A 65-year-old man comes to the physician because of increasing swelling of the legs and face over the past 2 months. He has a history of diastolic heart dysfunction. The liver and spleen are palpable 4 cm below the costal margin. On physical examination, both lower limbs show significant pitting edema extending above the knees and to the pelvic area. Laboratory studies show:
Serum
Cholesterol 350 mg/dL (<200 mg/dL)
Triglycerides 290 mg/dL (35–160 mg/dL)
Calcium 8 mg/dL
Albumin 2.8 g/dL
Urea nitrogen 54 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.5 mg/dL
Urine
Blood 3+
Protein 4+
RBC 15–17/hpf
WBC 1–2/hpf
RBC casts Many
Echocardiography shows concentrically thickened ventricles with diastolic dysfunction. Skeletal survey shows no osteolytic lesions. Which of the following best explains these findings?
Q422
A 45-year-old woman from Mexico comes to your office due to recent shortness of breath. The patient states that she has recently started having trouble breathing when she is working out, but this resolves when she rests for a while. She states that she has no history of diabetes, heart disease, or hypertension, but does state that she had several colds when she was growing up that weren't treated with antibiotics. Furthermore, she has arthritis in one of her knees and both wrists. On exam, her vitals are normal, but there is a mid-diastolic rumble present at the apex. What is the best definitive treatment for this patient?
Q423
A 76-year-old woman presents to the physician for a follow-up examination. She had a hemoglobin level of 10.5 g/dL last month. She complains of mild dyspnea with exercise. She reports exercising daily for the past 30 years. She is relatively healthy without any significant past medical history. She occasionally takes ibuprofen for knee pain. She denies a prior history of alcohol or tobacco use. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), the pulse is 65/min, the respiratory rate is 13/min, and the blood pressure is 115/65 mm Hg. The examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Laboratory test
Hemoglobin 10.5 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 75 μm3
Leukocyte count 6500/mm3 with a normal differential
Platelet 400,000/mm3
Serum
Iron 35
Total iron-binding capacity 450 μg/dL
Ferritin 8
Ca+ 9.0 mg/dL
Albumin 3.9 g/dL
Urea nitrogen 10 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
Serum protein electrophoresis and immunofixation show a monoclonal protein of 20 g/L (non-IgM). Marrow plasmacytosis is 5%. A skeletal survey shows no abnormalities. In addition to the workup of iron deficiency anemia, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q424
A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after fainting at a baseball game. The patient was using the bathroom and upon standing up, felt a warm and tingling sensation followed by an episode of syncope that lasted for about 5 seconds. While the patient was unconscious, bystanders observed twitching and contractile motions of her upper extremities. When the patient awoke, she recalled falling and the events leading up to her fainting and was not confused. The patient has no other medical diagnoses. Her temperature is 97.7°F (36.5°C), blood pressure is 124/84 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a healthy young woman. Cranial nerves II-XII are grossly intact, and cerebellar function and gait are unremarkable. She has normal strength of her upper and lower extremities. An ECG is notable for normal sinus rhythm with a normal axis and normal voltages. Which of the following is the best next step in management for this patient?
Q425
A 34-year-old man presents to the neurology clinic for an appointment after having been referred by his family physician. Four months earlier, he presented with worsening upper limb weakness. His primary complaint at that time was that he was unable to play badminton because of increasing difficulty in moving his shoulders and arms. The weakness later progressed, and he now has spontaneous twitching of his leg and thigh muscles throughout the day. He also feels increasingly fatigued. On physical examination, there is significant atrophy of his arm and thigh muscles. Cranial nerves testing is unremarkable. The pupillary light and accommodation reflexes are both normal. Swallowing, speech, and eye movements are all normal. His cousin had similar symptoms at the age of 19 years old. Which of the following is most likely to also be seen in this patient?
Q426
A 43-year-old gentleman with a history of intravenous drug use presents with general fatigue and weakness accompanied by swelling in his ankles and lower legs. Further questions elicit that he has had many infections due to his drug use but has not previously had any cardiac or pulmonary issues. Upon physical examination you notice a holosystolic blowing murmur radiating to the right sternal border, which the patient denies being told about previously. Based on this presentation, what is the most likely cause of the murmur?
Q427
A 72-year-old man presents to his physician’s office with complaints of a cough and painful breathing for the last 2 months. He says that he has also observed a 5 kg (11 lb) weight loss during the past month. He is relatively healthy but the sudden change in his health worries him. Another problem that he has been facing is the swelling of his face and arms at unusual times of the day. He says that the swelling is more prominent when he is supine. He has also lately been experiencing difficulty with his vision. He consumes alcohol occasionally and quit smoking last year following a 25-year history of smoking. On examination, the patient is noted to have distended veins in the chest and arms. His jugular veins are distended. Physical examination shows ptosis of the right eye and miosis of the right pupil. His lungs are clear to auscultation. He is sent for an X-ray for further evaluation of his condition. Which of the following is the most likely site for the detection of the nodule on CT scan?
Q428
A 62-year-old woman is brought to the physician because of 6 months of progressive weakness in her arms and legs. During this time, she has also had difficulty swallowing and holding her head up. Examination shows pooling of oral secretions. Muscle strength and tone are decreased in the upper extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are 1+ in the right upper and lower extremities, 3+ in the left upper extremity, and 4+ in the left lower extremity. Sensation to light touch, pinprick, and vibration are intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q429
A 48-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of 24-hour blood pressure monitoring results. Over the last 3 months, she has had intermittent nausea, decreased appetite, and increasing weakness and fatigue during the day. She has been treated twice for kidney stones within the past year. Her current medications include lisinopril, amlodipine, and furosemide. She is 178 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 97 kg (214 lb); BMI is 31 kg/m2. Her blood pressure is 152/98 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show:
Na+ 141 mEq/L
Cl− 101 mEq/L
K+ 4.5 mEq/L
HCO3− 24 mEq/L
Calcium 12.9 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Twenty-four-hour blood pressure monitoring indicates elevated nocturnal blood pressure. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q430
A 67-year-old woman comes to the physician for chest tightness, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness. She has experienced these symptoms during the past 2 weeks while climbing stairs but feels better when she sits down. She had a cold 2 weeks ago but has otherwise been well. She appears short of breath. Her respirations are 21/min and blood pressure is 131/85 mmHg. On cardiovascular examination, a systolic ejection murmur is heard best in the third right intercostal space. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Which of the following mechanisms is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 421: A 65-year-old man comes to the physician because of increasing swelling of the legs and face over the past 2 months. He has a history of diastolic heart dysfunction. The liver and spleen are palpable 4 cm below the costal margin. On physical examination, both lower limbs show significant pitting edema extending above the knees and to the pelvic area. Laboratory studies show:
Serum
Cholesterol 350 mg/dL (<200 mg/dL)
Triglycerides 290 mg/dL (35–160 mg/dL)
Calcium 8 mg/dL
Albumin 2.8 g/dL
Urea nitrogen 54 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.5 mg/dL
Urine
Blood 3+
Protein 4+
RBC 15–17/hpf
WBC 1–2/hpf
RBC casts Many
Echocardiography shows concentrically thickened ventricles with diastolic dysfunction. Skeletal survey shows no osteolytic lesions. Which of the following best explains these findings?
A. Smoldering multiple myeloma
B. Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
C. Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia
D. AL amyloidosis (Correct Answer)
E. Symptomatic multiple myeloma
Explanation: ***AL amyloidosis***
- The combination of **nephrotic syndrome** (edema, proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia) with **renal failure** (elevated BUN and creatinine, RBC casts) and **restrictive cardiomyopathy** (diastolic dysfunction, concentrically thickened ventricles) is highly suggestive of **AL (light chain) amyloidosis**.
- **Hepatomegaly** (palpable liver) further supports the diagnosis of systemic amyloidosis due to amyloid deposition in the liver.
*Smoldering multiple myeloma*
- Characterized by high levels of **monoclonal protein** and **plasma cells in the bone marrow** but **without CRAB features** (HyperCalcemia, Renal failure, Anemia, Bone lesions).
- This patient presents with **renal failure** and **cardiac involvement**, which are symptomatic and thus inconsistent with smoldering multiple myeloma.
*Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance*
- Defined by the presence of a **monoclonal protein** in the serum or urine but **without evidence of multiple myeloma, amyloidosis, or related disorders**.
- This patient exhibits significant **organ damage** indicative of systemic disease, ruling out MGUS.
*Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia*
- A low-grade lymphoma characterized by **IgM monoclonal gammopathy** and **lymphoplasmacytic infiltration of the bone marrow**.
- It often causes **hyperviscosity syndrome**, lymphadenopathy, and peripheral neuropathy, which are not the primary features in this case.
*Symptomatic multiple myeloma*
- Requires evidence of **CRAB features** (HyperCalcemia, Renal failure, Anemia, Bone lesions) in addition to monoclonal protein and bone marrow plasma cells.
- While **renal failure** is present, the prominent **cardiac involvement** (restrictive cardiomyopathy) and the specific nature of the renal disease (nephrotic range proteinuria, RBC casts suggesting glomerular involvement) are more characteristic of AL amyloidosis rather than typical multiple myeloma kidney.
Question 422: A 45-year-old woman from Mexico comes to your office due to recent shortness of breath. The patient states that she has recently started having trouble breathing when she is working out, but this resolves when she rests for a while. She states that she has no history of diabetes, heart disease, or hypertension, but does state that she had several colds when she was growing up that weren't treated with antibiotics. Furthermore, she has arthritis in one of her knees and both wrists. On exam, her vitals are normal, but there is a mid-diastolic rumble present at the apex. What is the best definitive treatment for this patient?
A. Diuretics
B. Open valve commissurotomy
C. Valve replacement
D. Beta-blockers
E. Percutaneous valve commissurotomy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Percutaneous valve commissurotomy***
- The patient's symptoms, history of untreated childhood infections (suggesting **rheumatic fever**), and the finding of a **mid-diastolic rumble at the apex** are highly indicative of **mitral stenosis**.
- **Percutaneous mitral commissurotomy (PMC)** is generally the preferred definitive treatment for isolated, symptomatic mitral stenosis when valve anatomy is favorable (non-calcified, pliable leaflets) as it is less invasive than surgical options.
*Diuretics*
- Diuretics help manage symptoms of **fluid overload** and pulmonary congestion associated with mitral stenosis by reducing preload.
- However, they do not address the underlying **structural valve defect** and are therefore not a definitive treatment.
*Open valve commissurotomy*
- This is a surgical option to widen the mitral valve opening and is considered when PMC is not feasible or fails, or when other cardiac issues require concomitant surgery.
- It is more invasive than PMC and thus not the first-line definitive treatment unless PMC cannot be performed.
*Valve replacement*
- **Mitral valve replacement** is generally reserved for severe cases of mitral stenosis with significant valve calcification, severe regurgitation, or when repairs (PMC or surgical commissurotomy) are not possible or have failed.
- It is a more extensive procedure than commissurotomy and is typically not the initial definitive treatment for primary mitral stenosis.
*Beta-blockers*
- Beta-blockers can help slow the heart rate, prolonging diastolic filling time and potentially improving symptoms in patients with mitral stenosis.
- However, they also do not address the **anatomical narrowing** of the mitral valve and are considered symptomatic management, not a definitive cure.
Question 423: A 76-year-old woman presents to the physician for a follow-up examination. She had a hemoglobin level of 10.5 g/dL last month. She complains of mild dyspnea with exercise. She reports exercising daily for the past 30 years. She is relatively healthy without any significant past medical history. She occasionally takes ibuprofen for knee pain. She denies a prior history of alcohol or tobacco use. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), the pulse is 65/min, the respiratory rate is 13/min, and the blood pressure is 115/65 mm Hg. The examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Laboratory test
Hemoglobin 10.5 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 75 μm3
Leukocyte count 6500/mm3 with a normal differential
Platelet 400,000/mm3
Serum
Iron 35
Total iron-binding capacity 450 μg/dL
Ferritin 8
Ca+ 9.0 mg/dL
Albumin 3.9 g/dL
Urea nitrogen 10 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
Serum protein electrophoresis and immunofixation show a monoclonal protein of 20 g/L (non-IgM). Marrow plasmacytosis is 5%. A skeletal survey shows no abnormalities. In addition to the workup of iron deficiency anemia, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Referral for radiation therapy
B. Check beta-2 microglobulin
C. No further steps are required at this time
D. Annual follow-up with laboratory tests (Correct Answer)
E. Referral for induction therapy
Explanation: ***Annual follow-up with laboratory tests***
- This patient's presentation, with a **monoclonal protein (non-IgM) of 20 g/L** and **5% marrow plasmacytosis**, along with the absence of bone lesions and hypercalcemia, aligns with the diagnostic criteria for **Monoclonal Gammopathy of Undetermined Significance (MGUS)**.
- MGUS is a **pre-malignant condition** with a low annual risk of progression to multiple myeloma or related disorders, justifying annual monitoring rather than immediate aggressive intervention.
*Referral for radiation therapy*
- **Radiation therapy** is typically reserved for patients with localized complications of multiple myeloma, such as **painful bone lesions** or **spinal cord compression**, which are absent in this case.
- This patient's skeletal survey shows **no abnormalities**, ruling out the need for radiation therapy at this stage.
*Check beta-2 microglobulin*
- **Beta-2 microglobulin** is a marker used for staging **multiple myeloma**, indicating tumor burden and prognosis.
- While it's a helpful marker in confirmed myeloma, it is **not diagnostic for MGUS** and does not change the management of an asymptomatic patient with MGUS.
*No further steps are required at this time*
- While the patient does not need immediate aggressive treatment, **regular monitoring** is crucial due to the small but definite risk of progression of MGUS to multiple myeloma or related disorders.
- Doing nothing would be inappropriate, as missing the **progression of MGUS** could delay essential treatment.
*Referral for induction therapy*
- **Induction therapy** (e.g., chemotherapy, immunomodulatory drugs, proteasome inhibitors) is the primary treatment for **symptomatic multiple myeloma**.
- Since this patient has **MGUS** (asymptomatic monoclonal gammopathy without end-organ damage), induction therapy is **not indicated** and could expose her to unnecessary toxicity.
Question 424: A 23-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after fainting at a baseball game. The patient was using the bathroom and upon standing up, felt a warm and tingling sensation followed by an episode of syncope that lasted for about 5 seconds. While the patient was unconscious, bystanders observed twitching and contractile motions of her upper extremities. When the patient awoke, she recalled falling and the events leading up to her fainting and was not confused. The patient has no other medical diagnoses. Her temperature is 97.7°F (36.5°C), blood pressure is 124/84 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 12/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a healthy young woman. Cranial nerves II-XII are grossly intact, and cerebellar function and gait are unremarkable. She has normal strength of her upper and lower extremities. An ECG is notable for normal sinus rhythm with a normal axis and normal voltages. Which of the following is the best next step in management for this patient?
A. Serum toxicology
B. EEG
C. Discharge the patient with reassurance (Correct Answer)
D. Echocardiography
E. CT head
Explanation: ***Discharge the patient with reassurance***
- The patient's presentation is highly consistent with **vasovagal syncope**, characterized by a **prodrome** (warmth, tingling), short duration of unconsciousness, and rapid, full recovery without **postictal confusion**.
- Given her young age, lack of medical history, normal vital signs, normal physical exam, and normal ECG, further extensive workup is unlikely to yield significant findings.
*Serum toxicology*
- While drug use can cause syncope, the clear **vasovagal prodrome** and complete recovery make toxicology screening less immediately necessary.
- There are no other signs or symptoms (e.g., altered mental status, track marks) to suggest drug intoxication.
*EEG*
- An EEG is used to evaluate for seizure activity, but the patient's symptoms are more consistent with syncope than a seizure.
- The **brief twitching** can occur during syncope due to cerebral hypoxia, and the **absence of postictal confusion** argues against a generalized seizure.
*Echocardiography*
- This test evaluates cardiac structure and function. While cardiac issues can cause syncope, her **normal ECG** and classic vasovagal presentation make a primary cardiac cause less likely.
- There are no symptoms such as chest pain, dyspnea on exertion, or family history of sudden cardiac death to suggest a cardiac pathology.
*CT head*
- A CT head is typically used to evaluate for acute neurological events like stroke or hemorrhage, which are not suggested by this patient's presentation.
- The patient's rapid and complete recovery, along with a normal neurological exam, makes an acute intracranial pathology highly improbable.
Question 425: A 34-year-old man presents to the neurology clinic for an appointment after having been referred by his family physician. Four months earlier, he presented with worsening upper limb weakness. His primary complaint at that time was that he was unable to play badminton because of increasing difficulty in moving his shoulders and arms. The weakness later progressed, and he now has spontaneous twitching of his leg and thigh muscles throughout the day. He also feels increasingly fatigued. On physical examination, there is significant atrophy of his arm and thigh muscles. Cranial nerves testing is unremarkable. The pupillary light and accommodation reflexes are both normal. Swallowing, speech, and eye movements are all normal. His cousin had similar symptoms at the age of 19 years old. Which of the following is most likely to also be seen in this patient?
A. Spastic paralysis (Correct Answer)
B. Positive Romberg sign
C. Bowel incontinence
D. Cape-like sensory loss
E. Paresthesia
Explanation: ***Spastic paralysis***
- The combination of **progressive muscle weakness**, **atrophy**, and **spontaneous muscle twitching (fasciculations)**, with normal cranial nerves except for muscle weakness, points towards a diagnosis of **Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)**.
- In ALS, there is degeneration of both **upper motor neurons** (leading to spasticity and hyperreflexia) and **lower motor neurons** (leading to weakness, atrophy, and fasciculations), so **spastic paralysis** (due to upper motor neuron involvement) would be expected.
*Positive Romberg sign*
- A **positive Romberg sign** indicates dysfunction in **proprioception** (dorsal columns) or **cerebellar function**, neither of which is characteristic of ALS in its early to mid-stages.
- ALS primarily affects motor neurons, and sensory pathways are typically spared, meaning proprioceptive deficits are not a common feature.
*Bowel incontinence*
- **Bowel and bladder control** are generally preserved in ALS, as the **sphincter muscles** are often spared until very late stages, distinguishing it from conditions like spinal cord injury.
- Incontinence would suggest damage to the **autonomic nervous system** or specific spinal cord segments not primarily affected in ALS.
*Cape-like sensory loss*
- **Cape-like sensory loss** (loss of pain and temperature sensation in a shawl-like distribution over the shoulders and upper trunk) is characteristic of **syringomyelia**, a condition involving a fluid-filled cyst within the spinal cord.
- This symptom pattern is due to damage to the **spinothalamic tracts** as they cross in the spinal cord, and it is not typically seen in ALS, which spares sensory pathways.
*Paresthesia*
- **Paresthesias** (e.g., tingling, numbness) indicate **sensory nerve involvement** or **dorsal column dysfunction**.
- ALS is predominantly a **motor neuron disease**, and sensory symptoms like paresthesia are generally absent or minor, serving as a key differentiating factor from sensory neuropathies.
Question 426: A 43-year-old gentleman with a history of intravenous drug use presents with general fatigue and weakness accompanied by swelling in his ankles and lower legs. Further questions elicit that he has had many infections due to his drug use but has not previously had any cardiac or pulmonary issues. Upon physical examination you notice a holosystolic blowing murmur radiating to the right sternal border, which the patient denies being told about previously. Based on this presentation, what is the most likely cause of the murmur?
A. Tricuspid regurgitation (Correct Answer)
B. Tricuspid stenosis
C. Ventricular septal defect
D. Mitral regurgitation
E. Mitral stenosis
Explanation: ***Tricuspid regurgitation***
- The patient's history of **intravenous drug use** significantly increases the risk of **infective endocarditis** affecting the tricuspid valve due to bacteria introduced through injection.
- A **holosystolic blowing murmur radiating to the right sternal border** is a classic finding for tricuspid regurgitation, especially in the context of right-sided heart involvement often seen in IV drug users.
*Tricuspid stenosis*
- This condition typically presents with a **diastolic murmur** and is less common in the setting of endocarditis from intravenous drug use.
- While it can cause right heart failure symptoms, the murmur quality (**diastolic rumbling**) is inconsistent with the described holosystolic murmur.
*Ventricular septal defect*
- A VSD typically presents with a **holosystolic murmur** best heard at the **left sternal border**, which can be harsh rather than blowing.
- While it is a holosystolic murmur, it is usually congenital and not typically acquired in adulthood due to IV drug use or infection in the same manner as tricuspid regurgitation.
*Mitral regurgitation*
- Would present with a **holosystolic murmur** that radiates to the **axilla** or left sternal border, not the right sternal border.
- Though possible in endocarditis, it is less common than tricuspid involvement in IV drug users and the radiation pattern is incorrect.
*Mitral stenosis*
- This condition is characterized by a **diastolic rumble** with an opening snap, which is inconsistent with a holosystolic blowing murmur.
- Symptoms would include dyspnea and pulmonary hypertension, but the murmur description does not fit.
Question 427: A 72-year-old man presents to his physician’s office with complaints of a cough and painful breathing for the last 2 months. He says that he has also observed a 5 kg (11 lb) weight loss during the past month. He is relatively healthy but the sudden change in his health worries him. Another problem that he has been facing is the swelling of his face and arms at unusual times of the day. He says that the swelling is more prominent when he is supine. He has also lately been experiencing difficulty with his vision. He consumes alcohol occasionally and quit smoking last year following a 25-year history of smoking. On examination, the patient is noted to have distended veins in the chest and arms. His jugular veins are distended. Physical examination shows ptosis of the right eye and miosis of the right pupil. His lungs are clear to auscultation. He is sent for an X-ray for further evaluation of his condition. Which of the following is the most likely site for the detection of the nodule on CT scan?
A. Right upper lobe (Correct Answer)
B. Brain stem metastasis
C. Left upper lobe
D. Central hilar region
E. Peripheral bronchial region
Explanation: ***Right upper lobe***
- The patient's symptoms, including **Ptosis**, **Miosis**, and **Anhidrosis** of the right side of the face, are indicative of **Horner's syndrome**.
- **Horner's syndrome** in a patient with a smoking history, cough, weight loss, and edema of the face and arms (suggesting **SVC syndrome**) points strongly to a **Pancoast tumor** (superior sulcus tumor).
- The tumor is located in the **right upper lobe** specifically because the **Horner's syndrome is right-sided** (right ptosis, right miosis). Pancoast tumors cause **ipsilateral** Horner's syndrome by invading the sympathetic chain on the same side as the tumor.
*Brain stem metastasis*
- While a brain stem lesion could cause vision difficulties and neurological deficits, it does not explain the **SVC syndrome** (facial/arm swelling, distended veins) or the pulmonary symptoms like cough and weight loss.
- **Pancoast tumors** can cause vision changes due to **Horner's syndrome**, not necessarily brain metastasis.
*Left upper lobe*
- Although a tumor in the left upper lobe could cause similar symptoms to a right upper lobe tumor, the examination findings of **ptosis** and **miosis** on the **right side** localize the lesion to the **right apex**.
- **Horner's syndrome** develops on the **ipsilateral side** of the sympathetic chain disruption.
*Central hilar region*
- A tumor in the central hilar region would typically cause symptoms related to bronchial obstruction or compression of central structures, such as a persistent cough, hemoptysis, or SVC syndrome if it's large enough.
- However, it is less likely to directly cause **Horner's syndrome** with ptosis and miosis localized to one eye, which is a hallmark of an apical (Pancoast) tumor affecting the sympathetic chain.
*Peripheral bronchial region*
- A peripheral bronchial nodule would usually present with a cough, possibly hemoptysis, or be asymptomatic until it grows large enough to cause obstructive symptoms or pleural involvement.
- It is unlikely to cause both **SVC syndrome** and **Horner's syndrome** simultaneously, which are characteristic of an apical lung tumor.
Question 428: A 62-year-old woman is brought to the physician because of 6 months of progressive weakness in her arms and legs. During this time, she has also had difficulty swallowing and holding her head up. Examination shows pooling of oral secretions. Muscle strength and tone are decreased in the upper extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are 1+ in the right upper and lower extremities, 3+ in the left upper extremity, and 4+ in the left lower extremity. Sensation to light touch, pinprick, and vibration are intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Guillain-Barré syndrome
B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (Correct Answer)
C. Spinal muscular atrophy
D. Myasthenia gravis
E. Syringomyelia
Explanation: ***Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis***
- The patient presents with a combination of **upper motor neuron (UMN)** signs (hyperreflexia at 3+ and 4+, possibly stiffness contributing to difficulty holding head up) and **lower motor neuron (LMN)** signs (progressive weakness, decreased muscle tone, pooling of oral secretions due to bulbar involvement). This coexistence is pathognomonic for **ALS**.
- The **progressive nature** of the weakness in arms and legs, encompassing both UMN and LMN features without sensory deficits, is characteristic of ALS.
*Guillain-Barré syndrome*
- Typically presents with **acute or subacute onset (days to weeks)** of ascending weakness, often post-infectious, and characteristically causes **areflexia** or severely diminished deep tendon reflexes.
- This patient's symptoms have been progressive over **6 months**, and she exhibits significantly **increased reflexes** in some limbs, which is inconsistent with GBS.
*Spinal muscular atrophy*
- This is a group of **autosomal recessive disorders** that primarily affect **lower motor neurons**, leading to progressive muscle weakness and atrophy, usually presenting in infancy or childhood.
- The patient's age of presentation (62 years old) and the presence of **upper motor neuron signs** (hyperreflexia) rule out SMA.
*Myasthenia gravis*
- Presents with **fluctuating muscle weakness** that worsens with activity and improves with rest, often affecting ocular, bulbar, and limb muscles. It does not typically cause hyperreflexia or sustained upper motor neuron signs.
- While the patient has difficulty swallowing and pooling oral secretions, the **progressive, sustained weakness** and varied deep tendon reflexes (hypo to hyper) are not typical of myasthenia gravis without specific triggers like exertion.
*Syringomyelia*
- Characterized by a **syrinx (cyst) within the spinal cord**, leading to sensory deficits (often **"cape-like" loss of pain and temperature sensation**) and weakness/atrophy due to LMN damage, usually affecting the upper extremities.
- This patient's **intact sensation** and the presence of widespread UMN signs (hyperreflexia in lower limb) make syringomyelia an unlikely diagnosis.
Question 429: A 48-year-old woman comes to the physician for the evaluation of 24-hour blood pressure monitoring results. Over the last 3 months, she has had intermittent nausea, decreased appetite, and increasing weakness and fatigue during the day. She has been treated twice for kidney stones within the past year. Her current medications include lisinopril, amlodipine, and furosemide. She is 178 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 97 kg (214 lb); BMI is 31 kg/m2. Her blood pressure is 152/98 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show:
Na+ 141 mEq/L
Cl− 101 mEq/L
K+ 4.5 mEq/L
HCO3− 24 mEq/L
Calcium 12.9 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Twenty-four-hour blood pressure monitoring indicates elevated nocturnal blood pressure. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Increased serum parathyroid hormone (Correct Answer)
B. Decreased nocturnal oxygen saturation
C. Decreased serum thyroid-stimulating hormone
D. Decreased renal blood flow
E. Increased serum aldosterone-to-renin ratio
Explanation: ***Increased serum parathyroid hormone***
- The patient presents with **hypercalcemia** (12.9 mg/dL), a history of recurrent **kidney stones**, and non-specific symptoms like nausea, fatigue, and weakness, which are classic signs of **primary hyperparathyroidism**.
- **Primary hyperparathyroidism** is characterized by autonomous overproduction of parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to increased serum calcium and often bone and kidney complications.
*Decreased nocturnal oxygen saturation*
- While **obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)** is common in obese patients and can cause **nocturnal hypertension**, there is no direct evidence (e.g., snoring history, daytime sleepiness) in this case to suggest OSA is the primary issue.
- The patient's prominent symptoms (hypercalcemia, kidney stones) point more strongly towards an endocrine disorder than sleep-disordered breathing.
*Decreased serum thyroid-stimulating hormone*
- **Hyperthyroidism** typically presents with symptoms like weight loss, heat intolerance, tremor, and palpitations, which are not described. Elevated calcium is not a primary feature of hyperthyroidism.
- While hyperthyroidism can affect blood pressure, it does not explain the recurrent kidney stones or the profound hypercalcemia seen here.
*Decreased renal blood flow*
- **Renal artery stenosis** can cause **hypertension** and might eventually lead to elevated creatinine, but it does not directly explain the hypercalcemia or recurrent kidney stones.
- The patient's creatinine (1.0 mg/dL) is normal, making significant renal impairment due to reduced renal blood flow less likely at this stage.
*Increased serum aldosterone-to-renin ratio*
- An **increased aldosterone-to-renin ratio** suggests **primary aldosteronism**, which presents with **hypertension** and often **hypokalemia**, neither of which are present here (K+ is normal at 4.5 mEq/L).
- Primary aldosteronism does not cause hypercalcemia or kidney stones.
Question 430: A 67-year-old woman comes to the physician for chest tightness, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness. She has experienced these symptoms during the past 2 weeks while climbing stairs but feels better when she sits down. She had a cold 2 weeks ago but has otherwise been well. She appears short of breath. Her respirations are 21/min and blood pressure is 131/85 mmHg. On cardiovascular examination, a systolic ejection murmur is heard best in the third right intercostal space. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Which of the following mechanisms is the most likely cause of this patient's current condition?
A. Narrowing of the coronary arterial lumen
B. Inflammatory constriction of the bronchioles
C. Cellular injury of the esophageal epithelium
D. Critical transmural hypoperfusion of the myocardium
E. Increased left ventricular oxygen demand (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Increased left ventricular oxygen demand***
- The patient's symptoms of chest tightness, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness exacerbated by exertion (climbing stairs) and relieved by rest are classic signs of **angina pectoris**.
- The **systolic ejection murmur** in the third right intercostal space suggests **aortic stenosis**, which increases the **afterload** on the left ventricle, leading to increased oxygen demand to maintain cardiac output, especially during exertion.
*Narrowing of the coronary arterial lumen*
- While narrowing of the coronary arterial lumen (coronary artery disease) can cause similar exertional symptoms, the presence of a **systolic ejection murmur** points more specifically to a valvular issue like **aortic stenosis** as the primary driver of symptoms.
- Though coronary artery disease could coexist, the murmur provides a more direct pathophysiological link to the described symptoms of high left ventricular stress.
*Inflammatory constriction of the bronchioles*
- This mechanism would typically present with wheezing and diffuse crackles on lung auscultation, not a **cardiac murmur**, and would likely involve more persistent respiratory distress rather than exertional and rapidly relievable symptoms.
- The patient's **clear lungs to auscultation** makes bronchoconstriction less likely.
*Cellular injury of the esophageal epithelium*
- **Esophageal pain** (e.g., from reflux or spasm) can sometimes mimic cardiac pain, but it is not typically associated with a **systolic ejection murmur** or relief with rest from a cardiac perspective.
- The symptoms of lightheadedness and exertional dyspnea are also not typical of esophageal pathology.
*Critical transmural hypoperfusion of the myocardium*
- This refers to severe ischemia, often seen in acute coronary syndromes, which might cause similar symptoms but typically presents as more severe and less easily relieved pain than classic stable angina.
- While potential with severe coronary artery disease, the specific murmur points to **aortic stenosis** being a major contributor, where hypoperfusion is secondary to increased demand rather than solely primary arterial occlusion.