A 22-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her husband because of a gradual 20-kg (45-lb) weight loss and recurrent episodes of vomiting without diarrhea over the past 2 years. Her last menstrual period was 6 months ago. On physical examination, she appears fatigued and emaciated, and there is bilateral swelling of the retromandibular fossa. Laboratory studies show hypokalemia and a hemoglobin concentration of 8 g/dL. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
Q312
A 54-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after having been hit by a car while riding his bicycle. He was not wearing a helmet. Despite appropriate life-saving measures, he dies 2 hours later because of a severe intracranial hemorrhage. Autopsy of the heart shows general thickening of the left ventricular wall with narrowing of the ventricular chamber. Which of the following conditions is the most likely underlying cause of the described cardiac changes?
Q313
A 39-year-old female with poorly controlled systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) presents to the emergency room with a cough and pleuritic chest pain. She states that she developed these symptoms 2 days prior. The pain appears to improve when the patient leans forward. She currently takes hydroxychloroquine for her systemic lupus erythematosus but has missed several doses recently. Her temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg, pulse is 115/min, and respirations are 22/min. Physical examination reveals a rise in jugular venous pressure during inspiration. In addition to tachycardia, which of the following EKG patterns is most likely to be seen in this patient?
Q314
A 55-year-old man presents to the internal medicine clinic with complaints of numbness and tingling in his fingers that he first noticed 6 months ago. It has been progressively worsening and has reached the point where it is affecting his normal daily activities, such as brushing his teeth. His past medical history is significant for sinusitis and allergic rhinitis since the age of 18, as well as episodic wheezing and shortness of breath since he was 30. He was diagnosed with asthma when he was 22 years old, and subsequently with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) when he was 40. His current medications include albuterol, loratadine, mometasone, and omeprazole. His blood pressure is 128/86 mm Hg, heart rate is 78/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. On physical exam, the patient’s skin is mottled and appears to have a diffuse, lace-like, erythematous discoloration of the arms, legs, and trunk. There is also a small papular rash on his right forearm. Bilateral wheezes are heard on auscultation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q315
A 42-year-old man presents to his dermatologist with a rash on the extensor surfaces of his elbows and knees which has occurred episodically ever since he was a teenager. The patient was recently diagnosed with essential hypertension and was prescribed lisinopril by his primary care physician. The vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 128/91 mm Hg, and heart rate 82/min. The physical examination reveals sharply demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery-white scales on the back of his elbows and front of his knees. He has less than 3% of the total body surface area affected. Which of the following is the best initial therapy for this patient’s condition?
Q316
A 72-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of severe, acute, right leg pain for 2 hours. The patient's symptoms started suddenly while he was doing household chores. He has no history of leg pain at rest or with exertion. Yesterday, he returned home after a 6-hour bus ride from his grandson's home. He has hypertension treated with ramipril. He appears uncomfortable. His temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), pulse is 105/min and irregular, and blood pressure is 146/92 mm Hg. The right lower extremity is cool and tender to touch. A photograph of the limb is shown. Femoral pulses are palpable bilaterally; popliteal and pedal pulses are decreased on the right side. Sensation to pinprick and light touch and muscle strength are decreased in the right lower extremity. Which of the following is most likely to confirm the underlying source of this patient's condition?
Q317
A 55-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a wellness checkup. He states that he generally feels well and has no complaints at this time. The patient consumes alcohol frequently, eats a high sodium diet, and is sedentary. His temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 167/108 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. The patient is 5'10" tall and weighs 220 lbs (BMI 31.5 kg/m²). The patient's blood pressure at his last 2 appointments were 159/100 mmHg and 162/99 mmHg, respectively. His physician wants to intervene to manage his blood pressure. Which of the following is the most effective lifestyle intervention for this patient's hypertension?
Q318
A 38-year-old woman is referred to a cardiologist for evaluation of syncope. Over the past year she has experienced 2 syncopal events. The first event occurred while she was standing, and the second when she laid down on her side. She denies bowel or bladder incontinence during the episodes or palpitations. However, she reports the presence of a low-grade fever over the past 3 months and a recent visit to the emergency department for a transient ischemic attack. She has a history of intravenous drug use but reports not having used in over 5 years. Temperature is 100.0°F (37.8°C), blood pressure is 115/72 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 20/min and regular. A detailed neurologic examination reveals no focal deficits. Cardiac auscultation demonstrates a diastolic "plop" at the cardiac apex. Which of the following findings will most likely be demonstrated on transthoracic echocardiography?
Q319
A 27-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician because of headaches that she has had over the last three weeks. She has not had any significant past medical history though she does recall that various types of cancer run in her family. She has also noticed that she has been gaining some weight, and her feet no longer fit into her favorite shoes. On presentation, her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 159/92 mmHg, pulse is 75/min, and respirations are 16/min. Physical exam reveals 1+ edema in her lower extremities bilaterally. She is placed on captopril and presents to the emergency department two weeks later after a minor motor vehicle accident. She is cleared of any serious injuries, and as part of her workup, labs are drawn with the following results:
BUN: 47 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.4 mg/dL
Which of the following findings would most likely also be seen in this patient?
Q320
A 33-year-old man presents with his recent laboratory results. He has no symptoms currently, but he underwent a medical evaluation as a requirement for taking up a new job. His medical history is not significant. His laboratory reports are as follows:
Blood hemoglobin 13.7 g/dL
Leukocyte count 8,000/mm3
Platelet count 350,000/mm3
Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Serum alanine aminotransferase 16 U/L
Serum aspartate aminotransferase 14 U/L
Serum cholesterol 450 mg/dL
Serum triglyceride 790 mg/dL
Serum LDL cholesterol 150 mg/dL
Serum HDL cholesterol 55 mg/dL
Which of the following findings is most likely to be present on physical examination of this patient?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 311: A 22-year-old woman is brought to the physician by her husband because of a gradual 20-kg (45-lb) weight loss and recurrent episodes of vomiting without diarrhea over the past 2 years. Her last menstrual period was 6 months ago. On physical examination, she appears fatigued and emaciated, and there is bilateral swelling of the retromandibular fossa. Laboratory studies show hypokalemia and a hemoglobin concentration of 8 g/dL. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
A. Decreased triiodothyronine (Correct Answer)
B. Increased testosterone
C. Decreased growth hormone
D. Increased leptin
E. Increased beta-hCG
Explanation: ***Decreased triiodothyronine***
- This patient presents with signs and symptoms suggestive of **bulimia nervosa** (weight loss, recurrent vomiting, menstrual irregularities, parotid gland swelling, hypokalemia). In bulimia, the body adapts to chronic malnutrition and vomiting by **downregulating metabolism**, which includes decreasing thyroid hormone production, particularly **T3 (triiodothyronine)**.
- **Hypothyroidism-like symptoms** (fatigue, bradycardia, cold intolerance) can be seen due to this adaptive metabolic slowing, even in the setting of normal TSH and T4 levels, often referred to as **euthyroid sick syndrome** or non-thyroidal illness syndrome.
*Increased testosterone*
- **Anorexia nervosa** and conditions involving significant weight loss and malnutrition, as seen in this patient with suspected bulimia, are typically associated with **decreased sex hormone production**, including testosterone in women.
- This hormonal dysregulation contributes to features like **amenorrhea** (last menstrual period 6 months ago) and can lead to **osteoporosis**.
*Decreased growth hormone*
- While **chronic malnutrition** can affect the somatotropic axis, the primary impact is often complex with initial compensatory elevations in **growth hormone (GH)** as the body tries to prevent protein catabolism.
- However, the **IGF-1 levels** (insulin-like growth factor 1, a mediator of GH action) are typically decreased in chronic malnutrition, leading to impaired growth and development in younger patients, but not necessarily decreased GH itself.
*Increased leptin*
- **Leptin** is a hormone primarily produced by adipocytes (fat cells) that signals satiety and energy reserves. In states of **significant weight loss and malnutrition**, like that seen in this patient, leptin levels are typically **decreased**, not increased.
- Low leptin levels contribute to the body's adaptive responses to conserve energy and increase appetite, though in eating disorders, psychological factors often override these signals.
*Increased beta-hCG*
- **Beta-hCG** (human chorionic gonadotropin) is a hormone produced during pregnancy. While **amenorrhea** is present, indicating possible anovulation, the patient's severe malnutrition and weight loss would make pregnancy less likely and even if present, the other symptoms point away from pregnancy as the primary underlying cause of her systemic issues.
- The combination of **fatigue, emaciation, hypokalemia, and bilateral retromandibular fossa swelling** (suggestive of parotid gland enlargement from chronic vomiting) is pathognomonic for an eating disorder, not pregnancy.
Question 312: A 54-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after having been hit by a car while riding his bicycle. He was not wearing a helmet. Despite appropriate life-saving measures, he dies 2 hours later because of a severe intracranial hemorrhage. Autopsy of the heart shows general thickening of the left ventricular wall with narrowing of the ventricular chamber. Which of the following conditions is the most likely underlying cause of the described cardiac changes?
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Chronic hypertension (Correct Answer)
C. Chronic heavy drinking
D. Aortic regurgitation
E. Hemochromatosis
Explanation: ***Chronic hypertension***
- **Systemic hypertension** leads to increased **afterload** on the left ventricle, causing **concentric hypertrophy** to normalize wall stress.
- This results in a thickened left ventricular wall and a **reduced ventricular chamber size**, which is a classic finding in long-standing untreated hypertension.
*Sarcoidosis*
- Cardiac sarcoidosis would typically present with **granulomatous inflammation** and could lead to **restrictive cardiomyopathy** or **conduction abnormalities**.
- It is less likely to cause isolated, generalized concentric left ventricular hypertrophy.
*Chronic heavy drinking*
- Chronic heavy alcohol consumption can cause **dilated cardiomyopathy**, characterized by ventricular dilation and systolic dysfunction.
- This is distinct from the concentric hypertrophy and narrowed chamber described.
*Aortic regurgitation*
- **Aortic regurgitation** causes **volume overload** on the left ventricle, leading to **eccentric hypertrophy** (ventricular dilation with increased wall thickness but maintained or increased chamber size).
- This is unlike the "narrowing of the ventricular chamber" seen in concentric hypertrophy.
*Hemochromatosis*
- **Hemochromatosis** causes **iron deposition** in myocardial cells, leading to **restrictive or dilated cardiomyopathy**.
- While it can cause heart failure, it typically does not present as isolated concentric hypertrophy with a narrowed chamber.
Question 313: A 39-year-old female with poorly controlled systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) presents to the emergency room with a cough and pleuritic chest pain. She states that she developed these symptoms 2 days prior. The pain appears to improve when the patient leans forward. She currently takes hydroxychloroquine for her systemic lupus erythematosus but has missed several doses recently. Her temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg, pulse is 115/min, and respirations are 22/min. Physical examination reveals a rise in jugular venous pressure during inspiration. In addition to tachycardia, which of the following EKG patterns is most likely to be seen in this patient?
A. Peaked T waves with flattened P waves
B. Irregularly irregular QRS complexes with no P waves
C. PR depressions and diffuse ST elevations (Correct Answer)
D. ST segment depressions in leads II, III, and aVF
E. Prolonged PR interval with normal QRS complexes
Explanation: ***PR depressions and diffuse ST elevations***
- The patient's symptoms of **pleuritic chest pain** that improves with **leaning forward**, along with a history of **poorly controlled SLE**, are classic for **acute pericarditis**.
- **Elevated JVP during inspiration (Kussmaul's sign)** suggests pericardial involvement with possible early effusion, though this sign is more classically associated with constrictive pericarditis or tamponade. However, the **characteristic ECG findings in acute pericarditis** are diffuse **ST segment elevations** (concave upward) and **PR segment depressions**, typically seen in leads II, III, aVF, and V2-V6.
- These ECG changes reflect the inflammatory process affecting the pericardium and are the hallmark of acute pericarditis, regardless of whether early effusion is present.
*Peaked T waves with flattened P waves*
- This pattern is characteristic of **hyperkalemia**, which presents with muscle weakness, fatigue, and cardiac arrhythmias, none of which are present in this case.
- The patient's presentation with pleuritic chest pain relieved by leaning forward is not consistent with hyperkalemia.
*Irregularly irregular QRS complexes with no P waves*
- This EKG pattern is indicative of **atrial fibrillation**, which presents with palpitations and may cause shortness of breath.
- While tachycardia is present, the irregular rhythm and absence of P waves characteristic of atrial fibrillation are not typical findings in acute pericarditis.
*ST segment depressions in leads II, III, and aVF*
- **ST segment depressions** in these leads typically suggest **inferior myocardial ischemia** or infarction, which would cause chest pain that is usually substernal, pressure-like, and not improved by positional changes.
- The pleuritic nature of the pain and its relief with leaning forward point away from ischemia.
*Prolonged PR interval with normal QRS complexes*
- A prolonged PR interval indicates **first-degree atrioventricular (AV) block**, which is usually asymptomatic and not associated with pleuritic chest pain.
- While SLE can be associated with conduction abnormalities, first-degree AV block would not explain the acute presentation or the characteristic pericarditis symptoms.
Question 314: A 55-year-old man presents to the internal medicine clinic with complaints of numbness and tingling in his fingers that he first noticed 6 months ago. It has been progressively worsening and has reached the point where it is affecting his normal daily activities, such as brushing his teeth. His past medical history is significant for sinusitis and allergic rhinitis since the age of 18, as well as episodic wheezing and shortness of breath since he was 30. He was diagnosed with asthma when he was 22 years old, and subsequently with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) when he was 40. His current medications include albuterol, loratadine, mometasone, and omeprazole. His blood pressure is 128/86 mm Hg, heart rate is 78/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. On physical exam, the patient’s skin is mottled and appears to have a diffuse, lace-like, erythematous discoloration of the arms, legs, and trunk. There is also a small papular rash on his right forearm. Bilateral wheezes are heard on auscultation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. CREST syndrome
B. Microscopic polyangiitis
C. Polyarteritis nodosa
D. Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Correct Answer)
E. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Explanation: ***Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA)***
- This patient presents with **asthma**, **allergic rhinitis**, and **neuropathy** (numbness and tingling), along with **skin findings** (mottled, lace-like discoloration suggesting livedo reticularis, and a papular rash). This constellation of symptoms is highly suggestive of EGPA (formerly Churg-Strauss syndrome).
- EGPA is characterized by **eosinophilia**, **asthma**, and **vasculitis** affecting various organs, often leading to mononeuritis multiplex.
*CREST syndrome*
- CREST syndrome involves **calcinosis**, **Raynaud's phenomenon**, **esophageal dysfunction**, **sclerodactyly**, and **telangiectasias**.
- While it can cause some dermatologic manifestations and esophageal issues, it does not typically present with severe asthma, allergic rhinitis, or systemic vasculitic neuropathy.
*Microscopic polyangiitis*
- Microscopic polyangiitis typically causes **glomerulonephritis** and **pulmonary hemorrhage** and is **pauci-immune** on immunofluorescence for ANCA.
- It does not present with a prominent history of asthma, allergic rhinitis, or significant eosinophilia.
*Polyarteritis nodosa*
- Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a **necrotizing vasculitis** of medium-sized arteries that can cause **neuropathy**, **skin lesions** (such as livedo reticularis and palpable purpura), and **renal involvement**.
- However, it typically spares the pulmonary circulation and is **not associated with asthma** or a history of allergic rhinitis and eosinophilia, which are key features in this case.
*Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)*
- GPA typically involves the **upper and lower respiratory tracts** and **kidneys**, often presenting with **sinusitis**, **pulmonary infiltrates**, and **glomerulonephritis**.
- While sinusitis is present, the prominent history of asthma, allergic rhinitis, and neuropathy with eosinophilic features differentiate this case from GPA.
Question 315: A 42-year-old man presents to his dermatologist with a rash on the extensor surfaces of his elbows and knees which has occurred episodically ever since he was a teenager. The patient was recently diagnosed with essential hypertension and was prescribed lisinopril by his primary care physician. The vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 128/91 mm Hg, and heart rate 82/min. The physical examination reveals sharply demarcated, erythematous plaques with silvery-white scales on the back of his elbows and front of his knees. He has less than 3% of the total body surface area affected. Which of the following is the best initial therapy for this patient’s condition?
A. Methotrexate
B. Cyclosporine
C. Oral prednisolone
D. Topical clobetasol and/or topical calcipotriol (Correct Answer)
E. Phototherapy
Explanation: ***Topical clobetasol and/or topical calcipotriol***
- This patient presents with **psoriasis**, characterized by sharply demarcated **erythematous plaques with silvery-white scales** on extensor surfaces. Given that less than 3% of the total body surface area is affected, **topical therapies** are the first-line treatment.
- **Clobetasol** is a high-potency topical corticosteroid that reduces inflammation, and **calcipotriol** is a vitamin D analog that helps normalize epidermal cell growth; using them in combination or alone is appropriate for limited plaque psoriasis.
*Methotrexate*
- **Methotrexate** is a systemic agent typically reserved for patients with **moderate to severe psoriasis** (e.g., >10% BSA involvement, psoriatic arthritis, or involvement of critical areas like the face or genitals) or when topical treatments fail.
- Its use is associated with potential side effects such as **hepatotoxicity** and **bone marrow suppression**, making it unsuitable as an initial therapy for mild disease.
*Cyclosporine*
- **Cyclosporine** is a systemic immunosuppressant primarily used for **severe, refractory psoriasis** due to its rapid onset of action.
- Significant side effects include **nephrotoxicity** and **hypertension**, making it a second or third-line agent after failure of other systemic treatments.
*Oral prednisolone*
- **Oral corticosteroids** are generally **avoided in psoriasis** because they can precipitate an unstable form of psoriasis, particularly **pustular psoriasis**, upon withdrawal.
- While they can temporarily reduce inflammation, the risk of rebound flares and adverse effects outweighs their benefits for chronic management of plaque psoriasis.
*Phototherapy*
- **Phototherapy**, such as narrowband ultraviolet B (NB-UVB), is considered for patients with **moderate to severe psoriasis** or those who have significant body surface area involvement (>5% BSA) or failure of topical therapies.
- It involves regular clinic visits for light exposure and is not the initial choice for localized, mild plaque psoriasis.
Question 316: A 72-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of severe, acute, right leg pain for 2 hours. The patient's symptoms started suddenly while he was doing household chores. He has no history of leg pain at rest or with exertion. Yesterday, he returned home after a 6-hour bus ride from his grandson's home. He has hypertension treated with ramipril. He appears uncomfortable. His temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), pulse is 105/min and irregular, and blood pressure is 146/92 mm Hg. The right lower extremity is cool and tender to touch. A photograph of the limb is shown. Femoral pulses are palpable bilaterally; popliteal and pedal pulses are decreased on the right side. Sensation to pinprick and light touch and muscle strength are decreased in the right lower extremity. Which of the following is most likely to confirm the underlying source of this patient's condition?
A. Biopsy of a superficial vein
B. Doppler ultrasonography of the legs
C. Digital subtraction angiography
D. Manometry
E. Echocardiography (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Echocardiography***
- The patient's presentation with acute, severe leg pain, coolness, decreased pulses, and neurological deficits in the right lower extremity, along with an **irregular pulse** (suggesting **atrial fibrillation**), points to an **arterial embolism**.
- An **echocardiogram** is crucial to identify the source of the embolus, most commonly a **left atrial thrombus** due to atrial fibrillation, which would then confirm the underlying cause.
*Biopsy of a superficial vein*
- A biopsy of a superficial vein would be indicated for conditions like **vasculitis** or **thrombophlebitis**, which are not consistent with the acute, severe arterial occlusion observed.
- This test would not help in identifying the source of an arterial embolus causing acute limb ischemia.
*Doppler ultrasonography of the legs*
- While **Doppler ultrasonography** can confirm the presence of **arterial occlusion** and assess flow, it does not identify the **source** of an embolus.
- It is more useful for diagnosing deep vein thrombosis or chronic arterial insufficiency, which are not the primary concern here.
*Digital subtraction angiography*
- **Digital subtraction angiography** is an invasive procedure that can precisely map the arterial tree and identify the location of the **occlusion**.
- However, it primarily pinpoints the site of the blockage and doesn't reveal the **etiology** or the source of an embolus in the heart.
*Manometry*
- **Manometry** is used to measure pressures, typically in the gastrointestinal tract or for compartment syndrome, and is not relevant for diagnosing the source of an arterial embolus.
- This diagnostic tool has no role in the investigation of acute limb ischemia or its cardiac origin.
Question 317: A 55-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a wellness checkup. He states that he generally feels well and has no complaints at this time. The patient consumes alcohol frequently, eats a high sodium diet, and is sedentary. His temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 167/108 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. The patient is 5'10" tall and weighs 220 lbs (BMI 31.5 kg/m²). The patient's blood pressure at his last 2 appointments were 159/100 mmHg and 162/99 mmHg, respectively. His physician wants to intervene to manage his blood pressure. Which of the following is the most effective lifestyle intervention for this patient's hypertension?
A. Exercise
B. DASH diet (Correct Answer)
C. Reduce alcohol consumption
D. Sodium restriction
E. Weight loss
Explanation: ***DASH diet***
- The **DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet** is a comprehensive dietary plan rich in fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy, and reduced in saturated and total fats. It is the most effective single lifestyle intervention for reducing **blood pressure (BP)**.
- This patient has **stage 2 hypertension** and multiple risk factors including obesity, frequent alcohol consumption, and a high-sodium diet, making a holistic dietary approach crucial for significant BP reduction.
*Exercise*
- While **regular exercise** is beneficial for overall cardiovascular health and can help manage hypertension, it is generally less effective than the DASH diet for initial, significant **blood pressure reduction** in a patient with stage 2 hypertension.
- The patient's **sedentary lifestyle** contributes to his hypertension, but exercise alone may not achieve the desired BP control as effectively as a comprehensive dietary change.
*Reduce alcohol consumption*
- **Excessive alcohol intake** is a risk factor for hypertension, and reducing consumption can lower blood pressure. However, its effect is typically less pronounced compared to the **DASH diet** in achieving major BP reductions.
- The patient's "frequent" alcohol consumption suggests this is an important area for intervention, but it's part of a broader lifestyle modification rather than the single most effective treatment.
*Sodium restriction*
- A **high sodium diet** is a significant contributor to hypertension, and **sodium restriction** is a key component of managing blood pressure. However, the DASH diet inherently incorporates sodium restriction along with other beneficial dietary changes.
- While important, focusing solely on sodium restriction often yields less comprehensive and sustained BP reduction compared to the **multi-faceted approach** of the DASH diet.
*Weight loss*
- Given the patient's **obesity (BMI 31.5 kg/m²)**, **weight loss** is a critical intervention for blood pressure control and overall health.
- However, achieving significant weight loss often requires a combination of dietary changes and increased physical activity, making the **DASH diet** a more direct and often more achievable initial step for BP reduction.
Question 318: A 38-year-old woman is referred to a cardiologist for evaluation of syncope. Over the past year she has experienced 2 syncopal events. The first event occurred while she was standing, and the second when she laid down on her side. She denies bowel or bladder incontinence during the episodes or palpitations. However, she reports the presence of a low-grade fever over the past 3 months and a recent visit to the emergency department for a transient ischemic attack. She has a history of intravenous drug use but reports not having used in over 5 years. Temperature is 100.0°F (37.8°C), blood pressure is 115/72 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 20/min and regular. A detailed neurologic examination reveals no focal deficits. Cardiac auscultation demonstrates a diastolic "plop" at the cardiac apex. Which of the following findings will most likely be demonstrated on transthoracic echocardiography?
A. Flail mitral valve leaflet
B. Left ventricular mass
C. Decreased left ventricular ejection fraction
D. Left atrial pedunculated mass (Correct Answer)
E. Patent foramen ovale
Explanation: ***Left atrial pedunculated mass***
- The patient's presentation with **syncope** in varying positions (standing and lying down), a **low-grade fever**, history of **transient ischemic attack (TIA)**, and a **diastolic "plop"** strongly suggests a **left atrial myxoma**.
- A left atrial myxoma is a **pedunculated tumor** that can intermittently obstruct mitral valve flow, leading to syncope, and can embolize, causing TIAs.
*Flail mitral valve leaflet*
- A flail mitral valve leaflet typically causes severe **mitral regurgitation**, characterized by a **systolic murmur**.
- While it can lead to syncope due to reduced cardiac output, it would not typically present with a "diastolic plop" or TIA in this manner.
*Decreased left ventricular ejection fraction*
- A decreased left ventricular ejection fraction would cause syncope due to **heart failure** or **arrhythmias**, but it does not explain the "diastolic plop" or the TIA, especially with a history of fever.
- The "plop" sound is highly specific for an **intracardiac mass** obstructing flow.
*Left ventricular mass*
- A left ventricular mass, such as a thrombus or tumor, could cause syncope and embolization (TIA).
- However, it is unlikely to produce a **diastolic "plop"** sound, which is characteristic of a mass prolapsing into the mitral orifice during diastole.
*Patent foramen ovale*
- A patent foramen ovale (PFO) can cause **paradoxical emboli** leading to TIA, especially in the context of intravenous drug use history.
- However, a PFO does not explain the recurrent syncope in various positions, the **low-grade fever**, or the specific **diastolic "plop"** on auscultation.
Question 319: A 27-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician because of headaches that she has had over the last three weeks. She has not had any significant past medical history though she does recall that various types of cancer run in her family. She has also noticed that she has been gaining some weight, and her feet no longer fit into her favorite shoes. On presentation, her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 159/92 mmHg, pulse is 75/min, and respirations are 16/min. Physical exam reveals 1+ edema in her lower extremities bilaterally. She is placed on captopril and presents to the emergency department two weeks later after a minor motor vehicle accident. She is cleared of any serious injuries, and as part of her workup, labs are drawn with the following results:
BUN: 47 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.4 mg/dL
Which of the following findings would most likely also be seen in this patient?
A. Mass present in adrenal cortex
B. Atherosclerotic plaques blocking blood flow
C. Mass present in adrenal medulla
D. No lesions present
E. String-of-beads appearance on angiography (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***String-of-beads appearance on angiography***
- The patient's symptoms of **headaches**, **weight gain**, **bilateral lower extremity edema**, and **hypertension** (159/92 mmHg) in a young woman, especially with the presentation of acute kidney injury after beginning an ACE inhibitor (captopril), are highly suggestive of **renovascular hypertension** due to **fibromuscular dysplasia (FMD)**.
- FMD characteristically presents as a **"string-of-beads"** appearance on renal angiography due to areas of stenosis alternating with aneurysmal dilations in the renal arteries.
*Mass present in adrenal cortex*
- A mass in the adrenal cortex typically causes **hyperaldosteronism (Conn syndrome)** or **Cushing's syndrome**. While hyperaldosteronism can cause hypertension and hypokalemia, it does not explain the acute kidney injury with ACE inhibitor treatment.
- Cushing's syndrome involves **central obesity**, **moon facies**, and **striae**, which are not described.
*Atherosclerotic plaques blocking blood flow*
- **Atherosclerotic renovascular disease** typically affects older individuals with a history of cardiovascular risk factors (diabetes, hyperlipidemia, smoking). This patient is young and has no such history.
- While it can cause renal artery stenosis and acute kidney injury with ACE inhibitors, the demographic profile does not fit.
*Mass present in adrenal medulla*
- A mass in the adrenal medulla suggests a **pheochromocytoma**, which causes **episodic hypertension**, **palpitations**, **sweating**, and **anxiety**.
- The patient's hypertension is sustained, and she does not present with classic symptoms of a pheochromocytoma.
*No lesions present*
- The patient's clinical presentation, including the development of acute kidney injury after starting captopril, strongly indicates an underlying renovascular pathology.
- The absence of lesions would not explain the severe, sustained hypertension and the adverse reaction to captopril.
Question 320: A 33-year-old man presents with his recent laboratory results. He has no symptoms currently, but he underwent a medical evaluation as a requirement for taking up a new job. His medical history is not significant. His laboratory reports are as follows:
Blood hemoglobin 13.7 g/dL
Leukocyte count 8,000/mm3
Platelet count 350,000/mm3
Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Serum alanine aminotransferase 16 U/L
Serum aspartate aminotransferase 14 U/L
Serum cholesterol 450 mg/dL
Serum triglyceride 790 mg/dL
Serum LDL cholesterol 150 mg/dL
Serum HDL cholesterol 55 mg/dL
Which of the following findings is most likely to be present on physical examination of this patient?
A. Eruptive xanthomas over back
B. Xanthelasma
C. Palmar xanthomas in flexor creases (Correct Answer)
D. Achilles tendon xanthoma
E. Metacarpophalangeal extensor tendon xanthoma
Explanation: ***Palmar xanthomas in flexor creases***
- This patient presents with significantly elevated **triglycerides (790 mg/dL)** and **total cholesterol (450 mg/dL)** with relatively normal **LDL (150 mg/dL)** and **HDL (55 mg/dL)**.
- This lipid profile pattern—**combined elevation of cholesterol and triglycerides with disproportionately normal/low LDL**—is characteristic of **familial dysbetalipoproteinemia (Type III hyperlipoproteinemia)**.
- **Palmar xanthomas** appearing in the palmar creases are **pathognomonic** for Type III hyperlipoproteinemia, caused by accumulation of chylomicron and VLDL remnants due to defective apolipoprotein E.
- While uncommon even in Type III, palmar xanthomas are the most specific physical finding for this diagnosis.
*Eruptive xanthomas over back*
- **Eruptive xanthomas** typically occur with **very high triglycerides (>1000 mg/dL)**, presenting as sudden crops of small, yellowish-red papules with erythematous halos.
- This patient's triglycerides at 790 mg/dL are elevated but below the threshold that typically produces eruptive xanthomas.
- Eruptive xanthomas are more commonly seen in **Type I or Type V hyperlipoproteinemia** with severe hypertriglyceridemia.
*Xanthelasma*
- **Xanthelasma** are yellowish plaques on the eyelids, the most common type of xanthoma overall.
- Can occur with **any lipid disorder** or even with normal lipid levels in some cases.
- While possible in this patient, xanthelasma lack the diagnostic specificity of palmar xanthomas for Type III hyperlipoproteinemia.
*Achilles tendon xanthoma*
- **Achilles tendon xanthomas** are characteristic of **familial hypercholesterolemia (Type IIa)**, which features markedly elevated **LDL cholesterol (typically >190 mg/dL)** due to defective LDL receptors.
- This patient's LDL is only 150 mg/dL, making familial hypercholesterolemia unlikely.
- The combined cholesterol and triglyceride elevation points away from pure LDL elevation.
*Metacarpophalangeal extensor tendon xanthoma*
- **Tendon xanthomas** on the extensor tendons are also associated with **familial hypercholesterolemia (Type IIa)**.
- Like Achilles tendon xanthomas, these require very high **LDL cholesterol**, which is not the primary abnormality here.
- The patient's lipid profile does not support this diagnosis.