A laboratory technician processes basic metabolic panels for two patients. Patient A is 18 years old and patient B is 83 years old. Neither patient takes any medications regularly. Serum laboratory studies show:
Patient A Patient B
Na+ (mEq/L) 145 141
K+ (mEq/L) 3.9 4.4
Cl- (mEq/L) 103 109
HCO3- (mEq/L) 22 21
BUN (mg/dL) 18 12
Cr (mg/dL) 0.8 1.2
Glucose (mg/dL) 105 98
Which of the following most likely accounts for the difference in creatinine seen between these two patients?
Q302
A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with pain that started after he visited his daughter as she moved into her new apartment. The patient states that the pain is likely related to all the traveling he has done and helping his daughter move and set up furniture. The patient has a past medical history of obesity, type II diabetes, multiple concussions while he served in the army, and GERD. He is currently taking metformin, lisinopril, omeprazole, and a multivitamin. On physical exam, pain is elicited upon palpation of the patient's lower back. Flexion of the patient's leg results in pain that travels down the patient's lower extremity. The patient's cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal exam are within normal limits. Rectal exam reveals normal rectal tone. The patient denies any difficulty caring for himself, defecating, or urinating. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q303
A 36-year-old woman comes to the gynecologist because of a 4-month history of irregular menstrual cycles. Menses occur at irregular 15 to 45-day intervals and last 1–2 days with minimal flow. She also reports a milk-like discharge from her nipples for 3 months, as well as a history of fatigue and muscle and joint pain. She does not have abdominal pain, fever, or headache. She has recently gained 2.5 kg (5.5 lb) of weight. She was diagnosed with schizophrenia and started on aripiprazole by a psychiatrist 8 months ago. She has hypothyroidism but has not been taking levothyroxine for 6 months. She does not smoke or consume alcohol. She appears healthy and anxious. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows vaginal atrophy. Visual field and skin examination are normal. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 12.7 g/dL
Serum
Glucose 88 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.7 mg/dL
Thyroid-stimulating hormone 16.3 μU/mL
Cortisol (8AM) 18 μg/dL
Prolactin 88 ng/mL
Urinalysis is normal. An x-ray of the chest and ultrasound of the pelvis show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the nipple discharge in this patient?
Q304
A 69-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for a general checkup. The patient currently has no complaints. He has a past medical history of diabetes mellitus type II, hypertension, depression, obesity, and a myocardial infarction seven years ago. The patient's prescribed medications are metoprolol, aspirin, lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, fluoxetine, metformin, and insulin. The patient states that he has not been filling his prescriptions regularly and that he can not remember what medications he has been taking. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 96/min, blood pressure is 180/120 mmHg, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air.
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 7 mg/dL
Glucose: 170 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.2 mg/dL
On physical exam which of the following cardiac findings would be expected?
Q305
A 63-year-old woman comes to the physician with a 3-month history of progressively worsening right calf pain. She reports that the pain occurs after walking for about 10 minutes and resolves when she rests. She has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. She takes lisinopril and simvastatin daily. She has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 34 years. Her pulse is 78/min and blood pressure is 142/96 mm Hg. Femoral and popliteal pulses are 2+ bilaterally. Left pedal pulses are 1+; right pedal pulses are absent. Remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Ankle-brachial index (ABI) is 0.65 in the right leg and 0.9 in the left leg. This patient is at greatest risk of which of the following conditions?
Q306
A 53-year-old woman comes to the physician because of pain in her ankle. She twisted her right ankle inward when walking on uneven ground the previous day. She describes the pain as 6 out of 10 in intensity. She is able to bear weight on the ankle and ambulate. Three weeks ago, she had an episode of gastroenteritis that lasted for two days and resolved spontaneously. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. Her father has type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic renal failure. Her mother has hypothyroidism and a history of alcohol abuse. The patient drinks 8–10 beers each week and does not smoke or use illicit drugs. She adheres to a strict vegetarian diet. Current medications include metformin, atorvastatin, and lisinopril. Her temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), heart rate is 84/min, and blood pressure is 132/80 mm Hg. Examination of the right ankle shows edema along the lateral aspect. She has pain with eversion and tenderness to palpation on the lateral malleolus. The foot is warm to touch and has dry skin. Pedal pulses are palpable. She has decreased sensation to light touch on the plantar and dorsal aspects of the big toe. She has full range of motion with 5/5 strength in flexion and extension of the big toe. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 15.1 g/dL
Hemoglobin A1c 8.1%
Leukocyte count 7,200/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 82 μm3
Serum
Na+ 135 mEq/L
K+ 4.0 mEq/L
Cl- 101 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 24 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.3 mg/dL
Thyroid-stimulating hormone 1.2 μU/mL
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the decreased sensation in this patient?
Q307
A 29-year-old woman presents with a skin rash that has spread on her arm over the last few days. She also complains of fever, headache, joint pain, and stiffness of the neck associated with the onset of the rash. On physical examination, there is an annular, red rash with a clear area in the center similar to a bull’s-eye (see image). The patient says she went on a camping trip to Connecticut last month but does not remember being bitten by an insect. Which of the following could result if this condition remains untreated in this patient?
Q308
A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician because of irregular menses and generalized fatigue for the past 4 months. Menses previously occurred at regular 25- to 29-day intervals and lasted for 5 days but now occur at 45- to 60-day intervals. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. She is 155 cm (5 ft 1 in) tall and weighs 89 kg (196 lb); BMI is 37 kg/m2. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 146/100 mm Hg. Examination shows facial hair as well as comedones on the face and back. There are multiple ecchymotic patches on the trunk. Neurological examination shows weakness of the iliopsoas and biceps muscles bilaterally. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.1 g/dL
Leukocyte count 13,500/mm3
Platelet count 510,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 145 mEq/L
K+ 3.3 mEq/L
Cl- 100 mEq/L
Glucose 188 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q309
A 27-year-old man presents to the emergency department for altered mental status. The patient was found napping in a local market and brought to the hospital. The patient has a past medical history of polysubstance abuse and is homeless. His temperature is 104°F (40.0°C), blood pressure is 100/52 mmHg, pulse is 133/min, respirations are 25/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for an altered man. Cardiopulmonary exam reveals a murmur over the left lower sternal border. A bedside ultrasound reveals a vegetation on the tricuspid valve. The patient is ultimately started on IV fluids, norepinephrine, vasopressin, vancomycin, and piperacillin-tazobactam. A central line is immediately placed in the internal jugular vein and the femoral vein secondary to poor IV access. Cardiothoracic surgery subsequently intervenes to remove the vegetation. While recovering in the ICU, days 3-5 are notable for an improvement in the patient’s symptoms. Two additional peripheral IVs are placed while in the ICU on day 5, and the femoral line is removed. On day 6, the patient's fever and hemodynamic status worsen. Though he is currently responding and not complaining of any symptoms including headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, or pain, he states he is feeling weak. Jolt accentuation of headache is negative and his abdominal exam is benign. A chest radiograph, urinalysis, and echocardiogram are unremarkable though the patient’s blood cultures are positive when drawn. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q310
A 42-year-old man presents to the clinic for a several-month history of fatigue, and it is starting to affect his work. He often needs to sneak away in the middle of the day to take naps or else he cannot focus and is at risk of falling asleep at his desk. He has been feeling like this for approximately 1 year. Otherwise, he feels healthy and takes no medications. On further questioning, he also had constipation and thinks he has gained some weight. He denies shortness of breath, chest pain, lightheadedness, or blood in his stool. The vital signs include: pulse 56/min, blood pressure 124/78 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation 99% on room air. The physical exam is notable only for slightly dry skin. The complete blood count (CBC) is within normal limits, and the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is 8.0 μU/mL. Which of the following is the next best treatment for this patient?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 301: A laboratory technician processes basic metabolic panels for two patients. Patient A is 18 years old and patient B is 83 years old. Neither patient takes any medications regularly. Serum laboratory studies show:
Patient A Patient B
Na+ (mEq/L) 145 141
K+ (mEq/L) 3.9 4.4
Cl- (mEq/L) 103 109
HCO3- (mEq/L) 22 21
BUN (mg/dL) 18 12
Cr (mg/dL) 0.8 1.2
Glucose (mg/dL) 105 98
Which of the following most likely accounts for the difference in creatinine seen between these two patients?
A. Volume depletion
B. Low body mass index
C. Insulin resistance
D. Normal aging (Correct Answer)
E. High serum aldosterone levels
Explanation: ***Normal aging***
- **Creatinine** is a byproduct of **muscle metabolism**, and serum levels reflect both production (muscle mass) and clearance (GFR).
- In **elderly individuals**, **GFR progressively declines** with age (approximately 1 mL/min/year after age 30).
- However, **muscle mass also decreases** with aging (sarcopenia), leading to **reduced creatinine production**.
- Patient B's creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL appears only mildly elevated, but this likely **underestimates the true decline in renal function** because decreased muscle mass reduces baseline creatinine production.
- This is why **estimated GFR calculations** (using Cockcroft-Gault or MDRD equations) incorporate age and weight to account for this phenomenon.
*Volume depletion*
- **Volume depletion** typically leads to an increase in both **BUN** and **creatinine**, often with a disproportionately higher **BUN:Cr ratio** (>20:1).
- Patient B's BUN is **lower** (12 mg/dL) than Patient A's (18 mg/dL), with a BUN:Cr ratio of 10:1, which argues **against volume depletion**.
*Low body mass index*
- **Low BMI** generally correlates with lower muscle mass, which would result in a **lower serum creatinine** level, not higher.
- Patient B has a **higher creatinine** compared to Patient A, making low BMI an unlikely explanation for the observed difference.
*Insulin resistance*
- **Insulin resistance** is associated with altered glucose metabolism and can contribute to conditions like diabetes and chronic kidney disease over time.
- However, it does not directly explain the **age-related creatinine differences** between these two patients with normal glucose levels and no evidence of diabetic nephropathy.
*High serum aldosterone levels*
- **High aldosterone levels** primarily affect **sodium and potassium balance** and fluid retention (causing hypokalemia and mild hypernatremia).
- Both patients have **normal electrolytes**, and aldosterone does not directly account for **age-related creatinine differences**.
Question 302: A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with pain that started after he visited his daughter as she moved into her new apartment. The patient states that the pain is likely related to all the traveling he has done and helping his daughter move and set up furniture. The patient has a past medical history of obesity, type II diabetes, multiple concussions while he served in the army, and GERD. He is currently taking metformin, lisinopril, omeprazole, and a multivitamin. On physical exam, pain is elicited upon palpation of the patient's lower back. Flexion of the patient's leg results in pain that travels down the patient's lower extremity. The patient's cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal exam are within normal limits. Rectal exam reveals normal rectal tone. The patient denies any difficulty caring for himself, defecating, or urinating. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. NSAIDS and activity as tolerated (Correct Answer)
B. MRI of the spine
C. Oxycodone and bed rest
D. Oxycodone and activity as tolerated
E. NSAIDS and bed rest
Explanation: ***NSAIDS and activity as tolerated***
- The patient presents with classic symptoms of **acute low back pain** with **radicular symptoms** (pain radiating down the leg) following exertion, but without any **red flag symptoms** such as **fever**, **weight loss**, **neurological deficits**, or **cauda equina syndrome**.
- Initial management for uncomplicated acute low back pain, including those with radiculopathy, typically involves **NSAIDs or acetaminophen** for pain relief and **maintaining activity as tolerated** to prevent deconditioning and chronicity.
*MRI of the spine*
- An MRI is generally not indicated as the **initial step** for acute, uncomplicated lower back pain unless **red flag symptoms** or a suspicion of **serious underlying pathology** (e.g., cauda equina syndrome, epidural abscess, malignancy) are present.
- Doing an MRI too early in these cases can lead to identifying incidental findings, thus causing **unnecessary investigations** and interventions.
*Oxycodone and bed rest*
- **Oxycodone** (an opioid) is generally reserved for **severe pain** unresponsive to first-line agents and carries risks of **dependence** and **side effects**; it is not a first-line therapy for this presentation given the lack of severe red flags.
- **Bed rest** is **contraindicated** for most cases of acute low back pain as it can worsen symptoms and lead to deconditioning; **activity as tolerated** is preferred.
*Oxycodone and activity as tolerated*
- While **activity as tolerated** is beneficial, the use of **oxycodone** as a primary treatment for initial, uncomplicated low back pain is generally **inappropriate** due to the risks associated with opioid use.
- The patient's symptoms do not suggest a need for strong opioid analgesia at this stage.
*NSAIDS and bed rest*
- **NSAIDs** are an appropriate initial analgesic, but **bed rest** is **not recommended** for acute low back pain.
- Promoting activity helps to prevent stiffness, muscle weakness, and chronicity of pain.
Question 303: A 36-year-old woman comes to the gynecologist because of a 4-month history of irregular menstrual cycles. Menses occur at irregular 15 to 45-day intervals and last 1–2 days with minimal flow. She also reports a milk-like discharge from her nipples for 3 months, as well as a history of fatigue and muscle and joint pain. She does not have abdominal pain, fever, or headache. She has recently gained 2.5 kg (5.5 lb) of weight. She was diagnosed with schizophrenia and started on aripiprazole by a psychiatrist 8 months ago. She has hypothyroidism but has not been taking levothyroxine for 6 months. She does not smoke or consume alcohol. She appears healthy and anxious. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows vaginal atrophy. Visual field and skin examination are normal. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 12.7 g/dL
Serum
Glucose 88 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.7 mg/dL
Thyroid-stimulating hormone 16.3 μU/mL
Cortisol (8AM) 18 μg/dL
Prolactin 88 ng/mL
Urinalysis is normal. An x-ray of the chest and ultrasound of the pelvis show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the nipple discharge in this patient?
A. Prolactinoma
B. Hypothyroidism (Correct Answer)
C. Thyrotropic pituitary adenoma
D. Cushing disease
E. Ectopic prolactin production
Explanation: ***Hypothyroidism***
- The patient has a significantly elevated **TSH (16.3 μU/mL)** and a history of non-compliance with **levothyroxine** for 6 months, strongly indicating uncontrolled hypothyroidism.
- **Hypothyroidism** can lead to **increased TRH** (thyrotropin-releasing hormone) from the hypothalamus, which stimulates not only TSH but also **prolactin** release, causing galactorrhea.
- Note: **Aripiprazole** is a partial dopamine agonist and typically does **not** cause hyperprolactinemia (unlike typical antipsychotics or risperidone), making hypothyroidism the primary driver here.
*Prolactinoma*
- While the patient has **hyperprolactinemia (prolactin 88 ng/mL)** and galactorrhea, a prolactinoma usually presents with prolactin levels **significantly higher** (often >200 ng/mL, or >100 ng/mL in microadenomas) than observed here.
- The primary driver for the hyperprolactinemia in this case is more likely the **uncorrected hypothyroidism**, which can also cause moderate elevation of prolactin.
*Thyrotropic pituitary adenoma*
- A **thyrotropic pituitary adenoma** (TSH-secreting adenoma) would cause elevated TSH accompanied by **elevated thyroid hormone levels** (hyperthyroidism), which contradicts this patient's clinical picture of hypothyroidism.
- This patient exhibits **hypothyroidism** due to non-adherence to medication, not hyperthyroidism induced by a TSH-secreting tumor.
*Cushing disease*
- **Cushing disease** is characterized by elevated **cortisol** due to an ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma, leading to symptoms like central obesity, moon facies, and striae; these are not reported.
- While some forms of Cushing syndrome can cause menstrual irregularities, it does not typically cause **galactorrhea** or significantly elevated prolactin levels as seen in this patient.
*Ectopic prolactin production*
- **Ectopic prolactin production** is a rare cause of hyperprolactinemia, typically associated with large tumors, most commonly **renal cell carcinoma** or other neuroendocrine tumors (e.g., lung carcinoid).
- Given the patient's severe **hypothyroidism**, it is a far more common and likely explanation for her hyperprolactinemia and galactorrhea than ectopic production.
Question 304: A 69-year-old male presents to his primary care provider for a general checkup. The patient currently has no complaints. He has a past medical history of diabetes mellitus type II, hypertension, depression, obesity, and a myocardial infarction seven years ago. The patient's prescribed medications are metoprolol, aspirin, lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, fluoxetine, metformin, and insulin. The patient states that he has not been filling his prescriptions regularly and that he can not remember what medications he has been taking. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), pulse is 96/min, blood pressure is 180/120 mmHg, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air.
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 7 mg/dL
Glucose: 170 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.2 mg/dL
On physical exam which of the following cardiac findings would be expected?
A. Heart sound after S2
B. Normal S1 and S2
C. Heart sound prior to S1 (Correct Answer)
D. Holosystolic murmur at the apex
E. Fixed splitting of S1 and S2
Explanation: ***Heart sound prior to S1***
- An S4 heart sound, which occurs **prior to S1**, is common in this patient due to **hypertension** and **diastolic dysfunction**, indicating a stiff and non-compliant ventricle.
- The patient's uncontrolled **hypertension (180/120 mmHg)** suggests increased left ventricular afterload, leading to **ventricular hypertrophy** and reduced ventricular compliance.
*Heart sound after S2*
- A heart sound after S2 typically refers to an **S3 gallop**, which indicates **systolic dysfunction** or **volume overload**.
- While the patient has a history of MI, his current presentation does not strongly suggest acute decompensated heart failure with volume overload, and S3 is less specific for the long-standing hypertension indicated here.
*Normal S1 and S2*
- Given the patient's long-standing, uncontrolled **hypertension** and history of myocardial infarction, it is highly unlikely that he would have entirely normal heart sounds.
- The presence of chronic cardiovascular stressors usually leads to **detectable cardiac changes**, such as an S4 gallop, due to ventricular remodeling.
*Holosystolic murmur at the apex*
- A **holosystolic murmur at the apex** is characteristic of **mitral regurgitation**.
- While possible in patients with MI, there is no specific information in the vignette to suggest mitral valve pathology (e.g., progressive shortness of breath, pulmonary edema) as the most expected finding.
*Fixed splitting of S1 and S2*
- **Fixed splitting of S2** is a classic finding in **atrial septal defect (ASD)**, which is not suggested by this patient's medical history or current presentation.
- Fixed splitting refers to the lack of respiratory variation in the splitting of the second heart sound, which is pathognomonic for ASD.
- S1 splitting is a normal variant and is not a pathological finding in this context.
Question 305: A 63-year-old woman comes to the physician with a 3-month history of progressively worsening right calf pain. She reports that the pain occurs after walking for about 10 minutes and resolves when she rests. She has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. She takes lisinopril and simvastatin daily. She has smoked two packs of cigarettes daily for 34 years. Her pulse is 78/min and blood pressure is 142/96 mm Hg. Femoral and popliteal pulses are 2+ bilaterally. Left pedal pulses are 1+; right pedal pulses are absent. Remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Ankle-brachial index (ABI) is 0.65 in the right leg and 0.9 in the left leg. This patient is at greatest risk of which of the following conditions?
A. Acute myocardial infarction (Correct Answer)
B. Acute mesenteric ischemia
C. Lower extremity lymphedema
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Limb amputation
Explanation: ***Acute myocardial infarction***
- The patient has significant risk factors for **atherosclerosis**, including advanced age, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a 34-year history of heavy smoking, which significantly increases the risk of **coronary artery disease** and subsequent acute myocardial infarction.
- Her presenting symptom of **intermittent claudication** (calf pain with exertion, resolving with rest) with an ABI of 0.65 in the right leg indicates significant peripheral artery disease, which is a strong predictor of systemic atherosclerosis and thus a higher risk for cardiovascular events like MI.
*Acute mesenteric ischemia*
- While atherosclerosis is a risk factor, acute mesenteric ischemia typically presents with **severe, disproportionate abdominal pain** after eating, not calf pain.
- There are no symptoms in the patient's presentation that suggest acute mesenteric ischemia, such as **postprandial pain** or significant changes in bowel habits.
*Lower extremity lymphedema*
- Lymphedema is characterized by **chronic swelling** of the affected limb, often with skin changes like thickening and hyperpigmentation, and typically does not cause exertional pain that resolves with rest.
- The patient's symptoms are classic for vascular insufficiency, not lymphatic obstruction.
*Deep vein thrombosis*
- DVT presents with **acute onset of unilateral leg pain**, swelling, warmth, and erythema, which is not consistent with this patient's chronic, exertional pain pattern.
- The symptoms are relieved with rest, which is characteristic of arterial insufficiency, not venous thrombosis.
*Limb amputation*
- While severe **peripheral artery disease (PAD)** can eventually lead to limb amputation due to critical limb ischemia, acute myocardial infarction represents a more immediate and life-threatening risk given the patient's constellation of risk factors and systemic atherosclerosis indicated by her PAD.
- **Critical limb ischemia** (rest pain, non-healing ulcers, gangrene) typically precedes amputation, and while the patient has PAD, she is not yet at that stage; AMI is a more direct, immediate risk given overall cardiovascular burden.
Question 306: A 53-year-old woman comes to the physician because of pain in her ankle. She twisted her right ankle inward when walking on uneven ground the previous day. She describes the pain as 6 out of 10 in intensity. She is able to bear weight on the ankle and ambulate. Three weeks ago, she had an episode of gastroenteritis that lasted for two days and resolved spontaneously. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. Her father has type 2 diabetes mellitus and chronic renal failure. Her mother has hypothyroidism and a history of alcohol abuse. The patient drinks 8–10 beers each week and does not smoke or use illicit drugs. She adheres to a strict vegetarian diet. Current medications include metformin, atorvastatin, and lisinopril. Her temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), heart rate is 84/min, and blood pressure is 132/80 mm Hg. Examination of the right ankle shows edema along the lateral aspect. She has pain with eversion and tenderness to palpation on the lateral malleolus. The foot is warm to touch and has dry skin. Pedal pulses are palpable. She has decreased sensation to light touch on the plantar and dorsal aspects of the big toe. She has full range of motion with 5/5 strength in flexion and extension of the big toe. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 15.1 g/dL
Hemoglobin A1c 8.1%
Leukocyte count 7,200/mm3
Mean corpuscular volume 82 μm3
Serum
Na+ 135 mEq/L
K+ 4.0 mEq/L
Cl- 101 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 24 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.3 mg/dL
Thyroid-stimulating hormone 1.2 μU/mL
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the decreased sensation in this patient?
A. Thiamine deficiency
B. Microvascular damage (Correct Answer)
C. Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculopathy
D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
E. Medication side effect
Explanation: ***Microvascular damage***
- The patient's **poorly controlled diabetes mellitus** (HbA1c 8.1%) is a significant risk factor for **diabetic neuropathy**, a common complication caused by chronic hyperglycemia leading to microvascular damage to the nerves.
- This damage specifically affects nerve fibers responsible for **sensation**, particularly in a **stocking-glove distribution**, which explains the decreased sensation in her big toe.
*Thiamine deficiency*
- **Thiamine deficiency** (beriberi) can cause peripheral neuropathy, but it is typically associated with **severe alcohol abuse** or malnutrition.
- While the patient drinks beer, her consumption (8-10 beers/week) is moderate and less likely to cause a severe deficiency presenting solely as altered sensation in one toe.
*Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculopathy*
- **Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculopathy (AIDP)**, also known as **Guillain-Barré syndrome**, typically presents with **progressive, ascending muscle weakness** and paralysis, often following an infection.
- The patient solely exhibits sensory changes, and her symptoms are localized and chronic rather than acute and rapidly progressive.
*Vitamin B12 deficiency*
- **Vitamin B12 deficiency**, often seen in strict vegetarians, can cause **peripheral neuropathy**, sometimes accompanied by **megaloblastic anemia** and **subacute combined degeneration** of the spinal cord.
- The patient's **normal hemoglobin** and **mean corpuscular volume (MCV)** make severe B12 deficiency less likely to be the sole cause of her symptoms.
*Medication side effect*
- While some medications can cause neuropathy, none of the patient's current medications (**metformin, atorvastatin, lisinopril**) are typically associated with causing significant sensory neuropathy as a primary side effect.
- Her **poorly controlled diabetes** offers a more direct and prevalent explanation for the sensory findings.
Question 307: A 29-year-old woman presents with a skin rash that has spread on her arm over the last few days. She also complains of fever, headache, joint pain, and stiffness of the neck associated with the onset of the rash. On physical examination, there is an annular, red rash with a clear area in the center similar to a bull’s-eye (see image). The patient says she went on a camping trip to Connecticut last month but does not remember being bitten by an insect. Which of the following could result if this condition remains untreated in this patient?
A. Necrotizing fasciitis
B. Third-degree heart block
C. Pseudomembranous colitis
D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
E. Bell’s palsy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Bell's palsy***
- The patient presents with classic symptoms of **Lyme disease**, including a **bull's-eye rash (erythema migrans)**, fever, headache, joint pain, and a history of exposure in an endemic area (Connecticut).
- If untreated, Lyme disease can progress to involve the nervous system (stage 2), leading to complications like **facial nerve palsy (Bell's palsy)**, other cranial neuropathies, meningitis, and radiculoneuropathy.
*Necrotizing fasciitis*
- This is a severe, rapidly spreading bacterial infection of the **fascia** and subcutaneous tissues, characterized by intense pain, swelling, erythema, and systemic toxicity.
- It does not present with an erythema migrans rash or the constellation of symptoms seen in this patient, and is typically caused by Group A Streptococcus or polymicrobial infections following skin trauma.
*Third-degree heart block*
- While **Lyme carditis** is a recognized complication of untreated Lyme disease and can cause **AV heart block** (including third-degree block), it is less common than the neurological manifestations.
- Lyme carditis typically occurs in stage 2 (early disseminated disease) and presents with palpitations, dyspnea, chest pain, or syncope.
- However, **neurological complications** like Bell's palsy are more frequent and characteristic of untreated Lyme disease.
*Pseudomembranous colitis*
- This condition is an inflammation of the colon caused by toxins produced by **Clostridioides difficile**, typically following antibiotic use.
- Its symptoms include severe watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever, none of which are present in this case and are unrelated to Lyme disease.
*Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis*
- This is a rare, fatal, progressive neurodegenerative disease of the central nervous system caused by a persistent infection with the **measles virus**.
- It would not be a complication of untreated Lyme disease, which is caused by **Borrelia burgdorferi** (a spirochete bacteria) and presents with distinct neurological sequelae such as cranial neuropathies and lymphocytic meningitis.
Question 308: A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician because of irregular menses and generalized fatigue for the past 4 months. Menses previously occurred at regular 25- to 29-day intervals and lasted for 5 days but now occur at 45- to 60-day intervals. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. She is 155 cm (5 ft 1 in) tall and weighs 89 kg (196 lb); BMI is 37 kg/m2. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 146/100 mm Hg. Examination shows facial hair as well as comedones on the face and back. There are multiple ecchymotic patches on the trunk. Neurological examination shows weakness of the iliopsoas and biceps muscles bilaterally. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.1 g/dL
Leukocyte count 13,500/mm3
Platelet count 510,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 145 mEq/L
K+ 3.3 mEq/L
Cl- 100 mEq/L
Glucose 188 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Cushing syndrome (Correct Answer)
C. Primary hyperaldosteronism
D. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
E. Hypothyroidism
Explanation: ***Cushing syndrome***
- The constellation of **obesity**, **hypertension**, **irregular menses**, **hirsutism** (facial hair), **acne** (comedones), **easy bruising** (ecchymotic patches), **proximal muscle weakness** (iliopsoas and biceps), **leukocytosis**, **thrombocytosis**, **hypokalemia**, and **hyperglycemia** is highly characteristic of Cushing syndrome due to chronic glucocorticoid excess.
- The patient's **truncal obesity** (BMI 37 kg/m2) and the metabolic derangements further support this diagnosis.
*Pheochromocytoma*
- While pheochromocytoma can cause **hypertension** and **tachycardia**, it typically presents with **episodic symptoms** like palpitations, sweating, and headaches.
- It does not explain the other prominent features such as **hirsutism**, **menstrual irregularities**, **proximal muscle weakness**, or **easy bruising**.
*Primary hyperaldosteronism*
- This condition is characterized by **hypertension** and **hypokalemia**, often leading to fatigue.
- However, it does not account for the patient's **hirsutism**, **menstrual irregularities**, **obesity**, **easy bruising**, **muscle weakness**, **acne**, or **hyperglycemia**.
*Polycystic ovarian syndrome*
- PCOS causes **irregular menses**, **hirsutism**, **acne**, and **obesity**, which are present in this patient.
- However, it typically does not cause **hypertension**, **hypokalemia**, **easy bruising**, or **proximal muscle weakness**, making Cushing syndrome a more encompassing diagnosis.
*Hypothyroidism*
- Hypothyroidism can lead to **fatigue**, **menstrual irregularities**, and **weight gain**.
- However, it typically presents with **bradycardia**, **dry skin**, **constipation**, and **cold intolerance**, not **hypertension**, **hirsutism**, **acne**, **easy bruising**, or **proximal muscle weakness**.
Question 309: A 27-year-old man presents to the emergency department for altered mental status. The patient was found napping in a local market and brought to the hospital. The patient has a past medical history of polysubstance abuse and is homeless. His temperature is 104°F (40.0°C), blood pressure is 100/52 mmHg, pulse is 133/min, respirations are 25/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for an altered man. Cardiopulmonary exam reveals a murmur over the left lower sternal border. A bedside ultrasound reveals a vegetation on the tricuspid valve. The patient is ultimately started on IV fluids, norepinephrine, vasopressin, vancomycin, and piperacillin-tazobactam. A central line is immediately placed in the internal jugular vein and the femoral vein secondary to poor IV access. Cardiothoracic surgery subsequently intervenes to remove the vegetation. While recovering in the ICU, days 3-5 are notable for an improvement in the patient’s symptoms. Two additional peripheral IVs are placed while in the ICU on day 5, and the femoral line is removed. On day 6, the patient's fever and hemodynamic status worsen. Though he is currently responding and not complaining of any symptoms including headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, or pain, he states he is feeling weak. Jolt accentuation of headache is negative and his abdominal exam is benign. A chest radiograph, urinalysis, and echocardiogram are unremarkable though the patient’s blood cultures are positive when drawn. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Add micafungin to the patient’s antibiotics
B. Perform a lumbar puncture
C. Remove all peripheral IV’s and send for cultures
D. Add cefepime to the patient’s antibiotics
E. Remove the central line and send for cultures (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Correct: Remove the central line and send for cultures**
- The patient's worsening fever and hemodynamic instability on day 6, despite initial improvement, raise suspicion for a **catheter-related bloodstream infection (CRBSI)**, especially given the history of central line placement.
- **Prompt removal of the catheter** and sending the tip for culture is crucial for diagnosis and treatment of potential CRBSI, as the source of infection often resides within the biofilm on the catheter.
*Incorrect: Remove all peripheral IV's and send for cultures*
- While **peripheral IVs** can be a source of infection, the central line was placed earlier and is associated with a much higher risk of serious infection, especially in a critically ill patient.
- The patient's initial improvement followed by deterioration points more towards a **central line-associated infection** rather than new peripheral IVs placed only on day 5.
*Incorrect: Perform a lumbar puncture*
- Although the patient has altered mental status, the absence of focal neurological deficits, headache, photophobia, and neck stiffness, along with a negative **Jolt accentuation of headache**, makes **meningitis** less likely as the primary cause of deterioration.
- The more immediate and likely cause of worsening sepsis in this context is a **catheter-related infection**.
*Incorrect: Add micafungin to the patient's antibiotics*
- Adding an antifungal agent such as **micafungin** would be considered if there was a strong suspicion of a fungal infection, which is not indicated by the current blood cultures or clinical picture.
- Empiric antifungal therapy is typically reserved for patients with persistent fever refractory to broad-spectrum antibiotics, known fungal exposure, or specific risk factors.
*Incorrect: Add cefepime to the patient's antibiotics*
- The patient is already on **vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam**, which provides broad-spectrum coverage for both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, including *Pseudomonas aeruginosa*.
- Adding **cefepime** would broaden gram-negative coverage further but is usually unnecessary unless the current regimen is failing due to specific resistant organisms, and the more likely source of infection should be addressed first.
Question 310: A 42-year-old man presents to the clinic for a several-month history of fatigue, and it is starting to affect his work. He often needs to sneak away in the middle of the day to take naps or else he cannot focus and is at risk of falling asleep at his desk. He has been feeling like this for approximately 1 year. Otherwise, he feels healthy and takes no medications. On further questioning, he also had constipation and thinks he has gained some weight. He denies shortness of breath, chest pain, lightheadedness, or blood in his stool. The vital signs include: pulse 56/min, blood pressure 124/78 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation 99% on room air. The physical exam is notable only for slightly dry skin. The complete blood count (CBC) is within normal limits, and the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is 8.0 μU/mL. Which of the following is the next best treatment for this patient?
A. Erythropoietin
B. Prednisone
C. Packed red blood cell (RBC) transfusion
D. Levothyroxine (Correct Answer)
E. Inhaled fluticasone plus salmeterol
Explanation: ***Levothyroxine***
- The patient's symptoms of **fatigue**, **weight gain**, **constipation**, **dry skin**, and **bradycardia** are classic for **hypothyroidism**.
- A **TSH level of 8.0 μU/mL**, while not extremely high, indicates **subclinical hypothyroidism** in a symptomatic patient, warranting treatment with **thyroid hormone replacement**.
*Erythropoietin*
- **Erythropoietin** is used to treat **anemia**, particularly in chronic kidney disease, but the patient's **CBC is normal**, making this an inappropriate treatment.
- The patient's fatigue is not due to anemia, as evidenced by a normal CBC.
*Prednisone*
- **Prednisone** is a corticosteroid used for various inflammatory and autoimmune conditions.
- There are no signs or symptoms in this patient to suggest an inflammatory or autoimmune process that would require corticosteroid therapy.
*Packed red blood cell (RBC) transfusion*
- **RBC transfusions** are indicated for severe anemia or acute blood loss.
- The patient's **CBC is normal**, indicating no anemia and therefore no need for a transfusion.
*Inhaled fluticasone plus salmeterol*
- This combination is used to treat **asthma** and **COPD**, which are respiratory conditions.
- The patient denies **shortness of breath** or other respiratory symptoms, making this treatment irrelevant.