A 57-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with a concern for joint pain. She states that she often feels minor joint pain and morning stiffness in both of her hands every day, particularly in the joints of her fingers. Her symptoms tend to improve as the day goes on and she states they are not impacting the quality of her life. She lives alone as her partner recently died. She smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day and drinks 2-3 alcoholic drinks per day. Her last menses was at age 45 and she works at a library. The patient has a history of diabetes and chronic kidney disease with her last GFR at 45 mL/min. Her temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 117/58 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical examination is within normal limits. Which of the following interventions is appropriate management of future complications in this patient?
Q372
A 70-year-old woman presents to her primary care doctor complaining of left knee pain. She states that she has noticed this more during the past several months after a fall at home. Previously, she was without pain and has no history of trauma to her knees. The patient states that the majority of her pain starts in the afternoon after she has been active for some time, and that the pain resolves with rest and over-the-counter analgesics. Aside from the left knee, she has no other symptoms and no other joint findings. On exam, her temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 124/76 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 12/min. The patient has no limitations in her range of motion and no changes in strength on motor testing. However, there is tenderness along the medial joint line. What finding is most likely seen in this patient?
Q373
A 57-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband with complaints of sudden-onset slurring for the past hour. She is also having difficulty holding things with her right hand. She denies fever, head trauma, diplopia, vertigo, walking difficulties, nausea, and vomiting. Past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia for which she takes a baby aspirin, metformin, ramipril, and simvastatin. She has a 23-pack-year cigarette smoking history. Her blood pressure is 148/96 mm Hg, the heart rate is 84/min, and the temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F). On physical examination, extraocular movements are intact. The patient is dysarthric, but her higher mental functions are intact. There is a right-sided facial weakness with preserved forehead wrinkling. Her gag reflex is weak. Muscle strength is mildly reduced in the right hand. She has difficulty performing skilled movements with her right hand, especially writing, and has difficulty touching far objects with her index finger. She is able to walk without difficulty. Pinprick and proprioception sensation is intact. A head CT scan is within normal limits. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q374
A 56-year-old man comes to the physician because of worsening double vision and drooping of the right eyelid for 2 days. He has also had frequent headaches over the past month. Physical examination shows right eye deviation laterally and inferiorly at rest. The right pupil is dilated and does not react to light or with accommodation. The patient's diplopia improves slightly on looking to the right. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s findings?
Q375
A 76-year-old female with a past medical history of obesity, coronary artery disease status post stent placement, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and insulin dependent diabetes comes to your outpatient clinic for regular checkup. She has not been very adherent to her diabetes treatment regimen. She has not been checking her sugars regularly and frequently forgets to administer her mealtime insulin. Her Hemoglobin A1c three months ago was 14.1%. As a result of her diabetes, she has developed worsening diabetic retinopathy and neuropathy. Based on her clinical presentation, which of the following is the patient most at risk for developing?
Q376
A 37-year-old-man presents to the clinic for a 2-month follow-up. He is relatively healthy except for a 5-year history of hypertension. He is currently on lisinopril, amlodipine, and hydrochlorothiazide. The patient has no concerns and denies headaches, weight changes, fever, chest pain, palpitations, vision changes, or abdominal pain. His temperature is 98.9°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 157/108 mmHg, pulse is 87/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Laboratory testing demonstrates elevated plasma aldosterone concentration and low renin concentration. What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s presentation?
Q377
Please refer to the summary above to answer this question. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Patient Information
Age: 28 years
Gender: F, self-identified
Ethnicity: unspecified
Site of Care: office
History
Reason for Visit/Chief Concern: "I'm not making breast milk anymore."
History of Present Illness:
1-week history of failure to lactate; has previously been able to breastfeed her twins, who were born 12 months ago
menses resumed 4 months ago but have been infrequent
feels generally weak and tired
has had a 6.8-kg (15-lb) weight gain over the past 2 months despite having a decreased appetite
Past Medical History:
vaginal delivery of twins 12 months ago, complicated by severe postpartum hemorrhage requiring multiple blood transfusions
atopic dermatitis
Social History:
does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs
is not sexually active
Medications:
topical triamcinolone, multivitamin
Allergies:
no known drug allergies
Physical Examination
Temp Pulse Resp BP O2 Sat Ht Wt BMI
37°C
(98.6°F)
54/min 16/min 101/57 mm Hg –
160 cm
(5 ft 3 in)
70 kg
(154 lb)
27 kg/m2
Appearance: tired-appearing
HEENT: soft, nontender thyroid gland without nodularity
Pulmonary: clear to auscultation
Cardiac: bradycardic but regular rhythm; normal S1 and S2; no murmurs, rubs, or gallops
Breast: no nodules, masses, or tenderness; no nipple discharge
Abdominal: overweight; no tenderness, guarding, masses, bruits, or hepatosplenomegaly; normal bowel sounds
Extremities: mild edema of the ankles bilaterally
Skin: diffusely dry
Neurologic: alert and oriented; cranial nerves grossly intact; no focal neurologic deficits; prolonged relaxation phase of multiple deep tendon reflexes
Q378
A 59-year-old man presents to his primary care physician complaining of leg pain with exertion for the last 6 months. He has cramping in his calves when walking. He states that the cramping is worse on the right than the left and that the cramping resolves when he stops walking. He has had type 2 diabetes mellitus for 15 years and is not compliant with his medications. He has smoked 20–30 cigarettes daily for the past 30 years. On examination, the femoral pulses are diminished on both sides. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
Q379
A 55-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. For the past 6 months, he has had fatigue, headaches, and several episodes of dizziness. Three months ago, he was diagnosed with hypertension and started on medications. Since the diagnosis was made, his medications have been adjusted several times because of persistently high blood pressure readings. He also has hypercholesterolemia and peripheral arterial disease. He smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 34 years but quit two months ago. His current medications include aspirin, atorvastatin, losartan, felodipine, and hydrochlorothiazide. He is 188 cm (6 ft 2 in) tall and weighs 109 kg (240 lb); BMI is 31 kg/m2. His pulse is 82/min and blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg. Physical examination shows bilateral carotid bruits and normal heart sounds. Serum potassium concentration is 3.2 mEq/L, plasma renin activity is 4.5 ng/mL/h (N = 0.3–4.2 ng/mL/h), and serum creatinine concentration is 1.5 mg/dL. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q380
A 45-year-old male is presenting for routine health maintenance. He has no complaints. His pulse is 75/min, blood pressure is 155/90 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 15/min. His body mass index is 25 kg/m2. The physical exam is within normal limits. He denies any shortness of breath, daytime sleepiness, headaches, sweating, or palpitations. He does not recall having an elevated blood pressure measurement before. Which of the following is the best next step?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 371: A 57-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with a concern for joint pain. She states that she often feels minor joint pain and morning stiffness in both of her hands every day, particularly in the joints of her fingers. Her symptoms tend to improve as the day goes on and she states they are not impacting the quality of her life. She lives alone as her partner recently died. She smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day and drinks 2-3 alcoholic drinks per day. Her last menses was at age 45 and she works at a library. The patient has a history of diabetes and chronic kidney disease with her last GFR at 45 mL/min. Her temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 117/58 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical examination is within normal limits. Which of the following interventions is appropriate management of future complications in this patient?
A. Methotrexate
B. Ibuprofen
C. Prednisone
D. Alendronate (Correct Answer)
E. Infliximab
Explanation: ***Alendronate***
- This patient, a 57-year-old postmenopausal woman with **early menopause (age 45)**, **smoking**, **alcohol use**, and **chronic kidney disease**, is at **significantly increased risk for osteoporosis**. Alendronate, a **bisphosphonate**, is an appropriate intervention to prevent future osteoporotic fractures.
- While her joint pain is likely **osteoarthritis** and currently mild, the question targets **future complication management**, highlighting her significant risk factors for bone density loss.
- Her **GFR of 45 mL/min** (Stage 3a CKD) is at the lower acceptable range for bisphosphonate use; alendronate is generally avoided when GFR < 30-35 mL/min, but can be used with monitoring at GFR 45 mL/min given her high fracture risk.
*Methotrexate*
- Methotrexate is a **disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)** typically used for inflammatory arthropathies like **rheumatoid arthritis** or **psoriatic arthritis**.
- The patient's symptoms (mild, improving with activity, no significant exam findings) are not consistent with an inflammatory arthritis requiring methotrexate, and her **chronic kidney disease** makes its use more complex due to renal elimination and toxicity risk.
*Ibuprofen*
- Ibuprofen, a **nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)**, could be used for symptomatic relief of her mild osteoarthritis.
- However, the question asks about **"future complications"** and her history of **chronic kidney disease** makes long-term NSAID use potentially harmful due to the risk of worsening renal function and increased cardiovascular risk.
*Prednisone*
- Prednisone is a powerful **corticosteroid** used for acute flares of inflammatory conditions or severe autoimmune diseases.
- Her current joint pain is mild and not indicative of an inflammatory process requiring prednisone; furthermore, long-term corticosteroid use is a significant **risk factor for osteoporosis**, which would worsen her already elevated fracture risk.
*Infliximab*
- Infliximab is a **biologic agent** (TNF-alpha inhibitor) used for severe, refractory inflammatory conditions such as **rheumatoid arthritis**, **ankylosing spondylitis**, or **inflammatory bowel disease**.
- Her symptoms are mild and do not suggest a severe inflammatory arthropathy that would warrant the use of a high-risk biologic medication, which also carries risks like increased infection susceptibility and significant cost.
Question 372: A 70-year-old woman presents to her primary care doctor complaining of left knee pain. She states that she has noticed this more during the past several months after a fall at home. Previously, she was without pain and has no history of trauma to her knees. The patient states that the majority of her pain starts in the afternoon after she has been active for some time, and that the pain resolves with rest and over-the-counter analgesics. Aside from the left knee, she has no other symptoms and no other joint findings. On exam, her temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 124/76 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 12/min. The patient has no limitations in her range of motion and no changes in strength on motor testing. However, there is tenderness along the medial joint line. What finding is most likely seen in this patient?
A. Association with HLA-DR4
B. Heberden nodes
C. Increased synovial fluid
D. Marginal sclerosis (Correct Answer)
E. Joint pannus
Explanation: ***Marginal sclerosis***
- The patient's symptoms (age, knee pain worsening with activity and relieved by rest, tenderness on the medial joint line) are highly suggestive of **osteoarthritis**.
- **Marginal sclerosis** (increased bone density at the joint margins) is a characteristic radiological finding in osteoarthritis, resulting from increased stress on the subchondral bone.
*Association with HLA-DR4*
- **HLA-DR4** is strongly associated with **rheumatoid arthritis**, an autoimmune inflammatory condition.
- The patient's symptoms (pain worsening with activity, relief with rest, absence of systemic inflammation) do not align with rheumatoid arthritis.
*Heberden nodes*
- **Heberden nodes** are bony enlargements of the **distal interphalangeal (DIP)** joints of the fingers, characteristic of osteoarthritis.
- While frequently seen in osteoarthritis, the question describes knee pain and does not mention findings in the hands, so this is not the most direct finding for the described locale of pain.
*Increased synovial fluid*
- While some mild effusion can occur in osteoarthritis, significant **increased synovial fluid** (effusion or swelling) is more typical of **inflammatory arthropathies** or acute injuries.
- The patient's exam notes no limitations in range of motion and only tenderness, not overt swelling.
*Joint pannus*
- A **pannus** is an abnormal layer of fibrovascular tissue that invades and erodes cartilage and bone, a hallmark of **rheumatoid arthritis**.
- This finding is specific to inflammatory arthritides and not characteristic of osteoarthritis.
Question 373: A 57-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her husband with complaints of sudden-onset slurring for the past hour. She is also having difficulty holding things with her right hand. She denies fever, head trauma, diplopia, vertigo, walking difficulties, nausea, and vomiting. Past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia for which she takes a baby aspirin, metformin, ramipril, and simvastatin. She has a 23-pack-year cigarette smoking history. Her blood pressure is 148/96 mm Hg, the heart rate is 84/min, and the temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F). On physical examination, extraocular movements are intact. The patient is dysarthric, but her higher mental functions are intact. There is a right-sided facial weakness with preserved forehead wrinkling. Her gag reflex is weak. Muscle strength is mildly reduced in the right hand. She has difficulty performing skilled movements with her right hand, especially writing, and has difficulty touching far objects with her index finger. She is able to walk without difficulty. Pinprick and proprioception sensation is intact. A head CT scan is within normal limits. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Locked in syndrome
B. Pure motor syndrome
C. Parinaud’s syndrome
D. Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome (Correct Answer)
E. Lateral medullary syndrome
Explanation: ***Dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome***
- This syndrome is characterized by **dysarthria**, **facial weakness**, and **clumsiness of the hand** (especially with fine motor movements), often affecting the contralateral side to the lesion.
- The patient's presentation with slurred speech (dysarthria), mild right-hand weakness, difficulty with skilled movements, and preserved forehead wrinkling (indicating an upper motor neuron lesion in the facial nerve distribution) is highly consistent and points to a **lacunar stroke** typically affecting the pons or internal capsule.
*Locked-in syndrome*
- This severe condition involves **complete paralysis** of nearly all voluntary muscles except for vertical eye movements and blinking, which is not described here.
- Patients are fully conscious but unable to communicate verbally or with body movements, a much more extensive deficit than presented.
*Pure motor syndrome*
- This syndrome primarily involves **weakness** without significant sensory, cerebellar, or cranial nerve involvement.
- While the patient has motor symptoms, the presence of **dysarthria** and **facial weakness** suggests more than just pure motor deficits of the limbs, differentiating it from pure motor hemiparesis.
*Parinaud’s syndrome*
- This syndrome, resulting from a lesion in the **dorsal midbrain**, presents with **vertical gaze palsy**, pupillary abnormalities, and lid retraction (Collier's sign).
- The patient's intact extraocular movements and lack of these specific eye signs rule out Parinaud's syndrome.
*Lateral medullary syndrome*
- Also known as **Wallenberg's syndrome**, it results from an infarct of the lateral medulla and is characterized by a constellation of symptoms including **vertigo**, nystagmus, ipsilateral facial numbness, contralateral body numbness, and ataxia.
- The patient explicitly denies vertigo and walking difficulties, and her sensory examination is intact, making lateral medullary syndrome unlikely.
Question 374: A 56-year-old man comes to the physician because of worsening double vision and drooping of the right eyelid for 2 days. He has also had frequent headaches over the past month. Physical examination shows right eye deviation laterally and inferiorly at rest. The right pupil is dilated and does not react to light or with accommodation. The patient's diplopia improves slightly on looking to the right. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s findings?
A. Demyelination of the medial longitudinal fasciculus
B. Aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery (Correct Answer)
C. Infarction of the midbrain
D. Enlarging pituitary adenoma
E. Thrombosis of the cavernous sinus
Explanation: ***Aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery***
- The combination of **third nerve palsy** (drooping eyelid, dilated pupil, eye deviated down and out) with **pupillary involvement** (dilated and unreactive) is a hallmark of **compressive lesions** affecting the oculomotor nerve, such as a PComm artery aneurysm.
- Frequent headaches over the past month can suggest a progressively enlarging lesion that is starting to exert pressure.
*Demyelination of the medial longitudinal fasciculus*
- This would cause **internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO)**, characterized by impaired adduction of one eye and nystagmus of the abducting eye on attempted lateral gaze.
- It does not typically cause **pupillary dilation** or **ptosis** as seen in this patient.
*Infarction of the midbrain*
- A midbrain infarction could cause an **ischemic third nerve palsy**, but this usually **spares the pupil** because the parasympathetic fibers are located peripherally on the nerve and are more susceptible to compression than ischemia.
- The patient's **mydriasis** (dilated pupil) is a key feature pointing away from an ischemic cause.
*Enlarging pituitary adenoma*
- While a large pituitary adenoma can cause **vision changes** or **headaches**, it typically compresses the **optic chiasm** leading to **bitemporal hemianopsia**.
- Direct third nerve palsy with pupillary involvement is **uncommon** unless the mass is unusually large and extends significantly laterally.
*Thrombosis of the cavernous sinus*
- Cavernous sinus thrombosis presents more acutely with severe headache, fever, and involves **multiple cranial nerves** (**III, IV, V1, V2, VI**), often unilaterally.
- This patient's symptoms are primarily localized to the third nerve, and there are no signs of widespread cranial nerve involvement or systemic infection.
Question 375: A 76-year-old female with a past medical history of obesity, coronary artery disease status post stent placement, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and insulin dependent diabetes comes to your outpatient clinic for regular checkup. She has not been very adherent to her diabetes treatment regimen. She has not been checking her sugars regularly and frequently forgets to administer her mealtime insulin. Her Hemoglobin A1c three months ago was 14.1%. As a result of her diabetes, she has developed worsening diabetic retinopathy and neuropathy. Based on her clinical presentation, which of the following is the patient most at risk for developing?
A. Stress incontinence
B. Hemorrhoids
C. Rectal prolapse
D. Overflow incontinence (Correct Answer)
E. Uterine prolapse
Explanation: ***Overflow incontinence***
- The patient's **poorly controlled diabetes** can lead to **diabetic autonomic neuropathy**, affecting bladder function and causing **neurogenic bladder**.
- This results in the bladder not emptying completely, leading to **urinary retention** and leakage as the bladder overfills, which defines **overflow incontinence**.
*Stress incontinence*
- This type of incontinence is typically caused by **weakening of pelvic floor muscles** and **urethral sphincter**, leading to leakage with increased abdominal pressure (e.g., coughing, sneezing).
- While obesity is a risk factor, the patient's severe, uncontrolled diabetes points more strongly to neuropathy affecting bladder emptying rather than just sphincter weakness.
*Hemorrhoids*
- Hemorrhoids are **swollen veins in the rectum or anus**, often associated with straining during bowel movements, chronic constipation, or obesity.
- While common in this demographic, there is no direct link between uncontrolled diabetes and the development of hemorrhoids.
*Rectal prolapse*
- Rectal prolapse involves the **protrusion of the rectum through the anus**, often due to weakened pelvic floor muscles or chronic straining.
- Although the patient's age and obesity could be contributing factors, poorly controlled diabetes does not directly cause rectal prolapse.
*Uterine prolapse*
- Uterine prolapse occurs when the **uterus descends into the vagina**, typically due to weakened pelvic floor muscles, often following childbirth or with age and obesity.
- Uncontrolled diabetes does not directly cause uterine prolapse, although shared risk factors like obesity might be present.
Question 376: A 37-year-old-man presents to the clinic for a 2-month follow-up. He is relatively healthy except for a 5-year history of hypertension. He is currently on lisinopril, amlodipine, and hydrochlorothiazide. The patient has no concerns and denies headaches, weight changes, fever, chest pain, palpitations, vision changes, or abdominal pain. His temperature is 98.9°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 157/108 mmHg, pulse is 87/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Laboratory testing demonstrates elevated plasma aldosterone concentration and low renin concentration. What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s presentation?
A. Increased activity of the epithelial sodium channel at the kidney
B. Renin-secreting tumor
C. Ectopic secretion of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
D. Mutation of the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter at the thick ascending limb
E. Aldosterone-producing adenoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Aldosterone-producing adenoma***
- The patient's **hypertension**, elevated plasma **aldosterone** concentration, and suppressed **renin** concentration ("high aldosterone, low renin") are classic findings for **primary hyperaldosteronism**, often caused by an **aldosterone-producing adenoma**.
- This condition is also resistant to multiple antihypertensive medications, as seen in this patient, which is another hallmark presentation of **primary hyperaldosteronism**.
*Increased activity of the epithelial sodium channel at the kidney*
- This describes **Liddle's syndrome**, a rare genetic disorder leading to severe hypertension.
- While it also causes hypertension and suppressed renin, Liddle's syndrome presents with **low aldosterone levels**, not elevated, because the enhanced sodium reabsorption is independent of aldosterone.
*Renin-secreting tumor*
- A **renin-secreting tumor** would cause **elevated renin** levels, leading to increased angiotensin II and subsequently increased aldosterone.
- The patient's presentation of **low renin** concentrations makes this diagnosis unlikely.
*Ectopic secretion of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)*
- **Ectopic ADH secretion**, as seen in **SIADH**, causes **hyponatremia** and often low plasma osmolality.
- This condition does not directly cause hypertension with elevated aldosterone and suppressed renin.
*Mutation of the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter at the thick ascending limb*
- This mutation is characteristic of **Bartter's syndrome** or can be induced by **loop diuretics**.
- It leads to **hypokalemia**, **metabolic alkalosis**, and **hyperreninemic hyperaldosteronism**, often with **hypotension** or normal blood pressure, not hypertension with low renin.
Question 377: Please refer to the summary above to answer this question. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Patient Information
Age: 28 years
Gender: F, self-identified
Ethnicity: unspecified
Site of Care: office
History
Reason for Visit/Chief Concern: "I'm not making breast milk anymore."
History of Present Illness:
1-week history of failure to lactate; has previously been able to breastfeed her twins, who were born 12 months ago
menses resumed 4 months ago but have been infrequent
feels generally weak and tired
has had a 6.8-kg (15-lb) weight gain over the past 2 months despite having a decreased appetite
Past Medical History:
vaginal delivery of twins 12 months ago, complicated by severe postpartum hemorrhage requiring multiple blood transfusions
atopic dermatitis
Social History:
does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use illicit drugs
is not sexually active
Medications:
topical triamcinolone, multivitamin
Allergies:
no known drug allergies
Physical Examination
Temp Pulse Resp BP O2 Sat Ht Wt BMI
37°C
(98.6°F)
54/min 16/min 101/57 mm Hg –
160 cm
(5 ft 3 in)
70 kg
(154 lb)
27 kg/m2
Appearance: tired-appearing
HEENT: soft, nontender thyroid gland without nodularity
Pulmonary: clear to auscultation
Cardiac: bradycardic but regular rhythm; normal S1 and S2; no murmurs, rubs, or gallops
Breast: no nodules, masses, or tenderness; no nipple discharge
Abdominal: overweight; no tenderness, guarding, masses, bruits, or hepatosplenomegaly; normal bowel sounds
Extremities: mild edema of the ankles bilaterally
Skin: diffusely dry
Neurologic: alert and oriented; cranial nerves grossly intact; no focal neurologic deficits; prolonged relaxation phase of multiple deep tendon reflexes
A. Decreased serum cortisol concentration (Correct Answer)
B. Decreased serum aldosterone concentration
C. Increased serum FSH concentration
D. Increased serum sodium concentration
E. Decreased serum oxytocin concentration
Explanation: **Decreased serum cortisol concentration**
- The patient's history of **postpartum hemorrhage**, subsequent failure to lactate, infrequent menses, fatigue, weight gain, and bradycardia are all highly suggestive of **Sheehan's syndrome**, which is postpartum pituitary necrosis.
- Sheehan's syndrome typically results in a deficiency of multiple pituitary hormones, including **ACTH**, leading to secondary adrenal insufficiency and consequently, **decreased serum cortisol**.
*Decreased serum aldosterone concentration*
- Aldosterone production is primarily regulated by the **renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)**, not directly by the pituitary gland.
- While severe secondary adrenal insufficiency can indirectly affect aldosterone in some contexts, a direct and significant decrease in serum aldosterone is more characteristic of **primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease)**, which is not indicated here.
*Increased serum FSH concentration*
- In Sheehan's syndrome, the pituitary gland's ability to produce **gonadotropins (FSH and LH)** is impaired, leading to **decreased or normal-low FSH and LH levels** and subsequent infrequent menses or amenorrhea.
- An **increased FSH concentration** would typically be seen in **primary ovarian failure**, where the pituitary is attempting to stimulate non-responsive ovaries.
*Increased serum sodium concentration*
- Patients with Sheehan's syndrome and subsequent hypocortisolism often experience **hyponatremia** (decreased serum sodium) due to impaired water excretion and increased ADH secretion, not hypernatremia.
- The symptoms described (fatigue, weight gain) are also not consistent with **increased serum sodium** (hypernatremia), which would typically present with symptoms like thirst and dehydration.
*Decreased serum oxytocin concentration*
- While oxytocin is produced by the posterior pituitary, the **failure to lactate** in Sheehan's syndrome is primarily due to **prolactin deficiency**, as prolactin is essential for milk production.
- Although oxytocin is crucial for milk ejection ("let-down") and can be affected in pituitary damage, the initial and prominent lactation failure points more strongly to **prolactin deficiency**, and a specific test for oxytocin is not a routine diagnostic for Sheehan's.
Question 378: A 59-year-old man presents to his primary care physician complaining of leg pain with exertion for the last 6 months. He has cramping in his calves when walking. He states that the cramping is worse on the right than the left and that the cramping resolves when he stops walking. He has had type 2 diabetes mellitus for 15 years and is not compliant with his medications. He has smoked 20–30 cigarettes daily for the past 30 years. On examination, the femoral pulses are diminished on both sides. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?
A. Segmental arterial occlusions due to non-atherosclerotic vasculitis
B. Narrowing of the spinal canal
C. Joint degeneration
D. Venous thrombosis
E. Atherosclerosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Atherosclerosis***
- The patient's presentation of **intermittent claudication** (leg pain with exertion, resolving with rest), history of **type 2 diabetes mellitus**, and **heavy smoking** are classic risk factors for atherosclerosis leading to peripheral artery disease (PAD).
- **Diminished femoral pulses** further support the diagnosis of arterial insufficiency caused by atherosclerotic plaque buildup.
*Segmental arterial occlusions due to non-atherosclerotic vasculitis*
- While vasculitis can cause arterial occlusions, conditions like **Takayasu arteritis** or **Buerger's disease** are less common in this age group and typically have different risk factors and clinical presentations compared to the patient's strong atherosclerotic risk profile.
- The patient's long-standing diabetes and smoking history strongly favor atherosclerosis over non-atherosclerotic vasculitis as the primary pathology.
*Narrowing of the spinal canal*
- This describes **neurogenic claudication**, which typically presents with leg pain that is often **position-dependent** (e.g., exacerbated by standing or extension of the spine) and may be relieved by leaning forward, rather than strictly by rest from walking.
- Neurogenic claudication usually involves **neurological symptoms** like numbness or weakness and does not typically present with diminished peripheral pulses.
*Joint degeneration*
- **Osteoarthritis** or joint degeneration would typically cause pain localized to the affected joint, which would worsen with joint movement and improve with rest from that movement, but it would not explain the **cramping nature** of the pain in the calves or the **diminished pulses**.
- Joint degeneration does not explain the systemic risk factors like diabetes and smoking contributing to vascular compromise.
*Venous thrombosis*
- A **venous thrombosis** (deep vein thrombosis) would typically cause acute onset leg pain, swelling, warmth, and erythema, often constant rather than exertional and resolving with rest.
- It would not lead to **diminished arterial pulses**; in fact, arterial pulses would typically be preserved.
Question 379: A 55-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. For the past 6 months, he has had fatigue, headaches, and several episodes of dizziness. Three months ago, he was diagnosed with hypertension and started on medications. Since the diagnosis was made, his medications have been adjusted several times because of persistently high blood pressure readings. He also has hypercholesterolemia and peripheral arterial disease. He smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 34 years but quit two months ago. His current medications include aspirin, atorvastatin, losartan, felodipine, and hydrochlorothiazide. He is 188 cm (6 ft 2 in) tall and weighs 109 kg (240 lb); BMI is 31 kg/m2. His pulse is 82/min and blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg. Physical examination shows bilateral carotid bruits and normal heart sounds. Serum potassium concentration is 3.2 mEq/L, plasma renin activity is 4.5 ng/mL/h (N = 0.3–4.2 ng/mL/h), and serum creatinine concentration is 1.5 mg/dL. Further evaluation of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Pituitary mass
B. Unilateral parathyroid mass
C. Unilateral kidney atrophy (Correct Answer)
D. Bilateral kidney enlargement
E. Diffuse thyroid enlargement
Explanation: ***Unilateral kidney atrophy***
- The patient's **refractory hypertension**, **hypokalemia**, elevated **plasma renin activity**, and developing **renal insufficiency** with normal heart sounds despite multiple antihypertensive medications strongly suggest **renovascular hypertension**.
- In adults, the most common cause of renovascular hypertension is **atherosclerotic renal artery stenosis**, which typically leads to **atrophy of the affected kidney** due to chronic hypoperfusion.
*Pituitary mass*
- A pituitary mass could cause secondary hypertension if it leads to **Cushing's disease** (ACTH-producing adenoma) or **acromegaly** (growth hormone-producing adenoma).
- However, the patient's symptoms (headaches, dizziness, hypertension, hypokalemia) and laboratory findings (elevated renin, renal insufficiency) are more consistent with **renovascular disease**, and there are no specific signs of Cushing's or acromegaly.
*Unilateral parathyroid mass*
- A unilateral parathyroid mass would typically cause **primary hyperparathyroidism**, characterized by **hypercalcemia** and potentially hypertension.
- This patient presents with **hypokalemia**, not hypercalcemia, and his symptoms are not typical for hyperparathyroidism.
*Bilateral kidney enlargement*
- Bilateral kidney enlargement is seen in conditions such as **autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease** or **diabetic nephropathy**.
- While both can cause hypertension and renal insufficiency, the patient's elevated **plasma renin activity** and **hypokalemia** point more specifically to renovascular hypertension, which often causes **unilateral atrophy** rather than bilateral enlargement.
*Diffuse thyroid enlargement*
- Diffuse thyroid enlargement (goiter) could be associated with **hyperthyroidism** or **hypothyroidism**. Hyperthyroidism can cause hypertension, but typically it presents with **tachycardia**, weight loss, and other specific symptoms.
- This patient's clinical picture, particularly the **hypokalemia** and high renin, is not characteristic of thyroid dysfunction.
Question 380: A 45-year-old male is presenting for routine health maintenance. He has no complaints. His pulse is 75/min, blood pressure is 155/90 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 15/min. His body mass index is 25 kg/m2. The physical exam is within normal limits. He denies any shortness of breath, daytime sleepiness, headaches, sweating, or palpitations. He does not recall having an elevated blood pressure measurement before. Which of the following is the best next step?
A. Treat with thiazide diuretic
B. Repeat the blood pressure measurement (Correct Answer)
C. Refer patient to cardiologist
D. Provide reassurance
E. Obtain computed tomography scan
Explanation: ***Repeat the blood pressure measurement***
- A single elevated blood pressure reading, especially in an **asymptomatic patient** with no prior history of hypertension, requires confirmation.
- According to guidelines, a diagnosis of **hypertension** is typically based on the average of two or more readings taken on two or more separate occasions.
*Treat with thiazide diuretic*
- Initiating antihypertensive medication on the basis of a **single elevated reading** is premature and not recommended.
- Treatment should follow **confirmed hypertension** diagnosis and evaluation of cardiovascular risk factors.
*Refer patient to cardiologist*
- Referral to a specialist like a cardiologist is not indicated until **hypertension is confirmed** and standard initial management strategies have been considered or failed.
- The patient is **asymptomatic** and presents with a borderline elevated reading, not an emergency.
*Provide reassurance*
- While reassurance is part of patient care, simply reassuring the patient without **further assessment** of the elevated blood pressure would be neglecting a potentially important health concern.
- Further action is required to either confirm or rule out **hypertension**.
*Obtain computed tomography scan*
- A CT scan is an **invasive and expensive** procedure that is not indicated for an initial elevated blood pressure reading in an asymptomatic patient.
- It would only be considered if there were strong suspicions of **secondary hypertension** causes after thorough workup.