlying vascular issues, it is **not a direct risk factor for RCC**.
- A family history of hypertension in general may be weakly associated with RCC, but specifically renovascular hypertension is not.
*Peripheral vascular disease*
- **Peripheral vascular disease (PVD)** is a manifestation of systemic atherosclerosis and shares common risk factors with RCC (e.g., smoking, hypertension), but it is **not an independent risk factor for RCC**.
- PVD itself does not directly cause renal cell carcinoma.
Question 479: A 42-year-old woman presents to the clinic for a recurrent rash that has remitted and relapsed over the last 2 years. The patient states that she has tried multiple home remedies when she has flare-ups, to no avail. The patient is wary of medical care and has not seen a doctor in at least 15 years. On examination, she has multiple disc-shaped, erythematous lesions on her neck, progressing into her hairline. The patient notes no other symptoms. Lab work is performed and is positive for antinuclear antibodies. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Tinea capitis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
C. Drug-induced lupus
D. Cutaneous lupus erythematosus (CLE) (Correct Answer)
E. Dermatomyositis
Explanation: **Cutaneous lupus erythematosus (CLE)**
- The presentation of recurrent **disc-shaped, erythematous lesions** on the neck and hairline is characteristic of **discoid lupus**, a common form of CLE.
- While **antinuclear antibodies (ANA)** are positive, the absence of systemic symptoms points towards a diagnosis limited to the skin rather than a systemic autoimmune disease.
*Tinea capitis*
- This is a **fungal infection** of the scalp, typically presenting with **scaly patches**, **hair loss**, and sometimes **pustules**.
- It would not typically present with classic discoid lesions or a positive ANA.
*Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)*
- While ANA positive, **SLE** would involve additional systemic symptoms such as **arthritis**, **serositis**, **renal involvement**, or **hematologic abnormalities**, which are absent here.
- Although cutaneous manifestations are common in SLE, the isolated skin lesions without systemic involvement make CLE a more likely diagnosis.
*Drug-induced lupus*
- This condition is caused by certain **medications** and typically resolves upon discontinuation of the causative drug.
- The patient's history does not indicate recent medication use, and the long-standing, relapsing nature of the rash over two years makes a drug-induced cause less likely.
*Dermatomyositis*
- Characterized by **proximal muscle weakness** and distinct skin rashes such as **heliotrope rash** (periorbital violaceous discoloration) and **Gottron's papules** (violaceous papules over joints).
- The patient presents with neither muscle weakness nor these specific skin findings.
Question 480: A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department acutely confused. The patient was found down at a local construction site by his coworkers. The patient has a past medical history of a seizure disorder and schizophrenia and is currently taking haloperidol. He had recent surgery 2 months ago to remove an inflamed appendix. His temperature is 105°F (40.6°C), blood pressure is 120/84 mmHg, pulse is 150/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a confused man who cannot answer questions. His clothes are drenched in sweat. He is not making purposeful movements with his extremities although no focal neurological deficits are clearly apparent. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Heat exhaustion
B. Nonexertional heat stroke
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Malignant hyperthermia
E. Exertional heat stroke (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Exertional heat stroke***
- This diagnosis is supported by the patient's presentation of **hyperthermia** (105°F), **tachycardia**, **confusion**, and a history of working at a **construction site** (suggesting physical exertion in a hot environment).
- The patient's **drenched clothes from sweat** indicate the body's initial attempt to cool down, but the extremely high core temperature and confusion signify a failure of thermoregulation.
*Heat exhaustion*
- While heat exhaustion also involves **sweating** and can present with elevated body temperature, the core temperature is typically **below 104°F (40°C)**, and **marked altered mental status** (like severe confusion) is less common or less severe.
- The patient's temperature of 105°F (40.6°C) and profound confusion are more indicative of heat stroke.
*Nonexertional heat stroke*
- Nonexertional (or classic) heat stroke usually affects populations with **compromised thermoregulation** (e.g., elderly, very young, chronically ill) who are exposed to high environmental temperatures **without significant physical exertion**.
- The patient's age (33) and history of working at a construction site make exertional heat stroke more likely than nonexertional.
*Neuroleptic malignant syndrome*
- NMS is characterized by **fever, muscle rigidity** (often "lead pipe" rigidity), **altered mental status**, and **autonomic instability** (including tachycardia and diaphoresis), and is associated with **antipsychotic medications** like haloperidol.
- However, NMS typically develops **gradually over days to weeks**, not acutely. The key differentiator here is the **clear environmental and exertional context** (construction site work), **acute onset** after being found down, and the **absence of characteristic muscle rigidity** that would be prominent in NMS.
- Heat stroke is more probable given the immediate occupational exposure and clinical timeline.
*Malignant hyperthermia*
- Malignant hyperthermia is a rare, life-threatening condition associated with exposure to certain **anesthetic agents** (e.g., succinylcholine, volatile anesthetics) or, less commonly, severe exertion in susceptible individuals.
- The patient's recent surgery was two months prior, and there is no mention of current exposure to triggers, making it unlikely to be the immediate cause of his acute presentation.