A 14-year-old boy presents with his mother complaining of a swollen, red, painful left knee. His physician aspirates the joint and discovers frank blood. The patient denies a recent history of trauma to the knee. Upon further discussion, the mother describes that her son has had multiple swollen painful joints before, often without evidence of trauma. She also mentions a history of frequent nosebleeds and gum bleeding following visits to the dentist. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Q412
A 50-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of fever and productive cough with blood in the sputum for 1 day. She also reports a sharp pain under her ribs that is worsened on taking deep breaths. Over the past 2 years, she has had repeated episodes of sinusitis, for which she used over the counter medication. She has recently started a new job at a wire-mesh factory. Her temperature is 38.3°C (100.9 °F), pulse is 72/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Physical examination shows palpable nonblanching skin lesions over her hands and feet. Examination of the nasal cavity shows ulcerations of the nasopharyngeal mucosa and a small septal perforation. Pulmonary examination shows stridor on inspiration. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count 10,300/mm3
Platelet count 205,000/mm3
Serum
Urea nitrogen 24 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.4 mg/dL
Urine
Protein 2+
RBC 70/hpf
RBC casts numerous
WBC 1–2/hpf
A chest x-ray shows multiple cavitating, nodular lesions bilaterally. Which of the following additional findings is most likely to be present in this patient?
Q413
A 42-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of fatigue and increased urination. The patient reports that he has been drinking more than usual because he is constantly thirsty. He has avoided driving for the past 8 weeks because of intermittent episodes of blurred vision. He had elevated blood pressure at his previous visit but is otherwise healthy. Because of his busy work schedule, his diet consists primarily of fast food. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. He is 178 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 109 kg (240 lb); BMI is 34 kg/m2. His pulse is 75/min and his blood pressure is 148/95 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin A1c 6.8%
Serum
Glucose 180 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Total cholesterol 220 mg/dL
HDL cholesterol 50 mg/dL
Triglycerides 140 mg/dL
Urine
Blood negative
Glucose 2+
Protein 1+
Ketones negative
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q414
A 35-year-old patient with a history of diabetes presents to the ED with a myriad of systemic complaints. An arterial blood gas shows serum pH = 7.3, HCO3- = 13 mEq/L, PCO2 = 27 mmHg. Which of the following would you LEAST expect to observe in this patient?
Q415
A 74-year-old man presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath that started about 30 minutes ago. He is also experiencing chest pain on deep inspiration. He has several significant medical conditions including chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. He used to smoke about 3 packs of cigarettes every day until last year when he quit. He was in the emergency room 2 weeks ago for a hemorrhagic stroke which was promptly treated. He currently weighs 97.5 kg (215 lb). His respirations are 20/min, the blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, and the pulse is 105/min. On physical examination, Homan's sign is positive. An ECG and chest X-ray are performed. His current oxygen saturation is at 87% and D-dimer results are positive. He is wheeled in for a CT scan. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
Q416
A 64-year-old woman presents to the physician with fever and sore throat for 2 days. She was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis 15 years ago. She has had several flares necessitating admission to the hospital in recent years. She has developed deformity in her joints despite aggressive therapy. She is a candidate for surgical correction. Her temperature is 38.2°C (100.9°F), and the rest of her vital signs are stable. Physical examination of the hands reveals multiple swan-neck, boutonniere, and Z-line deformities. Ulnar deviation is evident in both hands. She has flat feet. There are 3 firm, nontender nodules palpated around the right elbow and one on the left Achilles tendon. The spleen is palpated 5 cm below the costal margin with a percussion span of 15 cm. Lymphadenopathy is absent on exam. The laboratory test results show:
Hemoglobin 11 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 90 μm3
Leukocyte count 3,500/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 20%
Lymphocytes 70%
Platelet count 240,000/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 65 mm/hour
Rheumatoid factor 85 IU/mL (Normal: up to 14 IU/mL)
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s current condition?
Q417
A 49-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for leg pain. He states that when he goes for walks with his dog, he starts feeling calf pain. He either has to stop or sit down before the pain resolves. He used to be able to walk at least a mile, and now he starts feeling the pain after 8 blocks. His medical history includes hyperlipidemia and hypertension. He takes lisinopril, amlodipine, and atorvastatin, but he admits that he takes them inconsistently. His blood pressure is 161/82 mmHg, pulse is 87/min, and respirations are 16/min. On physical exam, his skin is cool to touch and distal pulses are faint. His bilateral calves are smooth and hairless. There are no open wounds or ulcers. Dorsi- and plantarflexion of bilateral ankles are 5/5 in strength. Ankle-brachial indices are obtained, which are 0.8 on the left and 0.6 on the right. In addition to lifestyle modifications, which of the following is the next best step in management?
Q418
A 35-year-old man presents to pulmonary function clinic for preoperative evaluation for a right pneumonectomy. His arterial blood gas at room air is as follows:
pH: 7.34
PaCO2: 68 mmHg
PaO2: 56 mmHg
Base excess: +1
O2 saturation: 89%
What underlying condition most likely explains these findings?
Q419
A 62-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of lower back pain and tingling and numbness in his legs for the past 6 months. The pain radiates bilaterally to his buttocks and legs gets worse while standing or walking downhill. Two weeks ago, he had an upper respiratory tract infection that resolved spontaneously. He has hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. His son has ankylosing spondylitis. The patient does not smoke. He drinks 2–3 beers on the weekends. Current medications include enalapril and atorvastatin. He is 180 cm (5 ft 11 in) tall and weighs 90 kg (198 lb); BMI is 27.8 kg/m2. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 70/min, and blood pressure is 135/85 mm Hg. There is no tenderness to palpation over the lumbar spine. Sensation to pinprick and light touch is decreased over the lower extremities. The patient's gait is unsteady and wide based. Muscle strength is normal. Deep tendon reflexes are 1+ bilaterally. Babinski's sign is absent bilaterally. Further evaluation is most likely to reveal which of the following findings?
Q420
A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of a rash on her ankles with intermittent itching. After the rash developed, she started applying a new scented lotion to her legs daily. She works as a cashier at a grocery store. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Current medications include metformin and enalapril. Examination shows enlarged superficial veins of the right lower extremity and red-brown discoloration with indistinct margins over the medial ankles. There is 1+ edema in the lower extremities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s skin findings?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 411: A 14-year-old boy presents with his mother complaining of a swollen, red, painful left knee. His physician aspirates the joint and discovers frank blood. The patient denies a recent history of trauma to the knee. Upon further discussion, the mother describes that her son has had multiple swollen painful joints before, often without evidence of trauma. She also mentions a history of frequent nosebleeds and gum bleeding following visits to the dentist. Which of the following is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
A. Factor VII deficiency
B. Hemophilia C
C. Child abuse
D. Hemophilia B
E. Hemophilia A (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hemophilia A***
- The presentation of recurrent **hemarthroses** (swollen, red, painful joints with frank blood on aspiration) without trauma, along with a history of spontaneous bleeding (nosebleeds, gum bleeding), is highly characteristic of hemophilia.
- **Hemophilia A**, caused by a deficiency in factor VIII, is the most common type of severe hemophilia and often presents in childhood with these bleeding manifestations, particularly in joints.
*Factor VII deficiency*
- Factor VII deficiency primarily affects the **extrinsic pathway** of coagulation and typically presents with a prolonged **prothrombin time (PT)**, while the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) would be normal.
- Clinical manifestations are usually milder than hemophilia A, but can include epistaxis, menorrhagia, and occasionally hemarthroses, but not with the classic severity and frequency seen here.
*Hemophilia C*
- Hemophilia C, caused by **factor XI deficiency**, is a milder bleeding disorder, often presenting with bleeding after trauma or surgery rather than spontaneous joint bleeding.
- It mainly affects Ashkenazi Jews and typically causes a prolonged **aPTT**, but usually less severe symptoms than hemophilia A or B.
*Child abuse*
- While child abuse should always be considered in cases of unexplained trauma, the detailed history of **recurrent, spontaneous bleeding events** (hemarthroses, nosebleeds, gum bleeding post-dental work) without a clear traumatic cause is more indicative of a systemic bleeding disorder.
- The pattern of bleeding is consistent with a coagulation defect rather than isolated traumatic injuries.
*Hemophilia B*
- Hemophilia B, or Christmas disease, is caused by **factor IX deficiency** and presents with symptoms clinically indistinguishable from hemophilia A (i.e., spontaneous joint and deep tissue bleeding).
- However, Hemophilia A is significantly more common than Hemophilia B (affecting about 1 in 5,000 to 10,000 live male births, compared to 1 in 25,000 to 30,000 for Hemophilia B). Therefore, Hemophilia A is the most likely diagnosis.
Question 412: A 50-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of fever and productive cough with blood in the sputum for 1 day. She also reports a sharp pain under her ribs that is worsened on taking deep breaths. Over the past 2 years, she has had repeated episodes of sinusitis, for which she used over the counter medication. She has recently started a new job at a wire-mesh factory. Her temperature is 38.3°C (100.9 °F), pulse is 72/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Physical examination shows palpable nonblanching skin lesions over her hands and feet. Examination of the nasal cavity shows ulcerations of the nasopharyngeal mucosa and a small septal perforation. Pulmonary examination shows stridor on inspiration. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.2 g/dL
Leukocyte count 10,300/mm3
Platelet count 205,000/mm3
Serum
Urea nitrogen 24 mg/dL
Creatinine 2.4 mg/dL
Urine
Protein 2+
RBC 70/hpf
RBC casts numerous
WBC 1–2/hpf
A chest x-ray shows multiple cavitating, nodular lesions bilaterally. Which of the following additional findings is most likely to be present in this patient?
A. Increased p-ANCA titers
B. Increased anti-Smith titers
C. Increased anti-GBM titers
D. Increased c-ANCA titers (Correct Answer)
E. Decreased ADAMTS13 activity
Explanation: ### ***Increased c-ANCA titers***
- The patient's presentation with **sinusitis**, **nasal ulcerations**, **pulmonary cavitating nodules** with hemoptysis, and **rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis** (elevated creatinine, proteinuria, RBC casts) is highly indicative of **Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis (GPA)**.
- **c-ANCA (cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies)**, primarily targeting **proteinase 3 (PR3)**, are serological markers commonly elevated in GPA and help confirm the diagnosis.
### *Increased p-ANCA titers*
- **p-ANCA (perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies)**, typically targeting **myeloperoxidase (MPO)**, are more commonly associated with **microscopic polyangiitis** or **eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome)**.
- While both GPA and microscopic polyangiitis can present with kidney and lung involvement, the prominent upper airway disease (sinusitis, nasal ulcerations, septal perforation) in this patient points more strongly towards GPA and c-ANCA positivity.
### *Increased anti-Smith titers*
- **Anti-Smith antibodies** are highly specific for **Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)**.
- The clinical presentation of **upper airway destruction**, **cavitating lung lesions**, and **glomerulonephritis with RBC casts** is not typical for SLE, which more commonly presents with malar rash, arthritis, serositis, and other systemic symptoms.
### *Increased anti-GBM titers*
- **Anti-GBM (anti-glomerular basement membrane) antibodies** are characteristic of **Goodpasture syndrome**, which causes a **rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis** and often **pulmonary hemorrhage**.
- However, Goodpasture syndrome does not typically involve **upper airway disease** (sinusitis, nasal ulcerations, septal perforation) or **palpable skin lesions**, which are prominent features in this patient.
### *Decreased ADAMTS13 activity*
- **Decreased ADAMTS13 activity** is diagnostic of **Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)**.
- TTP is characterized by the pentad of **thrombocytopenia**, **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia**, **neurological symptoms**, **renal insufficiency**, and **fever**, but it does not involve the prominent **destructive upper airway disease** or **cavitating lung lesions** seen in this patient.
Question 413: A 42-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of fatigue and increased urination. The patient reports that he has been drinking more than usual because he is constantly thirsty. He has avoided driving for the past 8 weeks because of intermittent episodes of blurred vision. He had elevated blood pressure at his previous visit but is otherwise healthy. Because of his busy work schedule, his diet consists primarily of fast food. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. He is 178 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 109 kg (240 lb); BMI is 34 kg/m2. His pulse is 75/min and his blood pressure is 148/95 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin A1c 6.8%
Serum
Glucose 180 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Total cholesterol 220 mg/dL
HDL cholesterol 50 mg/dL
Triglycerides 140 mg/dL
Urine
Blood negative
Glucose 2+
Protein 1+
Ketones negative
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Metformin therapy (Correct Answer)
B. Low-carbohydrate diet
C. Aspirin therapy
D. ACE inhibitor therapy
E. Insulin therapy
Explanation: ***Metformin therapy***
- This patient has **newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus** with classic symptoms (polyuria, polydipsia, blurred vision) and laboratory confirmation (HbA1c 6.8%, glucose 180 mg/dL, glucosuria).
- **Metformin is the first-line pharmacologic therapy** for type 2 diabetes according to current guidelines (ADA, AACE) due to its efficacy, safety profile, cardiovascular benefits, and low risk of hypoglycemia.
- The patient's creatinine is normal (1.0 mg/dL), so metformin is not contraindicated.
- Addressing the **symptomatic hyperglycemia** is the most appropriate next step in management.
*ACE inhibitor therapy*
- ACE inhibitors are indicated for diabetic patients with **hypertension and albuminuria** to provide renoprotection and slow progression of diabetic nephropathy.
- While this patient has both hypertension (148/95 mm Hg) and proteinuria (1+), ACE inhibitor therapy should be initiated **after or concurrent with diabetes management**, not as the sole initial intervention.
- The patient needs **glycemic control first** given symptomatic hyperglycemia, though ACE inhibitor would be an appropriate addition to the treatment regimen.
*Low-carbohydrate diet*
- **Lifestyle modifications** including medical nutrition therapy and exercise are foundational for managing type 2 diabetes and should be recommended.
- However, given the patient's **symptomatic hyperglycemia** (HbA1c 6.8%, glucose 180 mg/dL with classic symptoms), lifestyle changes alone are **insufficient as the initial management**.
- Pharmacologic therapy with metformin should be initiated immediately alongside lifestyle counseling.
*Insulin therapy*
- Insulin therapy is indicated for patients with **very high HbA1c** (typically >9-10%), **severe symptoms of hyperglycemia**, evidence of catabolism, or failure of oral agents.
- This patient's HbA1c of 6.8% represents **relatively mild hyperglycemia** that is appropriately managed with metformin as first-line therapy.
- Insulin is **not indicated** at this stage of disease.
*Aspirin therapy*
- **Aspirin for primary prevention** in diabetes is controversial; current guidelines suggest shared decision-making for patients at increased cardiovascular risk without high bleeding risk.
- While this patient has cardiovascular risk factors (diabetes, hypertension, obesity, dyslipidemia), aspirin would be a **secondary priority** after addressing the acute metabolic derangements.
- **Glycemic control takes precedence** over aspirin initiation in newly diagnosed diabetes.
Question 414: A 35-year-old patient with a history of diabetes presents to the ED with a myriad of systemic complaints. An arterial blood gas shows serum pH = 7.3, HCO3- = 13 mEq/L, PCO2 = 27 mmHg. Which of the following would you LEAST expect to observe in this patient?
A. Increased anion gap
B. Increased urine output
C. Increased serum potassium
D. Decreased respiratory rate (Correct Answer)
E. Increased serum ketones
Explanation: ***Decreased respiratory rate***
- This patient has **diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)**, which causes a metabolic acidosis. The body compensates for acidosis by increasing the respiratory rate (**Kussmaul respirations**) to blow off CO2, thus decreasing serum acidity.
- A decreased respiratory rate would worsen the acidosis by retaining CO2, which is contrary to the body's compensatory mechanism in DKA.
- This is what you would **LEAST expect** to observe in a patient with DKA.
*Increased anion gap*
- The patient's **pH of 7.3** and **HCO3- of 13 mEq/L** indicate a metabolic acidosis with a PCO2 of 27 mmHg showing respiratory compensation.
- DKA is characterized by the accumulation of **ketoacids** (acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate), which are unmeasured anions, leading to an **elevated anion gap**.
- This is an **expected finding** in DKA.
*Increased urine output*
- In DKA, **hyperglycemia** leads to an osmotic diuresis as excess glucose is filtered by the kidneys and draws water out, resulting in **polyuria** (increased urine output).
- This excessive urination contributes to **dehydration**, a common finding in DKA.
- This is an **expected finding** in DKA.
*Increased serum potassium*
- Despite total body potassium depletion, patients in DKA often present with **normal or elevated serum potassium** due to intracellular potassium shifting out of cells in exchange for hydrogen ions (to buffer acidosis).
- **Insulin deficiency** also contributes to this shift by impairing potassium uptake into cells.
- This is an **expected finding** in DKA, though potassium will drop with insulin treatment.
*Increased serum ketones*
- **Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)** is fundamentally caused by insulin deficiency, leading to increased **lipolysis** and subsequent overproduction of **ketone bodies** (acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate) by the liver.
- These ketones accumulate in the blood, causing the characteristic metabolic acidosis and are measurable in serum and urine.
- This is an **expected finding** and diagnostic of DKA.
Question 415: A 74-year-old man presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath that started about 30 minutes ago. He is also experiencing chest pain on deep inspiration. He has several significant medical conditions including chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. He used to smoke about 3 packs of cigarettes every day until last year when he quit. He was in the emergency room 2 weeks ago for a hemorrhagic stroke which was promptly treated. He currently weighs 97.5 kg (215 lb). His respirations are 20/min, the blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, and the pulse is 105/min. On physical examination, Homan's sign is positive. An ECG and chest X-ray are performed. His current oxygen saturation is at 87% and D-dimer results are positive. He is wheeled in for a CT scan. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
A. Subcutaneous fondaparinux
B. Greenfield filter (Correct Answer)
C. Surgical thrombectomy
D. Unfractionated heparin
E. Warfarin
Explanation: ***Greenfield filter (IVC filter)***
- This patient presents with **acute pulmonary embolism (PE)** evidenced by sudden **shortness of breath**, **pleuritic chest pain**, **tachycardia (105/min)**, **hypoxemia (87%)**, and **positive D-dimer**. The positive **Homan's sign** suggests deep vein thrombosis as the source.
- The critical factor is his **recent hemorrhagic stroke 2 weeks ago**, which represents an **absolute contraindication to anticoagulation** in the acute/subacute period due to the high risk of re-bleeding.
- **IVC filter placement** is specifically indicated for patients with **venous thromboembolism (VTE) who have contraindications to anticoagulation**, which precisely describes this clinical scenario.
- The filter prevents further emboli from reaching the lungs while avoiding the bleeding risks associated with anticoagulants.
*Subcutaneous fondaparinux*
- While **fondaparinux** is a factor Xa inhibitor commonly used for PE treatment, it is still an **anticoagulant** that significantly increases bleeding risk.
- A **recent hemorrhagic stroke (2 weeks ago)** is an **absolute contraindication** to any form of anticoagulation, including fondaparinux, due to the substantial risk of intracranial re-bleeding.
- Standard guidelines recommend avoiding anticoagulation for at least 2-4 weeks (often longer) after intracranial hemorrhage.
*Unfractionated heparin*
- **Unfractionated heparin (UFH)** is a standard treatment for acute PE but is absolutely **contraindicated** in this patient due to the **recent hemorrhagic stroke**.
- UFH would carry an unacceptable risk of causing recurrent intracranial bleeding in the subacute post-stroke period.
*Surgical thrombectomy*
- **Surgical embolectomy** is reserved for patients with **massive PE causing hemodynamic instability** (cardiogenic shock, persistent hypotension) who have failed or have contraindications to thrombolysis.
- This patient is **hemodynamically stable** with a blood pressure of 110/80 mmHg, making surgical intervention unnecessarily invasive and inappropriate as initial management.
*Warfarin*
- **Warfarin** is an oral anticoagulant used for long-term VTE management but has a **slow onset of action** (requires 5-7 days to reach therapeutic levels), making it unsuitable for acute PE treatment.
- More importantly, like all anticoagulants, warfarin is **absolutely contraindicated** in this patient due to the recent hemorrhagic stroke and high re-bleeding risk.
Question 416: A 64-year-old woman presents to the physician with fever and sore throat for 2 days. She was diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis 15 years ago. She has had several flares necessitating admission to the hospital in recent years. She has developed deformity in her joints despite aggressive therapy. She is a candidate for surgical correction. Her temperature is 38.2°C (100.9°F), and the rest of her vital signs are stable. Physical examination of the hands reveals multiple swan-neck, boutonniere, and Z-line deformities. Ulnar deviation is evident in both hands. She has flat feet. There are 3 firm, nontender nodules palpated around the right elbow and one on the left Achilles tendon. The spleen is palpated 5 cm below the costal margin with a percussion span of 15 cm. Lymphadenopathy is absent on exam. The laboratory test results show:
Hemoglobin 11 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 90 μm3
Leukocyte count 3,500/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 20%
Lymphocytes 70%
Platelet count 240,000/mm3
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 65 mm/hour
Rheumatoid factor 85 IU/mL (Normal: up to 14 IU/mL)
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s current condition?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
C. Secondary amyloidosis
D. Felty syndrome (Correct Answer)
E. T cell large granular lymphocytic leukemia
Explanation: ***Felty syndrome***
- This patient presents with a long history of severe, progressive **rheumatoid arthritis (RA)**, characteristic deformities (**swan-neck, boutonniere, Z-line, ulnar deviation**), **splenomegaly**, and **neutropenia** (leukocyte count 3,500/mm3 with 20% neutrophils, meaning an absolute neutrophil count of 700/mm3). This triad defines **Felty syndrome**.
- **Felty syndrome** is a rare, severe complication of chronic RA, often associated with a high **rheumatoid factor (RF)**, and increased risk of infections due to neutropenia.
*Sarcoidosis*
- While sarcoidosis can cause **lymphadenopathy** and occasionally **splenomegaly**, it does not typically present with the specific joint deformities and positive **RF** seen in severe RA.
- The elevated **RF** and characteristic joint changes are not features of sarcoidosis.
*Diffuse large B cell lymphoma*
- This condition can cause **splenomegaly** and systemic symptoms but is not primarily associated with the specific joint deformities and highly positive **RF** characteristic of longstanding, severe **rheumatoid arthritis**.
- While patients with RA have an increased risk of lymphoma, the constellation of neutropenia and splenomegaly in the context of severe RA points more strongly to Felty syndrome.
*Secondary amyloidosis*
- **Secondary amyloidosis** can occur in chronic inflammatory conditions like **rheumatoid arthritis** and can cause **splenomegaly**.
- However, it does not explain the **neutropenia** or the specific pattern of hematologic abnormalities (lymphocytosis with neutropenia) seen in this patient.
*T cell large granular lymphocytic leukemia*
- This leukemia can cause **neutropenia** and **splenomegaly** and is sometimes associated with **rheumatoid arthritis**.
- However, the patient's lymphocyte count is 70% of 3,500, which is 2,450/mm3. While this is absolute lymphocytosis, the diagnosis is confirmed by immunophenotyping to detect abnormal clonal T cells, which is not provided. The classic presentation of severe RA with splenomegaly and neutropenia strongly aligns with Felty syndrome.
Question 417: A 49-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for leg pain. He states that when he goes for walks with his dog, he starts feeling calf pain. He either has to stop or sit down before the pain resolves. He used to be able to walk at least a mile, and now he starts feeling the pain after 8 blocks. His medical history includes hyperlipidemia and hypertension. He takes lisinopril, amlodipine, and atorvastatin, but he admits that he takes them inconsistently. His blood pressure is 161/82 mmHg, pulse is 87/min, and respirations are 16/min. On physical exam, his skin is cool to touch and distal pulses are faint. His bilateral calves are smooth and hairless. There are no open wounds or ulcers. Dorsi- and plantarflexion of bilateral ankles are 5/5 in strength. Ankle-brachial indices are obtained, which are 0.8 on the left and 0.6 on the right. In addition to lifestyle modifications, which of the following is the next best step in management?
A. Angioplasty
B. Bed rest
C. Arteriography
D. Electromyography
E. Clopidogrel (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Clopidogrel***
- This patient presents with **claudication** consistent with peripheral artery disease (PAD), evidenced by cramping leg pain with exertion, faint pulses, cool and hairless skin, and **abnormal ankle-brachial indices (ABI)**. Antiplatelet therapy with medications like **clopidogrel** is a cornerstone of PAD management to reduce cardiovascular event risk.
- While lifestyle modifications are crucial, medications that improve arterial blood flow and reduce thrombotic events, such as **antiplatelets** (e.g., clopidogrel, aspirin) and **phosphodiesterase inhibitors** (e.g., cilostazol), are often the next step in medical management for symptomatic PAD.
*Angioplasty*
- **Angioplasty** is an invasive procedure generally reserved for patients with severe claudication that significantly impacts their quality of life, limb-threatening ischemia, or those who have failed medical therapy.
- Given that this patient's symptoms are new and he has not yet optimized medical management, an **invasive procedure** is premature.
*Bed rest*
- **Bed rest** is contraindicated in PAD as it can worsen symptoms and lead to deconditioning.
- **Supervised exercise programs** are a key component of conservative management for PAD, improving walking distance and reducing symptoms.
*Arteriography*
- **Arteriography** (angiography) is an invasive diagnostic procedure that uses contrast dye and X-rays to visualize arterial blockages. It is typically performed when revascularization (e.g., angioplasty, bypass surgery) is being considered to map the exact location and extent of the disease.
- While it can confirm the diagnosis, it's not the next best step in initial management after confirming PAD with ABI; rather, it’s a precursor to **interventional procedures**.
*Electromyography*
- **Electromyography (EMG)** measures the electrical activity of muscles in response to nerve stimulation and is primarily used to diagnose neuromuscular disorders like neuropathy or myopathy.
- The patient's symptoms are classic for **vascular claudication**, not a neuromuscular condition, making EMG an inappropriate diagnostic step here.
Question 418: A 35-year-old man presents to pulmonary function clinic for preoperative evaluation for a right pneumonectomy. His arterial blood gas at room air is as follows:
pH: 7.34
PaCO2: 68 mmHg
PaO2: 56 mmHg
Base excess: +1
O2 saturation: 89%
What underlying condition most likely explains these findings?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Bronchiectasis
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (Correct Answer)
D. Obesity
E. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Explanation: ***Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease***
- This patient exhibits **compensated respiratory acidosis** (low pH, high PaCO2, slightly elevated base excess) and **hypoxemia** (low PaO2), which are characteristic findings in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with underlying respiratory failure.
- The history of a planned **pneumonectomy** also suggests a significant pre-existing lung pathology often seen in patients with severe COPD.
*Cystic fibrosis*
- While cystic fibrosis can lead to chronic lung disease, it typically presents at a younger age and is associated with a history of recurrent infections and exocrine gland dysfunction.
- While it can manifest similarly in ABG, the age and the planned pneumonectomy make COPD a more likely primary cause in this context.
*Bronchiectasis*
- Bronchiectasis involves permanent dilation of the bronchi, often leading to chronic cough, sputum production, and recurrent infections.
- While it can cause respiratory compromise, the ABG findings are more classically associated with the widespread air trapping and V/Q mismatch seen in COPD.
*Obesity*
- Severe obesity can lead to **obesity hypoventilation syndrome**, presenting with hypercapnia and hypoxemia.
- However, the patient's age and the context of a planned pneumonectomy make an underlying primary lung disease like COPD a more focused explanation for the ABG pattern.
*Acute respiratory distress syndrome*
- Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is an **acute** and severe form of respiratory failure characterized by severe hypoxemia and bilateral opacities on chest imaging.
- The ABG findings in ARDS typically show **severe hypoxemia** with **respiratory alkalosis** early on, evolving to acidosis, and it is an acute process, not a chronic pre-existing condition suitable for elective surgery.
Question 419: A 62-year-old man comes to the physician for the evaluation of lower back pain and tingling and numbness in his legs for the past 6 months. The pain radiates bilaterally to his buttocks and legs gets worse while standing or walking downhill. Two weeks ago, he had an upper respiratory tract infection that resolved spontaneously. He has hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. His son has ankylosing spondylitis. The patient does not smoke. He drinks 2–3 beers on the weekends. Current medications include enalapril and atorvastatin. He is 180 cm (5 ft 11 in) tall and weighs 90 kg (198 lb); BMI is 27.8 kg/m2. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 70/min, and blood pressure is 135/85 mm Hg. There is no tenderness to palpation over the lumbar spine. Sensation to pinprick and light touch is decreased over the lower extremities. The patient's gait is unsteady and wide based. Muscle strength is normal. Deep tendon reflexes are 1+ bilaterally. Babinski's sign is absent bilaterally. Further evaluation is most likely to reveal which of the following findings?
A. Increased hemoglobin A1c
B. Albuminocytologic dissociation on CSF analysis
C. Decreased ankle-brachial index
D. Positive HLA-B27
E. Leaning forward relieves the pain (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Leaning forward relieves the pain***
- The patient's symptoms of **lower back pain** and **tingling/numbness in the legs** that worsen with **standing or walking downhill** and are relieved by **leaning forward** are classic signs of **spinal stenosis**.
- Leaning forward (flexion) increases the spinal canal's cross-sectional area, temporarily decompressing the neural structures.
*Increased hemoglobin A1c*
- While the patient has risk factors like **obesity** and **hypercholesterolemia**, there are no specific symptoms pointing towards **diabetes mellitus** exacerbating his current neurological symptoms.
- Although diabetes can cause neuropathy, the **positional nature of the pain** (worsening with extension, improving with flexion) suggests a mechanical rather than metabolic cause for the neurological symptoms.
*Albuminocytologic dissociation on CSF analysis*
- This finding is characteristic of **Guillain-Barré syndrome**, which typically presents with **rapidly progressive ascending paralysis** following an infection.
- The patient's symptoms are chronic (6 months), primarily sensory, and related to posture, which is inconsistent with acute demyelinating polyneuropathy.
*Decreased ankle-brachial index*
- A decreased **ankle-brachial index (ABI)** indicates **peripheral artery disease (PAD)**, which can cause **claudication** (leg pain with exertion).
- While PAD causes leg pain that improves with rest, the patient's symptoms are specifically exacerbated by spinal extension (standing, walking downhill) and relieved by flexion, which is more typical of neurogenic claudication.
*Positive HLA-B27*
- A positive **HLA-B27** is associated with **spondyloarthropathies** like **ankylosing spondylitis**, which his son has.
- However, the patient's age of onset and the *nature* of his pain (relieved by leaning forward, worsening with standing/walking downhill) are not typical for inflammatory back pain seen in ankylosing spondylitis, which usually improves with activity and is worse in the morning.
Question 420: A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of a rash on her ankles with intermittent itching. After the rash developed, she started applying a new scented lotion to her legs daily. She works as a cashier at a grocery store. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Current medications include metformin and enalapril. Examination shows enlarged superficial veins of the right lower extremity and red-brown discoloration with indistinct margins over the medial ankles. There is 1+ edema in the lower extremities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s skin findings?
A. Bacterial spread through the superficial dermis
B. Dermal deposition of hemosiderin (Correct Answer)
C. Intracellular accumulation of sorbitol
D. Contact of antigen with pre-sensitized T lymphocytes
E. Infection with dermatophyte
Explanation: ***Dermal deposition of hemosiderin***
- The patient presents with **enlarged superficial veins**, **red-brown discoloration** with indistinct margins over the medial ankles, and **1+ edema**, which are classic signs of **venous stasis dermatitis**.
- Chronic venous insufficiency leads to increased hydrostatic pressure in capillaries, causing extravasation of red blood cells and subsequent breakdown into **hemosiderin**, which deposits in the dermis, causing the characteristic discoloration.
*Bacterial spread through the superficial dermis*
- This description is characteristic of **erysipelas** or **cellulitis**, which typically present with rapidly spreading, tender, warm, and erythematous skin lesions, often with fever and systemic symptoms.
- The patient's chronic, discolored rash with edema is more indicative of a circulatory issue rather than an acute bacterial infection.
*Intracellular accumulation of sorbitol*
- This mechanism is associated with **diabetic complications** such as retinopathy, neuropathy, and nephropathy due to the polyol pathway in hyperglycemia.
- It does not explain the **cutaneous findings** of red-brown discoloration and edema on the ankles, which are specifically linked to venous insufficiency.
*Contact of antigen with pre-sensitized T lymphocytes*
- This describes **allergic contact dermatitis**, which would typically present with pruritic, erythematous, and possibly vesicular or weeping lesions, often sharply demarcated to the area of contact with the allergen (e.g., the scented lotion).
- While the patient used a new lotion, the primary skin findings of **red-brown discoloration** and **enlarged veins** point away from a simple allergic reaction and towards a chronic vascular issue.
*Infection with dermatophyte*
- A dermatophyte infection (e.g., tinea pedis, tinea cruris) typically presents as a fungal rash, often with **scaling**, **itching**, **erythema**, and sometimes blisters, occurring in specific patterns like ringworm.
- The red-brown discoloration and indistinct margins, along with enlarged superficial veins, are not characteristic features of a dermatophyte infection.