A 63-year-old man presents to his primary care provider complaining of changes in his vision. He says that he has been having transient episodes of "shimmering lights" and generalized blurring of his vision for the past 3 months. He is disturbed by this development as he worries it may interfere with his job as a bus driver. He additionally reports a 12-pound weight loss over this time unaccompanied by a change in appetite, and his gout flares have grown more frequent despite conforming to his recommended diet and allopurinol. His temperature is 98.0°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 137/76 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 18/min. Hemoglobin and hematocrit obtained the previous day were 18.1 g/dL and 61%, respectively. Peripheral blood screening for JAK2 V617F mutation is positive. Which of the following findings is most likely expected in this patient?
Q292
A 42-year-old woman presents with complaints of a sharp, stabbing pain in her chest upon coughing and inhalation. She says that the pain started acutely 2 days ago and has progressively worsened. Her past medical history is significant for a rash on her face, joint pains, and fatigue for the past few weeks. The patient is afebrile and her vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there is a malar macular rash that spares the nasolabial folds. There is a friction rub at the cardiac apex that does not vary with respiration. Which of the following additional physical examination signs would most likely be present in this patient?
Q293
A 28-year-old woman presents to her physician for follow-up. She was found to be HIV-positive 9 months ago. Currently she is on ART with lamivudine, tenofovir, and efavirenz. She has no complaints and only reports a history of mild respiratory infection since the last follow-up. She is also allergic to egg whites. Her vital signs are as follows: the blood pressure is 120/75 mm Hg, the heart rate is 73/min, the respiratory rate is 13/min, and the temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F). She weighs 68 kg (150 lb), and there is no change in her weight since the last visit. On physical examination, she appears to be pale, her lymph nodes are not enlarged, her heart sounds are normal, and her lungs are clear to auscultation. Her total blood count shows the following findings:
Erythrocytes 3.2 x 106/mm3
Hematocrit 36%
Hgb 10 g/dL
Total leukocyte count 3,900/mm3
Neutrophils 66%
Lymphocytes 24%
Eosinophils 3%
Basophils 1%
Monocytes 7%
Platelet count 280,000/mm3
Her CD4+ cell count is 430 cells/µL. The patient tells you she would like to get an influenza vaccination as flu season is coming. Which of the following statements is true regarding influenza vaccination in this patient?
Q294
A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department for altered mental status after a finishing a marathon. He has a past medical history of obesity and anxiety and is not currently taking any medications. His temperature is 104°F (40°C), blood pressure is 147/88 mmHg, pulse is 200/min, respirations are 33/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals dry mucous membranes, hot flushed skin, and inappropriate responses to the physician's questions. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 15 g/dL
Hematocrit: 44%
Leukocyte count: 8,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 199,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 165 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.0 mEq/L
HCO3-: 22 mEq/L
BUN: 30 mg/dL
Glucose: 133 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 10 U/L
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q295
A 65-year-old man presents to his primary-care doctor for a 2-month history of dizziness. He describes feeling unsteady on his feet or like he's swaying from side-to-side; he's also occasionally had a room-spinning sensation. He first noticed it when he was in the front yard playing catch with his grandson, and he now also reliably gets it when throwing the frisbee with his dog. The dizziness only happens during these times, and it goes away after a couple of minutes of rest. His medical history is notable for type 2 diabetes mellitus treated with metformin. His vital signs are within normal limits in the office. The physical exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is the next best test for this patient?
Q296
A 35-year-old man presents with pain in his feet during exercise and at rest. He says that his fingers and toes become pale upon exposure to cold temperatures. He has an extensive smoking history, but no history of diabetes mellitus nor hyperlipidemia. He used to exercise frequently but has stopped because of the symptoms. On inspection, a tiny ulcer is found on his toe. On laboratory analysis, his blood sugar, blood pressure, and lipids are all within the normal range. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
Q297
A 63-year-old man is brought by his wife to the emergency department after he was found with nausea, headache, and agitation 1 hour ago. When the wife left their lakeside cabin earlier in the day to get more firewood, the patient did not have any symptoms. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 98%. Neurologic examination shows confusion and orientation only to person and place. He recalls only one of three objects after 5 minutes. His gait is unsteady. Which of the following is the most effective intervention for this patient's current condition?
Q298
A 62-year-old retired professor comes to the clinic with the complaints of back pain and increasing fatigue over the last 4 months. For the past week, his back pain seems to have worsened. It radiates to his legs and is burning in nature, 6/10 in intensity. There is no associated tingling sensation. He has lost 4.0 kg (8.8 lb) in the past 2 months. There is no history of trauma. He has hypertension which is well controlled with medications. Physical examination is normal. Laboratory studies show normocytic normochromic anemia. Serum calcium is 12.2 mg/dL and Serum total proteins is 8.8 gm/dL. A serum protein electrophoresis shows a monoclonal spike. X-ray of the spine shows osteolytic lesions over L2–L5 and right femur. A bone marrow biopsy reveals plasmacytosis. Which of the following is the most preferred treatment option?
Q299
A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department because of an episode of bloody emesis. He has had increasing dyspnea over the past 2 days. He was diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease last year. He has been on regular hemodialysis for the past 2 years because of end-stage renal disease. He skipped his last dialysis session because of an unexpected business trip. He has no history of liver disease. His supine blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg and upright is 90/70, pulse is 110/min, respirations are 22/min, and temperature is 36.2°C (97.2°F). The distal extremities are cold to touch, and the outstretched hand shows flapping tremor. A bloody nasogastric lavage is also noted, which eventually clears after saline irrigation. Intravenous isotonic saline and high-dose proton pump inhibitors are initiated, and the patient is admitted into the intensive care unit. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Q300
A 47-year-old woman comes to the physician because of body aches for the past 9 months. She also has stiffness of the shoulders and knees that is worse in the morning and tingling in the upper extremities. Examination shows marked tenderness over the posterior neck, bilateral mid trapezius, and medial aspect of the left knee. A complete blood count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are within the reference ranges. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 291: A 63-year-old man presents to his primary care provider complaining of changes in his vision. He says that he has been having transient episodes of "shimmering lights" and generalized blurring of his vision for the past 3 months. He is disturbed by this development as he worries it may interfere with his job as a bus driver. He additionally reports a 12-pound weight loss over this time unaccompanied by a change in appetite, and his gout flares have grown more frequent despite conforming to his recommended diet and allopurinol. His temperature is 98.0°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 137/76 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 18/min. Hemoglobin and hematocrit obtained the previous day were 18.1 g/dL and 61%, respectively. Peripheral blood screening for JAK2 V617F mutation is positive. Which of the following findings is most likely expected in this patient?
A. Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (Correct Answer)
B. Schistocytes on peripheral smear
C. Decreased oxygen saturation
D. Thrombocytopenia
E. Increased erythropoietin levels
Explanation: ***Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate***
- The patient's presentation is consistent with **polycythemia vera (PV)**, characterized by an **elevated hematocrit (61%)** and **positive JAK2 V617F mutation**.
- **Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)** is **decreased in PV** due to the increased red blood cell mass and elevated hematocrit, which **impairs rouleaux formation** (the stacking of RBCs that normally promotes sedimentation).
- The high viscosity and packed RBCs physically hinder the normal settling process, resulting in a characteristically low ESR.
*Schistocytes on peripheral smear*
- **Schistocytes** are fragmented red blood cells indicating **microangiopathic hemolytic anemia** (MAHA).
- This finding is associated with conditions like **thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)** or **disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)**, not with polycythemia vera.
*Decreased oxygen saturation*
- Patients with **polycythemia vera** have **normal or even elevated oxygen saturation** due to the increased red blood cell count and oxygen-carrying capacity.
- Decreased oxygen saturation would suggest **hypoxia** or **secondary polycythemia** (compensatory response to chronic hypoxemia), which is ruled out by the positive **JAK2 mutation**.
*Thrombocytopenia*
- **Polycythemia vera** typically presents with **thrombocytosis** (elevated platelet count), not thrombocytopenia.
- The elevated platelet count contributes to the **increased thrombotic risk** in PV, which may explain the patient's visual symptoms (potential retinal vein thrombosis) and worsening gout (hyperuricemia from increased cell turnover).
*Increased erythropoietin levels*
- In **polycythemia vera**, erythropoietin (EPO) levels are typically **low or inappropriately normal** due to constitutive activation of the **JAK2 pathway**.
- The mutation causes erythroid progenitor cells to be hypersensitive to EPO and produce RBCs autonomously, leading to **negative feedback** that suppresses EPO production.
- Elevated EPO would suggest **secondary polycythemia** (e.g., from chronic hypoxia, renal tumors), which is excluded by the positive **JAK2 V617F mutation**.
Question 292: A 42-year-old woman presents with complaints of a sharp, stabbing pain in her chest upon coughing and inhalation. She says that the pain started acutely 2 days ago and has progressively worsened. Her past medical history is significant for a rash on her face, joint pains, and fatigue for the past few weeks. The patient is afebrile and her vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there is a malar macular rash that spares the nasolabial folds. There is a friction rub at the cardiac apex that does not vary with respiration. Which of the following additional physical examination signs would most likely be present in this patient?
A. Mid-systolic click
B. Displaced apical impulse
C. Chest pain that improves with leaning forward (Correct Answer)
D. High-pitched diastolic murmur
E. Pain improvement with inspiration
Explanation: ***Chest pain that improves with leaning forward***
- The patient's symptoms (malar rash, joint pains, fatigue, chest pain worse with coughing/inhalation, and an apical friction rub) are highly suggestive of **pericarditis secondary to Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)**.
- Pain from pericarditis is classically **relieved by leaning forward** as this position decreases the pressure on the inflamed pericardium.
*Mid-systolic click*
- A mid-systolic click is characteristic of **mitral valve prolapse**, which is not directly indicated by the patient's presenting symptoms or primary diagnosis of pericarditis.
- While SLE can be associated with various cardiac manifestations, a mid-systolic click is not a direct presentation of acute pericarditis.
*Displaced apical impulse*
- A displaced apical impulse typically suggests **ventricular enlargement** or conditions that shift the heart, such as a large **pericardial effusion**.
- While pericarditis can lead to effusion, the presence of a friction rub and acute onset does not immediately imply a significant enough effusion to displace the apical impulse.
*High-pitched diastolic murmur*
- A high-pitched diastolic murmur is characteristic of **aortic regurgitation** or, less commonly, **pulmonic regurgitation**.
- These are valvular abnormalities not directly linked to the acute pericarditis described in the patient's presentation.
*Pain improvement with inspiration*
- **Pleuritic chest pain**, often seen in conditions like pleurisy or pulmonary embolism, *worsens* with inspiration, not improves.
- The patient's pain worsening with inhalation rules out improvement with inspiration as a likely sign.
Question 293: A 28-year-old woman presents to her physician for follow-up. She was found to be HIV-positive 9 months ago. Currently she is on ART with lamivudine, tenofovir, and efavirenz. She has no complaints and only reports a history of mild respiratory infection since the last follow-up. She is also allergic to egg whites. Her vital signs are as follows: the blood pressure is 120/75 mm Hg, the heart rate is 73/min, the respiratory rate is 13/min, and the temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F). She weighs 68 kg (150 lb), and there is no change in her weight since the last visit. On physical examination, she appears to be pale, her lymph nodes are not enlarged, her heart sounds are normal, and her lungs are clear to auscultation. Her total blood count shows the following findings:
Erythrocytes 3.2 x 106/mm3
Hematocrit 36%
Hgb 10 g/dL
Total leukocyte count 3,900/mm3
Neutrophils 66%
Lymphocytes 24%
Eosinophils 3%
Basophils 1%
Monocytes 7%
Platelet count 280,000/mm3
Her CD4+ cell count is 430 cells/µL. The patient tells you she would like to get an influenza vaccination as flu season is coming. Which of the following statements is true regarding influenza vaccination in this patient?
A. As long as the patient is anemic, she should not be vaccinated.
B. Influenza vaccination is contraindicated in HIV-positive patients because of the serious complications they can cause in immunocompromised people.
C. Inactivated or recombinant influenza vaccines fail to induce a sufficient immune response in patients with CD4+ cell counts under 500 cells/µL.
D. Nasal-spray influenza vaccine is the best option for vaccination in this patient.
E. The patient can receive approved recombinant or inactivated influenza vaccines, with egg-free formulations preferred due to her egg allergy. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **The patient can receive approved recombinant or inactivated influenza vaccines, with egg-free formulations preferred due to her egg allergy.**
- Patients with HIV, regardless of their CD4+ count, should receive the **inactivated influenza vaccine** annually due to their increased risk of severe influenza complications.
- Given the patient's reported egg allergy, an **egg-free vaccine formulation**, such as a recombinant injectable influenza vaccine (RIV4) or cell-culture-based inactivated influenza vaccine (ccIIV4), is the preferred choice to minimize allergic reactions.
*As long as the patient is anemic, she should not be vaccinated.*
- **Anemia** is not a contraindication for receiving the influenza vaccine; the benefits of vaccination typically outweigh any risks associated with mild anemia.
- While the patient is anemic (Hgb 10 g/dL), this condition does not prevent her from safely receiving an **inactivated influenza vaccine**.
*Influenza vaccination is contraindicated in HIV-positive patients because of the serious complications they can cause in immunocompromised people.*
- This statement is incorrect; **inactivated influenza vaccines** are recommended for HIV-positive individuals, as they are not live vaccines and cannot cause influenza.
- HIV-positive patients are at higher risk for severe influenza complications, making vaccination even more crucial, not contraindicated.
*Inactivated or recombinant influenza vaccines fail to induce a sufficient immune response in patients with CD4+ cell counts under 500 cells/µL.*
- While the immune response to vaccines can be attenuated in HIV patients with lower CD4+ counts, even a partial response offers some protection and is better than no vaccination.
- The **guidelines for HIV patients** recommend influenza vaccination regardless of CD4+ count, emphasizing the importance of any induced immunity.
*Nasal-spray influenza vaccine is the best option for vaccination in this patient.*
- The **nasal-spray influenza vaccine (LAIV)** is a **live-attenuated vaccine**, which is generally contraindicated in immunocompromised individuals, including those with HIV, due to the risk of active infection.
- HIV patients should receive **inactivated or recombinant influenza vaccines**, not live-attenuated formulations.
Question 294: A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department for altered mental status after a finishing a marathon. He has a past medical history of obesity and anxiety and is not currently taking any medications. His temperature is 104°F (40°C), blood pressure is 147/88 mmHg, pulse is 200/min, respirations are 33/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals dry mucous membranes, hot flushed skin, and inappropriate responses to the physician's questions. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 15 g/dL
Hematocrit: 44%
Leukocyte count: 8,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 199,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 165 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.0 mEq/L
HCO3-: 22 mEq/L
BUN: 30 mg/dL
Glucose: 133 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 10 U/L
Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Lactated ringer
B. Hypotonic saline
C. 50% normal saline 50% dextrose
D. Normal saline (Correct Answer)
E. Dextrose solution
Explanation: ***Normal saline***
- The patient presents with **heat stroke** (temperature 104°F, altered mental status after marathon) complicated by **severe hypernatremia (Na+ 165 mEq/L)** and **hypovolemia** (elevated BUN/Cr ratio, tachycardia, dry mucous membranes).
- In **hypovolemic hypernatremia**, the best initial step is to restore **intravascular volume** with **isotonic crystalloid** (normal saline or lactated Ringer's) to stabilize hemodynamics and organ perfusion.
- **Normal saline (0.9% NaCl, 154 mEq/L Na+)** is hypotonic relative to the patient's serum (165 mEq/L), so it will begin **gradual correction** of hypernatremia while providing volume resuscitation.
- After volume restoration, hypotonic fluids (0.45% saline or D5W) may be used for further correction, but they should NOT be given initially to a volume-depleted patient due to risk of worsening hypotension.
- Correction rate should be **≤10-12 mEq/L per 24 hours** to avoid cerebral edema.
*Hypotonic saline*
- While hypotonic saline (0.45% NaCl) is used to correct hypernatremia, it should **not** be the first-line choice in a **hypovolemic** patient.
- Administering hypotonic fluids to a volume-depleted patient can worsen hypotension and compromise organ perfusion before adequately restoring intravascular volume.
- Hypotonic saline is appropriate **after** volume status has been restored with isotonic fluids.
*Lactated ringer*
- **Lactated Ringer's solution** is an isotonic crystalloid (130 mEq/L Na+) and would be an equally acceptable choice for initial volume resuscitation.
- It is slightly more hypotonic than normal saline, which could provide marginally faster correction of hypernatremia.
- Either normal saline or lactated Ringer's is appropriate for initial management; normal saline is more commonly cited in USMLE resources for hypernatremia management.
*50% normal saline 50% dextrose*
- This mixture would create a **hypertonic solution** that could worsen hypernatremia rather than correct it.
- The patient's glucose is normal (133 mg/dL), so dextrose supplementation is not indicated.
- This option is inappropriate for managing hypernatremia.
*Dextrose solution*
- **D5W (5% dextrose in water)** provides free water and would correct hypernatremia by diluting serum sodium.
- However, in a **volume-depleted** patient, giving free water without adequate sodium can lead to rapid osmotic shifts, worsening hypotension, and potentially causing cerebral edema if correction occurs too rapidly.
- D5W is reserved for **euvolemic or hypervolemic hypernatremia**, not hypovolemic hypernatremia.
Question 295: A 65-year-old man presents to his primary-care doctor for a 2-month history of dizziness. He describes feeling unsteady on his feet or like he's swaying from side-to-side; he's also occasionally had a room-spinning sensation. He first noticed it when he was in the front yard playing catch with his grandson, and he now also reliably gets it when throwing the frisbee with his dog. The dizziness only happens during these times, and it goes away after a couple of minutes of rest. His medical history is notable for type 2 diabetes mellitus treated with metformin. His vital signs are within normal limits in the office. The physical exam is unremarkable. Which of the following is the next best test for this patient?
A. Ankle-brachial index
B. Doppler ultrasound (Correct Answer)
C. Transthoracic echocardiogram
D. CT head (noncontrast)
E. Electrocardiogram
Explanation: ***Doppler ultrasound***
- The patient's dizziness occurring specifically during **upper extremity exertion** (playing catch, throwing frisbee) that resolves with rest is classic for **subclavian steal syndrome**.
- In subclavian steal, stenosis of the subclavian artery proximal to the vertebral artery origin causes **reversed flow in the vertebral artery** during arm exercise, "stealing" blood from the posterior circulation and causing vertebrobasilar insufficiency symptoms.
- **Doppler ultrasound** of the subclavian and vertebral arteries is the appropriate initial test to demonstrate reversed vertebral flow and subclavian stenosis. This can be confirmed with provocative maneuvers (arm exercise during the study).
- The patient's diabetes increases his risk for atherosclerotic disease, making this diagnosis more likely.
*CT head (noncontrast)*
- While CT head can evaluate for stroke or structural brain lesions, it would **not visualize the vascular stenosis** causing subclavian steal syndrome.
- The episodic nature triggered by specific arm movements and complete resolution with rest makes an acute structural brain lesion unlikely.
- CT head would be appropriate if symptoms were persistent, progressive, or associated with focal neurological deficits.
*Ankle-brachial index*
- ABI is used to diagnose **peripheral artery disease** affecting the lower extremities, typically presenting with **intermittent claudication** (leg pain with walking).
- This does not evaluate the upper extremity or cerebrovascular circulation relevant to this patient's symptoms.
*Electrocardiogram*
- ECG evaluates cardiac rhythm and ischemia but would not diagnose the **vascular steal phenomenon** causing his symptoms.
- Cardiac arrhythmias typically cause syncope or presyncope rather than positional dizziness triggered by specific arm movements.
- While arrhythmias should be considered in the differential, the clear association with arm exercise points to a vascular steal phenomenon.
*Transthoracic echocardiogram*
- TTE assesses cardiac structure and function (valves, chambers, ejection fraction) but does not evaluate the **extracranial vasculature**.
- Cardiac causes of dizziness (e.g., severe aortic stenosis) would more likely present with exertional syncope rather than dizziness specifically with arm movements.
- The symptom pattern does not suggest primary cardiac pathology.
Question 296: A 35-year-old man presents with pain in his feet during exercise and at rest. He says that his fingers and toes become pale upon exposure to cold temperatures. He has an extensive smoking history, but no history of diabetes mellitus nor hyperlipidemia. He used to exercise frequently but has stopped because of the symptoms. On inspection, a tiny ulcer is found on his toe. On laboratory analysis, his blood sugar, blood pressure, and lipids are all within the normal range. Which is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Buerger's disease (Correct Answer)
B. Peripheral arterial occlusive disease (PAOD)
C. Frostbite
D. Atherosclerosis
E. Popliteal artery entrapment syndrome (PAES)
Explanation: ***Buerger's disease***
- This condition uniquely affects **young male smokers**, causing inflammation and thrombosis in small to medium-sized arteries and veins leading to **ischemic pain**, **Raynaud's phenomenon** (fingers/toes turning pale with cold), and digital **ulcers**.
- The absence of typical risk factors for atherosclerosis (normal blood sugar, lipids, blood pressure) in a heavy smoker with these specific symptoms strongly points to Buerger's disease.
*Peripheral arterial occlusive disease (PAOD)*
- While PAOD can cause exertional pain (claudication) and ulcers, it typically affects older individuals and is primarily caused by **atherosclerosis** and related risk factors (diabetes, hyperlipidemia, hypertension), which are absent here.
- The distinct **Raynaud's phenomenon** and the patient's young age are less characteristic of PAOD in the absence of other risk factors.
*Frostbite*
- Frostbite is tissue damage caused by **extreme cold exposure** and is an acute injury, not a chronic progressive disease like that described.
- While it can cause pallor and tissue damage, the patient's symptoms are recurring, involve exercise-induced pain, and occur without clear extreme cold exposure in the history.
*Atherosclerosis*
- Atherosclerosis is the underlying cause for most PAOD cases and involves plaque buildup in arteries due to risk factors like **dyslipidemia, hypertension, and diabetes**, all of which are explicitly stated as normal in this patient.
- In a young patient without these metabolic risk factors, atherosclerosis as the primary diagnosis is less likely, especially with the characteristic Raynaud's phenomenon seen in Buerger's.
*Popliteal artery entrapment syndrome (PAES)*
- PAES is characterized by **intermittent claudication** due to compression of the popliteal artery by surrounding musculature, typically in young athletes.
- However, PAES would not explain the **Raynaud's phenomenon** or the digital ulceration observed, and the pain persists at rest, which is less typical for PAES.
Question 297: A 63-year-old man is brought by his wife to the emergency department after he was found with nausea, headache, and agitation 1 hour ago. When the wife left their lakeside cabin earlier in the day to get more firewood, the patient did not have any symptoms. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 98%. Neurologic examination shows confusion and orientation only to person and place. He recalls only one of three objects after 5 minutes. His gait is unsteady. Which of the following is the most effective intervention for this patient's current condition?
A. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (Correct Answer)
B. Heliox therapy
C. Intranasal sumatriptan
D. Intravenous hydroxycobalamin
E. Intravenous nitroprusside
Explanation: ***Hyperbaric oxygen therapy***
- **Hyperbaric oxygen therapy** is the most effective intervention for severe **carbon monoxide poisoning**, as it delivers 100% oxygen at increased atmospheric pressure, rapidly displacing carbon monoxide from hemoglobin and improving tissue oxygenation.
- The patient's symptoms of nausea, headache, agitation, confusion, and gait instability, developing acutely after being in a lakeside cabin (suggesting potential for a faulty heating system), are highly indicative of **carbon monoxide poisoning**, despite normal pulse oximetry readings.
*Heliox therapy*
- **Heliox therapy** is a mixture of helium and oxygen used to reduce the work of breathing in patients with **airway obstruction**, such as asthma or croup, by decreasing gas density.
- It does not address the underlying pathology of carbon monoxide poisoning, which involves impaired oxygen transport by hemoglobin.
*Intranasal sumatriptan*
- **Intranasal sumatriptan** is a **triptan derivative** used to treat **migraine headaches** by constricting cranial blood vessels and reducing inflammation.
- While the patient has a headache, its acute onset with other neurological symptoms points away from a primary migraine and towards a systemic intoxication.
*Intravenous hydroxycobalamin*
- **Intravenous hydroxycobalamin** is the primary antidote for **cyanide poisoning**, forming cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) and reducing cyanide toxicity.
- The patient's symptoms are classic for carbon monoxide poisoning, not cyanide poisoning, which typically presents with severe metabolic acidosis and cardiovascular collapse.
*Intravenous nitroprusside*
- **Intravenous nitroprusside** is a powerful vasodilator used to treat **hypertensive emergencies** or severe heart failure by rapidly reducing both preload and afterload.
- It has no role in the treatment of carbon monoxide poisoning, as it does not address the issue of dysfunctional hemoglobin or tissue hypoxia.
Question 298: A 62-year-old retired professor comes to the clinic with the complaints of back pain and increasing fatigue over the last 4 months. For the past week, his back pain seems to have worsened. It radiates to his legs and is burning in nature, 6/10 in intensity. There is no associated tingling sensation. He has lost 4.0 kg (8.8 lb) in the past 2 months. There is no history of trauma. He has hypertension which is well controlled with medications. Physical examination is normal. Laboratory studies show normocytic normochromic anemia. Serum calcium is 12.2 mg/dL and Serum total proteins is 8.8 gm/dL. A serum protein electrophoresis shows a monoclonal spike. X-ray of the spine shows osteolytic lesions over L2–L5 and right femur. A bone marrow biopsy reveals plasmacytosis. Which of the following is the most preferred treatment option?
A. Renal dialysis
B. Palliative care
C. Chemotherapy and autologous stem cell transplant (Correct Answer)
D. Bisphosphonates
E. Chemotherapy alone
Explanation: ***Chemotherapy and autologous stem cell transplant***
- This patient presents with classic features of **multiple myeloma**, including bone pain with osteolytic lesions, hypercalcemia, normocytic anemia, elevated total protein with a monoclonal spike, and plasmacytosis in the bone marrow.
- In a relatively healthy patient with newly diagnosed multiple myeloma who is fit for intensive therapy (as suggested by the absence of significant comorbidities beyond controlled hypertension), **chemotherapy followed by autologous stem cell transplant (ASCT)** is the preferred treatment to achieve deeper and more durable remission.
*Renal dialysis*
- While **renal impairment** can occur in multiple myeloma due to myeloma kidney, it is not described in this patient, and **dialysis** is a supportive measure for end-stage kidney disease, not the primary treatment for the underlying malignancy.
- The patient's symptoms are primarily related to bone involvement and systemic effects of myeloma, not severe renal failure.
*Palliative care*
- **Palliative care** focuses on symptom relief and quality of life, which is essential at any stage of a serious illness, but it is not the initial primary therapeutic intervention for a newly diagnosed, symptomatic, and treatable cancer like multiple myeloma in a patient who could benefit from curative or remission-inducing therapy.
- The goal at this stage is disease control and prolonging survival.
*Bisphosphonates*
- **Bisphosphonates** (e.g., zoledronic acid) are an important adjunctive therapy in multiple myeloma to manage and prevent **skeletal-related events** by inhibiting osteoclast activity, but they do not treat the underlying plasma cell malignancy itself.
- They would be used in conjunction with chemotherapy, not as a standalone primary treatment.
*Chemotherapy alone*
- While **chemotherapy** (often a combination of proteasome inhibitors, immunomodulatory drugs, and dexamethasone) is central to treating multiple myeloma, **chemotherapy alone** without subsequent ASCT is typically reserved for patients who are not candidates for transplantation due to age, comorbidities, or frailty.
- For transplant-eligible patients, ASCT after induction chemotherapy significantly improves progression-free survival and overall survival compared to chemotherapy alone.
Question 299: A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department because of an episode of bloody emesis. He has had increasing dyspnea over the past 2 days. He was diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease last year. He has been on regular hemodialysis for the past 2 years because of end-stage renal disease. He skipped his last dialysis session because of an unexpected business trip. He has no history of liver disease. His supine blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg and upright is 90/70, pulse is 110/min, respirations are 22/min, and temperature is 36.2°C (97.2°F). The distal extremities are cold to touch, and the outstretched hand shows flapping tremor. A bloody nasogastric lavage is also noted, which eventually clears after saline irrigation. Intravenous isotonic saline and high-dose proton pump inhibitors are initiated, and the patient is admitted into the intensive care unit. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Observation in the intensive care unit
B. Double-balloon tamponade
C. Hemodialysis (Correct Answer)
D. Transfusion of packed red blood cells
E. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
Explanation: ***Hemodialysis***
- The patient has **end-stage renal disease** and missed his last dialysis session, leading to **uremic crisis** with **dyspnea** (fluid overload) and **asterixis** (uremic encephalopathy).
- **Uremic platelet dysfunction** also contributes to the GI bleeding, making dialysis essential to correct coagulopathy.
- Emergency hemodialysis is the most critical intervention to remove accumulated toxins, correct fluid overload, and improve hemostasis before any invasive procedures.
*Observation in the intensive care unit*
- While ICU admission is appropriate for monitoring, passive observation without addressing the underlying **uremia** will not resolve the critical issues of **fluid overload**, **uremic encephalopathy**, and **uremic coagulopathy**.
- The patient's missed dialysis session and severe symptoms necessitate active intervention, not just observation.
*Double-balloon tamponade*
- This procedure is reserved for **life-threatening variceal bleeding** that is refractory to endoscopic treatment.
- The patient's history of **peptic ulcer disease** (not cirrhosis) and the clearing of bloody lavage with saline irrigation suggest non-variceal bleeding, making tamponade inappropriate.
*Transfusion of packed red blood cells*
- While the patient shows signs of **orthostatic hypotension** and **tachycardia** suggesting hypovolemia, the GI bleeding has **stabilized** (NG lavage cleared with irrigation).
- Transfusion may be needed based on hemoglobin levels, but it does not address the **immediately life-threatening uremic crisis** with encephalopathy and platelet dysfunction.
- The most urgent priority is dialysis to stabilize the patient for subsequent procedures.
*Esophagogastroduodenoscopy*
- EGD is indicated to identify and potentially treat the source of **upper GI bleeding** in a patient with **peptic ulcer disease**.
- However, the patient's severe **uremic symptoms**, **encephalopathy**, and **coagulopathy** must be addressed first to safely perform this invasive procedure and optimize outcomes.
Question 300: A 47-year-old woman comes to the physician because of body aches for the past 9 months. She also has stiffness of the shoulders and knees that is worse in the morning and tingling in the upper extremities. Examination shows marked tenderness over the posterior neck, bilateral mid trapezius, and medial aspect of the left knee. A complete blood count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate are within the reference ranges. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus
B. Fibromyalgia (Correct Answer)
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Polymyositis
E. Major depressive disorder
Explanation: ***Fibromyalgia***
- The patient's presentation of widespread **body aches for 9 months**, morning **stiffness**, and **multiple tender points** (posterior neck, bilateral mid trapezius, medial aspect of the knee) in the absence of inflammatory markers (normal ESR, normal CBC) is highly characteristic of **fibromyalgia**.
- **Paresthesias** (tingling in the upper extremities) are a common associated feature in fibromyalgia.
- Fibromyalgia is a chronic pain syndrome diagnosed clinically based on widespread pain and tender points, with normal laboratory findings.
*Systemic lupus erythematosus*
- SLE typically presents with **systemic inflammation**, often involving joints, skin, and kidneys, along with abnormalities in inflammatory markers (e.g., elevated ESR, positive ANA, cytopenias).
- The widespread tender points and completely normal inflammatory markers make SLE very unlikely.
*Rheumatoid arthritis*
- RA primarily affects the **synovial joints** symmetrically, leading to joint swelling, warmth, and morning stiffness, typically accompanied by elevated ESR and CRP.
- The examination findings show specific **tender points** rather than objective joint swelling, and the normal ESR rules against active RA.
*Polymyositis*
- Polymyositis is characterized by **proximal muscle weakness** (not diffuse body aches) and is associated with elevated muscle enzymes (CK, aldolase) and inflammatory changes on muscle biopsy.
- This patient has pain and tenderness without weakness, and her laboratory tests are normal.
*Major depressive disorder*
- While **fatigue**, body aches, and sleep disturbances can be symptoms of major depressive disorder, the presence of specific, well-defined **tender points on examination** points towards a primary pain syndrome.
- Fibromyalgia often coexists with depression, but the objective physical findings of multiple tender points are more consistent with fibromyalgia as the primary diagnosis.