A 53-year-old woman presents to the physician with palpitations and increasing swelling of the legs over the past 3 months. During this time, she has also had generalized pruritus. She has dyspnea on exertion. She has no history of asthma. She occasionally takes ibuprofen for chronic headaches she has had for several years. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. The pulse is 92/min and irregular, blood pressure is 115/65 mm Hg, temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F), and respiratory rate are 16/min. On physical examination, the skin shows papules and linear scratch marks on the limbs and trunk. She has 2+ pitting edema. Auscultation of the heart shows irregular heartbeats. Examination of the lungs shows no abnormalities. The spleen is palpated 5 cm (1.9 in) below the costal margin. No lymphadenopathy is palpated. The results of the laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
Leukocyte count 17,500/mm3
Percent segmented neutrophils 25.5%
Lymphocytes 16.5%
Eosinophils 52%
Basophils 2%
Platelet count 285,000/mm3
Echocardiography is consistent with restrictive-pattern cardiomyopathy and shows thickening of the mitral valve and a thrombus in the left ventricular apex. Abdominal ultrasound confirms splenomegaly and shows ascites. Which of the following best explains these findings?
Q452
A 78-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her son because of progressive memory loss for the past year. She feels tired and can no longer concentrate on her morning crossword puzzles. She has gained 11.3 kg (25 lb) in the last year. Her father died from complications of Alzheimer disease. She has a history of drinking alcohol excessively but has not consumed alcohol for the past 10 years. Vital signs are within normal limits. She is oriented but has short-term memory deficits. Examination shows a normal gait and delayed relaxation of the achilles reflex bilaterally. Her skin is dry and she has brittle nails. Which of the following is the most likely underlying etiology of this woman’s memory loss?
Q453
You are called to a hemodialysis suite. The patient is a 61-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and type-2 diabetes mellitus-induced end-stage renal disease who has required hemodialysis for the past year. His current hemodialysis session is nearing the end when the nurse notices that his blood pressure has dropped to 88/60 mm Hg from his normal of 142/90 mm Hg. The patient denies any shortness of breath or chest pain. He took his daily bisoprolol, metformin, and insulin this morning before coming to the hospital. On examination, the patient’s blood pressure is 92/60 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 119/min. Chest auscultation is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next management step?
Q454
A 14-year-old boy who has been otherwise healthy presents to his doctor complaining of feeling easily winded and light-headed at basketball practice. He has never felt this way before and is frustrated because he is good enough to make varsity this year. He denies smoking, alcohol, or recreational drug use. His mother is very worried because her oldest son and brother had both died suddenly while playing sports despite being otherwise healthy. The transthoracic echocardiogram confirms the suspected diagnosis, which demonstrates a preserved ejection fraction and systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve. The patient is advised that he will need to stay hydrated and avoid intense exercise, and he will likely need an ICD due to his family history. Which of the following physical exam findings is consistent with this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
Q455
A 75-year-old gentleman is brought to the ED with confusion that started earlier this morning. His family notes that he was complaining of feeling weak last night and also had a slight tremor at the time. He is afebrile and he has no known chronic medical conditions. Physical exam reveals a cooperative but confused gentleman. His mucous membranes are moist, he has no focal neurological deficits, and his skin turgor is within normal limits. His lab results are notable for:
Serum Na+: 123 mEq/L
Plasma osmolality: 268 mOsm/kg
Urine osmolality: 349 mOsm/kg
Urine Na+: 47 mEq/L
Which of the following malignancies is most likely to be responsible for this patient's presentation?
Q456
A 36-year-old man comes to the clinic for "bumps under his nipples." He is anxious that this could be breast cancer as his sister was just recently diagnosed. Past medical history is unremarkable except for an appendectomy at age 13. He currently works as a personal trainer and reports a diet that consists mainly of lean meat. The patient reports drinking 1-2 beers over the weekends. Physical examination demonstrates a muscular physique with mobile smooth masses below the areola bilaterally with no discharge. What other physical exam finding is most likely to be seen in this individual?
Q457
A 59-year-old man comes to the clinic for an annual well-exam. He was lost to follow-up for the past 3 years due to marital issues but reports that he feels fine. The patient reports, “I feel tired but it is probably because I am getting old. I do feel a little feverish today - I think I got a cold.” His past medical history is significant for hypertension that is controlled with hydrochlorothiazide. He reports fatigue, congestion, cough, and night sweats. He denies any sick contacts, recent travel, weight changes, chest pain, or dizziness. His temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 151/98 mmHg, pulse is 97/min, and respirations are 15/min. His laboratory values are shown below:
Hemoglobin: 13.5 g/dL
Hematocrit: 41%
Leukocyte count: 25,000/mm^3
Segmented neutrophils: 73%
Bands: 8%
Eosinophils: 1%
Basophils: 2%
Lymphocytes: 15%
Monocytes: 2%
Platelet count: 200,000/mm^3
What diagnostic test would be helpful in distinguishing this patient’s condition from pneumonia?
Q458
A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with joint pain and swelling of her hands. She reports that the pain lasts for about an hour in the morning and improves as her joints 'loosen up'. This condition has been bothering her for about 2 years but has recently been impacting her daily routine. She has not seen a doctor in years. Past medical history is significant for hypertension and she takes hydrochlorothiazide daily. Her grandmother and aunt both had rheumatoid arthritis. She is a current smoker and has smoked a half of a pack of cigarettes a day for the last 20 years. The temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), the blood pressure is 125/85 mm Hg, the respiratory rate is 17/min, and the heart rate is 98/min. Physical examination reveals tender swollen joints in her hands and wrists. Laboratory work is presented below:
Hemoglobin 10.7 g/dL
Hematocrit 37.5%
Leukocyte count 14,000/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 81.4 μm3
Platelet count 200,000/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 45 mm/h
Anti-citrullinated protein antibody 55 (normal reference values: < 20)
CT findings reveal osteopenia and erosions in the metacarpophalangeal joints. The patient is started on methotrexate. Which of the following is likely to be found in the synovial fluid analysis?
Q459
A 67-year-old man with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department after a suicide attempt. The patient was found in his apartment by his grandson with wrist lacerations. He was rushed to the emergency department and was resuscitated en route. The patient has a past medical history of ischemic heart disease and depression. His pulse is barely palpable and he is not responding to questions coherently. His temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 107/48 mmHg, pulse is 160/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. After fluid resuscitation and wound care, his blood pressure improves to 127/55 mmHg. On physical exam, the patient complains of numbness surrounding his mouth and pain in the location of the lacerations of his wrists. Which of the following best describes the laboratory findings in this patient?
Q460
A 33-year-old man comes to the physician because of right scrotal swelling for the past 2 weeks. He has had mild lower abdominal discomfort for the past 3 weeks. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. He appears healthy. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows gynecomastia. There is no inguinal lymphadenopathy. There is a firm nontender nodule over the right testicle. When a light is held behind the scrotum, it does not shine through. When the patient is asked to cough, the nodule does not cause a bulge. The abdomen is soft and nontender. The liver is palpated 2 cm below the right costal margin. Digital rectal examination is unremarkable. Serum alpha-fetoprotein, LDH, and hCG levels are markedly elevated. An x-ray of the chest shows no abnormalities. Ultrasound of the testis shows a cystic 3-cm mass with variable echogenicity. A CT of the abdomen shows multiple hypoattenuating lesions on the liver and retroperitoneal lymph nodes. A radical inguinal orchiectomy with retroperitoneal lymph node dissection is performed. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 451: A 53-year-old woman presents to the physician with palpitations and increasing swelling of the legs over the past 3 months. During this time, she has also had generalized pruritus. She has dyspnea on exertion. She has no history of asthma. She occasionally takes ibuprofen for chronic headaches she has had for several years. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. The pulse is 92/min and irregular, blood pressure is 115/65 mm Hg, temperature is 36.7°C (98.1°F), and respiratory rate are 16/min. On physical examination, the skin shows papules and linear scratch marks on the limbs and trunk. She has 2+ pitting edema. Auscultation of the heart shows irregular heartbeats. Examination of the lungs shows no abnormalities. The spleen is palpated 5 cm (1.9 in) below the costal margin. No lymphadenopathy is palpated. The results of the laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
Leukocyte count 17,500/mm3
Percent segmented neutrophils 25.5%
Lymphocytes 16.5%
Eosinophils 52%
Basophils 2%
Platelet count 285,000/mm3
Echocardiography is consistent with restrictive-pattern cardiomyopathy and shows thickening of the mitral valve and a thrombus in the left ventricular apex. Abdominal ultrasound confirms splenomegaly and shows ascites. Which of the following best explains these findings?
A. Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis
B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
C. Drug rash with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS)
D. Hypereosinophilic syndrome (Correct Answer)
E. Strongyloidiasis eosinophilia
Explanation: ***Hypereosinophilic syndrome***
- The patient presents with **persistent eosinophilia** (52% eosinophils, absolute count ~9,100/mm³) and systemic involvement affecting multiple organs, including the **heart (restrictive cardiomyopathy, mitral valve thickening, LV thrombus)** and **spleen (splenomegaly)**.
- **Pruritus and skin lesions** (papules, scratch marks) along with symptoms like palpitations, dyspnea, and leg swelling further support the diagnosis of hypereosinophilic syndrome.
- Classic endomyocardial involvement with **restrictive physiology and thrombus formation** is pathognomonic for cardiac complications of this condition.
*Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis*
- This condition typically involves **asthma or allergic rhinitis**, and often presents with **pulmonary infiltrates** and **neuropathy**, which are not described in this patient.
- While it features eosinophilia and systemic manifestations, the **lack of respiratory symptoms** like asthma and specific organ involvement patterns makes it less likely.
*Hodgkin's lymphoma*
- Although Hodgkin's lymphoma can cause **splenomegaly and systemic symptoms** (like pruritus), it is not typically associated with such profound and isolated **eosinophilia** (52%) or the specific cardiac manifestations described.
- **Lymphadenopathy is a hallmark** of Hodgkin's, but is explicitly stated to be absent in this patient.
*Drug rash with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS)*
- DRESS syndrome is characterized by a **skin rash, fever, lymphadenopathy, and internal organ involvement**, typically occurring 2-8 weeks after exposure to a culprit drug.
- The patient's long-term use of ibuprofen for chronic headaches makes it an unlikely trigger, and the **absence of a clear recent drug initiation** or a prominent rash with fever makes DRESS less probable.
*Strongyloidiasis eosinophilia*
- While parasitic infections like strongyloidiasis can cause **significant eosinophilia**, they typically present with **gastrointestinal or pulmonary symptoms** and are less commonly associated with **restrictive cardiomyopathy and mitral valve thickening**.
- The clinical picture of specific cardiac and splenic involvement, without typical parasitic infection symptoms, points away from strongyloidiasis.
Question 452: A 78-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her son because of progressive memory loss for the past year. She feels tired and can no longer concentrate on her morning crossword puzzles. She has gained 11.3 kg (25 lb) in the last year. Her father died from complications of Alzheimer disease. She has a history of drinking alcohol excessively but has not consumed alcohol for the past 10 years. Vital signs are within normal limits. She is oriented but has short-term memory deficits. Examination shows a normal gait and delayed relaxation of the achilles reflex bilaterally. Her skin is dry and she has brittle nails. Which of the following is the most likely underlying etiology of this woman’s memory loss?
A. Thiamine deficiency
B. Autoimmune thyroid disease (Correct Answer)
C. Alzheimer disease
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
E. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
Explanation: ***Autoimmune thyroid disease***
- The patient exhibits classic symptoms of **hypothyroidism**, including **fatigue**, **difficulty concentrating**, **weight gain**, **dry skin**, **brittle nails**, and **delayed relaxation of the Achilles reflex**.
- **Hypothyroidism** can lead to cognitive impairment, including memory loss, which may be reversible with treatment.
*Thiamine deficiency*
- While thiamine deficiency can cause memory loss (Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome), it typically presents with **ataxia**, **ophthalmoplegia**, and severe global amnesia, often in the context of active alcohol abuse.
- The patient's **alcohol consumption** ceased 10 years ago, and she does not exhibit other characteristic symptoms of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.
*Alzheimer disease*
- Although the patient's father had Alzheimer disease and she has progressive memory loss, her additional symptoms like **weight gain**, **fatigue**, **dry skin**, **brittle nails**, and **delayed reflexes** are not typical for Alzheimer disease.
- While Alzheimer's cannot be entirely ruled out, the constellation of symptoms points strongly towards a more immediately treatable cause.
*Vitamin B12 deficiency*
- Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause **memory loss**, **fatigue**, and neurologic symptoms, but it is not typically associated with **weight gain**, **dry skin**, **brittle nails**, or **delayed deep tendon reflexes**.
- Neurologic symptoms often include **peripheral neuropathy** and **paresthesias**.
*Normal pressure hydrocephalus*
- **Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)** is characterized by the triad of **gait disturbance**, **urinary incontinence**, and **dementia**.
- While the patient has memory loss, her gait is described as normal, and there is no mention of urinary incontinence, making NPH less likely.
Question 453: You are called to a hemodialysis suite. The patient is a 61-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and type-2 diabetes mellitus-induced end-stage renal disease who has required hemodialysis for the past year. His current hemodialysis session is nearing the end when the nurse notices that his blood pressure has dropped to 88/60 mm Hg from his normal of 142/90 mm Hg. The patient denies any shortness of breath or chest pain. He took his daily bisoprolol, metformin, and insulin this morning before coming to the hospital. On examination, the patient’s blood pressure is 92/60 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 119/min. Chest auscultation is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next management step?
A. Infuse 1 liter of 0.9% saline
B. Administer intravenous calcium gluconate
C. Transfuse the patient with 1 unit of packed red blood cells
D. Stop ultrafiltration and decrease blood flow into the machine (Correct Answer)
E. Start the patient on an epinephrine drip
Explanation: ***Stop ultrafiltration and decrease blood flow into the machine***
- The patient's **hypotension** and **tachycardia** during hemodialysis strongly suggest **intradialytic hypotension**, which is often caused by excessive fluid removal (ultrafiltration) or rapid fluid shifts.
- **Stopping ultrafiltration** and **reducing blood flow** allows for gradual re-equilibration of fluid and helps stabilize blood pressure without adding more fluid to a patient with end-stage renal disease.
*Infuse 1 liter of 0.9% saline*
- Administering a large volume of saline is generally **contraindicated in ESRD patients** given their inability to excrete fluid, which could lead to **fluid overload** and pulmonary edema.
- While fluid resuscitation might be considered for severe hypotension, the initial step in intradialytic hypotension is to adjust the dialysis settings.
*Administer intravenous calcium gluconate*
- **Calcium gluconate** is primarily used to stabilize the cardiac membrane in cases of **severe hyperkalemia**, which is not indicated by the current clinical picture.
- There is no mention of ECG changes or lab results to suggest hyperkalemia.
*Transfuse the patient with 1 unit of packed red blood cells*
- There is no clinical evidence of **acute blood loss** or **severe anemia** presenting with hypovolemic shock.
- Transfusion is an intervention for significant blood loss or severe anemia, not for intradialytic hypotension caused by fluid shifts.
*Start the patient on an epinephrine drip*
- **Vasopressors** like epinephrine are typically reserved for **refractory hypotension** after more conservative measures have failed, or in cases of **septic shock** or **anaphylaxis**.
- Initiating a powerful vasopressor as a first step without addressing the potential underlying cause related to dialysis is inappropriate.
Question 454: A 14-year-old boy who has been otherwise healthy presents to his doctor complaining of feeling easily winded and light-headed at basketball practice. He has never felt this way before and is frustrated because he is good enough to make varsity this year. He denies smoking, alcohol, or recreational drug use. His mother is very worried because her oldest son and brother had both died suddenly while playing sports despite being otherwise healthy. The transthoracic echocardiogram confirms the suspected diagnosis, which demonstrates a preserved ejection fraction and systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve. The patient is advised that he will need to stay hydrated and avoid intense exercise, and he will likely need an ICD due to his family history. Which of the following physical exam findings is consistent with this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
A. Tricuspid regurgitation
B. Systolic ejection murmur that radiates to the carotids
C. S3 heart sound
D. Mitral regurgitation
E. Systolic ejection murmur that worsens with the Valsalva maneuver (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Systolic ejection murmur that worsens with the Valsalva maneuver***
- The patient's presentation with **syncope/lightheadedness during exertion**, family history of **sudden cardiac death in athletes**, and echocardiogram findings of **systolic anterior motion (SAM) of the mitral valve** are classic for **hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)**.
- The murmur of HCM is typically a **systolic ejection murmur** that **worsens with maneuvers that decrease preload**, such as the **Valsalva maneuver** or standing, because this reduction in ventricular volume exacerbates the left ventricular outflow tract (LVOT) obstruction.
*Tricuspid regurgitation*
- This is typically associated with **right heart failure** or **pulmonary hypertension**, which are not indicated by the patient's symptoms or echo findings.
- While it can be heard as a **systolic murmur**, it usually accentuates with inspiration (Carvallo's sign) and does not worsen with the Valsalva maneuver in the context of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
*Systolic ejection murmur that radiates to the carotids*
- A systolic ejection murmur radiating to the carotids is characteristic of **aortic stenosis**, which involves a fixed obstruction of the aortic valve.
- While both HCM and aortic stenosis cause systolic murmurs, HCM's murmur has different auscultatory behavior with preload-altering maneuvers (worsening with Valsalva) compared to aortic stenosis (which often softens or is unchanged).
*S3 heart sound*
- An **S3 heart sound** is typically a low-pitched diastolic sound associated with **volume overload** and **heart failure with reduced ejection fraction**, indicating rapid ventricular filling into a dilated ventricle.
- The patient's echocardiogram shows a **preserved ejection fraction**, and his symptoms are related to outflow obstruction, not volume overload.
*Mitral regurgitation*
- While **mitral regurgitation (MR)** can occur in HCM due to systolic anterior motion (SAM) of the mitral valve causing malcoaptation, the primary murmur heard due to the **LVOT obstruction** is a **systolic ejection murmur**.
- The murmur of MR is typically a **holosystolic murmur** that radiates to the axilla and usually **softens with the Valsalva maneuver** as reduced preload can decrease the severity of regurgitation.
Question 455: A 75-year-old gentleman is brought to the ED with confusion that started earlier this morning. His family notes that he was complaining of feeling weak last night and also had a slight tremor at the time. He is afebrile and he has no known chronic medical conditions. Physical exam reveals a cooperative but confused gentleman. His mucous membranes are moist, he has no focal neurological deficits, and his skin turgor is within normal limits. His lab results are notable for:
Serum Na+: 123 mEq/L
Plasma osmolality: 268 mOsm/kg
Urine osmolality: 349 mOsm/kg
Urine Na+: 47 mEq/L
Which of the following malignancies is most likely to be responsible for this patient's presentation?
A. Gastric adenocarcinoma
B. Small cell lung cancer (Correct Answer)
C. Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma
D. Non-seminomatous germ cell tumor
E. Rib osteosarcoma
Explanation: ***Small cell lung cancer***
- This patient's laboratory values (hyponatremia, low plasma osmolality, and inappropriately high urine osmolality with elevated urine sodium) are classic for the **Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH)**.
- **Small cell lung cancer** is the most common malignancy associated with paraneoplastic SIADH due to its ability to ectopically produce ADH.
*Gastric adenocarcinoma*
- While gastric adenocarcinomas can cause paraneoplastic syndromes, SIADH is an **uncommon** paraneoplastic manifestation of this type of cancer.
- Other paraneoplastic syndromes, such as **Trousseau's syndrome** (migratory thrombophlebitis), are more classically associated with gastric adenocarcinoma.
*Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma*
- Esophageal cancer, including squamous cell carcinoma, is **rarely associated** with SIADH.
- Its paraneoplastic manifestations are less defined and not prominent for ADH production.
*Non-seminomatous germ cell tumor*
- Germ cell tumors, particularly non-seminomatous types, are more commonly associated with paraneoplastic syndromes involving **human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)** or **alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** production.
- While some germ cell tumors *can* release ADH, it is **not a primary cause** of SIADH compared to small cell lung cancer.
*Rib osteosarcoma*
- Osteosarcoma is a primary bone tumor and is **not typically associated** with paraneoplastic syndromes like SIADH.
- Its primary clinical manifestations are related to local bone destruction and metastasis.
Question 456: A 36-year-old man comes to the clinic for "bumps under his nipples." He is anxious that this could be breast cancer as his sister was just recently diagnosed. Past medical history is unremarkable except for an appendectomy at age 13. He currently works as a personal trainer and reports a diet that consists mainly of lean meat. The patient reports drinking 1-2 beers over the weekends. Physical examination demonstrates a muscular physique with mobile smooth masses below the areola bilaterally with no discharge. What other physical exam finding is most likely to be seen in this individual?
A. Palmar erythema
B. Testicular atrophy (Correct Answer)
C. Bitemporal hemianopsia
D. Fluid wave
E. Spider angiomas
Explanation: ***Testicular atrophy***
- The bilateral subareolar masses suggest **gynecomastia**, which can be caused by an **imbalance of estrogens and androgens**.
- **Androgen abuse** (e.g., anabolic steroids for muscle building as a personal trainer) can suppress endogenous testosterone production, leading to secondary hypogonadism and consequently, **testicular atrophy**.
*Palmar erythema*
- **Palmar erythema** is typically associated with **chronic liver disease**, which is not indicated by the patient's history or presenting symptoms.
- While liver disease can cause gynecomastia due to impaired estrogen metabolism, there are no other signs pointing to liver dysfunction.
*Bitemporal hemianopsia*
- **Bitemporal hemianopsia** is a visual field defect caused by compression of the **optic chiasm**, commonly by a **pituitary adenoma**.
- While some pituitary adenomas can secrete prolactin (leading to hypogonadism and sometimes gynecomastia), bitemporal hemianopsia is not the most likely finding associated with the probable cause of gynecomastia in this patient.
*Fluid wave*
- A **fluid wave** is a physical exam sign of **ascites**, which indicates significant fluid accumulation in the peritoneal cavity, usually due to **severe liver disease** or heart failure.
- There are no clinical signs or symptoms in the patient's presentation to suggest ascites or these underlying conditions.
*Spider angiomas*
- **Spider angiomas** (or spider nevi) are small, arteriolar lesions commonly found on the trunk, neck, and face. They are classically associated with **chronic liver disease** or conditions with high estrogen levels (like pregnancy).
- Similar to palmar erythema, there is no evidence of liver disease in this patient, making spider angiomas an unlikely finding.
Question 457: A 59-year-old man comes to the clinic for an annual well-exam. He was lost to follow-up for the past 3 years due to marital issues but reports that he feels fine. The patient reports, “I feel tired but it is probably because I am getting old. I do feel a little feverish today - I think I got a cold.” His past medical history is significant for hypertension that is controlled with hydrochlorothiazide. He reports fatigue, congestion, cough, and night sweats. He denies any sick contacts, recent travel, weight changes, chest pain, or dizziness. His temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 151/98 mmHg, pulse is 97/min, and respirations are 15/min. His laboratory values are shown below:
Hemoglobin: 13.5 g/dL
Hematocrit: 41%
Leukocyte count: 25,000/mm^3
Segmented neutrophils: 73%
Bands: 8%
Eosinophils: 1%
Basophils: 2%
Lymphocytes: 15%
Monocytes: 2%
Platelet count: 200,000/mm^3
What diagnostic test would be helpful in distinguishing this patient’s condition from pneumonia?
A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
B. Magnetic resonance imaging of the chest
C. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (Correct Answer)
D. Presence of smudge cells
E. C-reactive protein
Explanation: ***Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase***
- This patient's symptoms (fatigue, fever, night sweats, **elevated leukocyte count** with a left shift) suggest a **myeloproliferative disorder** like **Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)**, which can mimic infection.
- A **low Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase (LAP) score** is characteristic of CML, while an **elevated LAP score** is seen in bacterial infections (like pneumonia) and leukemoid reactions.
*Erythrocyte sedimentation rate*
- **ESR** is a general marker of **inflammation** and can be elevated in both pneumonia and various hematologic malignancies.
- It does not specifically differentiate between inflammatory processes due to infection versus a myeloproliferative disorder.
*Magnetic resonance imaging of the chest*
- While MRI can detect pulmonary infiltrates suggestive of pneumonia, it is **not typically the first-line imaging** for pneumonia and would not specifically differentiate it from a hematologic malignancy.
- **Chest X-ray or CT scan** would be more appropriate for initial pulmonary evaluation, but neither directly helps distinguish between infection and leukemia without other clinical data.
*Presence of smudge cells*
- **Smudge cells** (fragile lymphocytes) are characteristic of **Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)**.
- This patient's **leukocyte differential** shows a predominance of neutrophils and bands, not lymphocytes, making CLL less likely.
*C-reactive protein*
- **CRP** is another **acute phase reactant** that is elevated in response to inflammation, including infections like pneumonia.
- Similar to ESR, a high CRP level would not specifically distinguish between an infectious process and a myeloproliferative disorder.
Question 458: A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with joint pain and swelling of her hands. She reports that the pain lasts for about an hour in the morning and improves as her joints 'loosen up'. This condition has been bothering her for about 2 years but has recently been impacting her daily routine. She has not seen a doctor in years. Past medical history is significant for hypertension and she takes hydrochlorothiazide daily. Her grandmother and aunt both had rheumatoid arthritis. She is a current smoker and has smoked a half of a pack of cigarettes a day for the last 20 years. The temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), the blood pressure is 125/85 mm Hg, the respiratory rate is 17/min, and the heart rate is 98/min. Physical examination reveals tender swollen joints in her hands and wrists. Laboratory work is presented below:
Hemoglobin 10.7 g/dL
Hematocrit 37.5%
Leukocyte count 14,000/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 81.4 μm3
Platelet count 200,000/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 45 mm/h
Anti-citrullinated protein antibody 55 (normal reference values: < 20)
CT findings reveal osteopenia and erosions in the metacarpophalangeal joints. The patient is started on methotrexate. Which of the following is likely to be found in the synovial fluid analysis?
A. Ragocytes (Correct Answer)
B. Calcium phosphate crystals
C. High lymphocyte count
D. Calcium pyrophosphate
E. Monosodium urate crystals
Explanation: ***Ragocytes***
- **Ragocytes** are polymorphonuclear leukocytes (neutrophils) that have phagocytosed immune complexes, appearing as cells with cytoplasmic inclusions.
- Their presence in synovial fluid is highly suggestive of **rheumatoid arthritis**, especially in severe cases, indicating chronic inflammation and immune complex formation.
*Calcium phosphate crystals*
- **Calcium phosphate crystals** are rare causes of inflammatory arthritis and are typically associated with **calcific periarthritis** or destructive arthropathies.
- They are not characteristic findings in **rheumatoid arthritis**, which involves immune-mediated inflammation rather than direct crystal deposition.
*High lymphocyte count*
- While lymphocytes are present in inflamed synovial fluid, a **predominantly high lymphocyte count** is more typical of viral arthritis or early-stage inflammatory conditions.
- In established **rheumatoid arthritis**, the synovial fluid is primarily characterized by a high number of **neutrophils**, indicating active inflammation.
*Calcium pyrophosphate*
- **Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate (CPPD) crystals** are responsible for **pseudogout**, leading to acute inflammatory arthritis.
- These crystals are *rhomboid-shaped* and positively birefringent under polarized light, clinical features distinct from those presented in this case.
*Monosodium urate crystals*
- **Monosodium urate (MSU) crystals** are the hallmark of **gout**, causing sudden, severe attacks of joint pain, redness, and swelling.
- These crystals are *needle-shaped* and negatively birefringent, making them easily distinguishable from other crystal types and not associated with rheumatoid arthritis.
Question 459: A 67-year-old man with a history of chronic alcoholism presents to the emergency department after a suicide attempt. The patient was found in his apartment by his grandson with wrist lacerations. He was rushed to the emergency department and was resuscitated en route. The patient has a past medical history of ischemic heart disease and depression. His pulse is barely palpable and he is not responding to questions coherently. His temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 107/48 mmHg, pulse is 160/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. After fluid resuscitation and wound care, his blood pressure improves to 127/55 mmHg. On physical exam, the patient complains of numbness surrounding his mouth and pain in the location of the lacerations of his wrists. Which of the following best describes the laboratory findings in this patient?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Increased free iron
C. No lab abnormalities
D. Hypomagnesemia (Correct Answer)
E. Hypocalcemia
Explanation: ***Hypomagnesemia***
- **Chronic alcoholism** is a significant risk factor for hypomagnesemia due to decreased dietary intake, increased renal excretion, and gastrointestinal losses.
- Clinical signs such as **numbness around the mouth** (circumoral paresthesia), **tachycardia**, and **agitation/confusion** can be manifestations of severe hypomagnesemia, which can also predispose to arrhythmias.
*Hyperkalemia*
- While electrolyte imbalances are common in alcoholism, **hyperkalemia** is less typical in this acute presentation unless associated with other complications like **renal failure** or certain medications.
- The patient's symptoms (numbness, tachycardia) are not classic for hyperkalemia; hyperkalemia often presents with **muscle weakness** or **cardiac arrhythmias** (peaked T waves, widened QRS).
*Increased free iron*
- **Increased free iron** is typically associated with conditions like **hemochromatosis** or acute iron poisoning, neither of which is suggested by the patient's history or symptoms.
- Chronic alcoholism can lead to iron overload in some cases, but this is usually chronic and does not manifest acutely with these neurological or cardiac symptoms.
*No lab abnormalities*
- Given the patient's history of **chronic alcoholism**, presentation with **tachycardia**, altered mental status, and circumoral paresthesia, it is highly unlikely that there would be no laboratory abnormalities.
- Alcoholism frequently leads to significant **electrolyte disturbances** and nutritional deficiencies, making "no lab abnormalities" an improbable finding.
*Hypocalcemia*
- While **hypocalcemia** can cause circumoral paresthesia, it is often secondary to **hypomagnesemia** in alcoholic patients.
- **Hypocalcemia** also typically presents with stronger signs of neuromuscular irritability like **tetany**, **Chvostek's sign**, or **Trousseau's sign**, which are not explicitly mentioned.
Question 460: A 33-year-old man comes to the physician because of right scrotal swelling for the past 2 weeks. He has had mild lower abdominal discomfort for the past 3 weeks. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. He appears healthy. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows gynecomastia. There is no inguinal lymphadenopathy. There is a firm nontender nodule over the right testicle. When a light is held behind the scrotum, it does not shine through. When the patient is asked to cough, the nodule does not cause a bulge. The abdomen is soft and nontender. The liver is palpated 2 cm below the right costal margin. Digital rectal examination is unremarkable. Serum alpha-fetoprotein, LDH, and hCG levels are markedly elevated. An x-ray of the chest shows no abnormalities. Ultrasound of the testis shows a cystic 3-cm mass with variable echogenicity. A CT of the abdomen shows multiple hypoattenuating lesions on the liver and retroperitoneal lymph nodes. A radical inguinal orchiectomy with retroperitoneal lymph node dissection is performed. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Radiation therapy
B. Cisplatin, etoposide, and bleomycin therapy (Correct Answer)
C. Active surveillance
D. Leucovorin, 5-fluorouracil and oxaliplatin therapy
E. Stem cell transplant
Explanation: ***Cisplatin, etoposide, and bleomycin therapy***
- The patient has **metastatic testicular cancer** (elevated tumor markers, liver lesions, retroperitoneal lymph nodes) diagnosed by orchiectomy, making **multi-agent chemotherapy** the most appropriate next step.
- The **BEP regimen (Bleomycin, Etoposide, Cisplatin)** is the standard first-line treatment for metastatic germ cell tumors, offering high cure rates.
*Radiation therapy*
- While radiation therapy can be used in some testicular cancer cases, it's typically reserved for **localized disease** or specific **lymph node involvement** after initial chemotherapy.
- It is not the primary treatment for widespread metastatic disease involving multiple organs like the liver and retroperitoneal lymph nodes.
*Active surveillance*
- **Active surveillance** is typically reserved for patients with **Stage I non-seminomatous germ cell tumors (NSGCT)** after orchiectomy, especially if they have favorable prognostic factors.
- This patient has widespread metastatic disease, evidenced by elevated tumor markers, liver, and retroperitoneal lymph node involvement, making active surveillance an unsuitable and dangerous option.
*Leucovorin, 5-fluorouracil and oxaliplatin therapy*
- This regimen (FOLFOX) is a standard chemotherapy combination often used for **colorectal cancer** and some other gastrointestinal malignancies.
- It is not the appropriate first-line treatment for metastatic testicular germ cell tumors.
*Stem cell transplant*
- **High-dose chemotherapy with stem cell rescue** is typically considered for **relapsed or refractory germ cell tumors** after initial standard chemotherapy has failed.
- It is not the initial treatment for newly diagnosed metastatic testicular cancer.