A 66-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of weakness of his left leg for the past hour. He was unable to get out of bed that morning. His pants are soaked with urine. He has hypertension and coronary artery disease. Current medications include enalapril, carvedilol, aspirin, and simvastatin. His temperature is 37°C (98.6F), pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg. Examination shows equal pupils that are reactive to light. Muscle strength is 2/5 in the left lower extremity. Plantar reflex shows an extensor response on the left. Sensation is decreased in the left lower extremity. On mental status examination, he is oriented to time, place, and person and has a flat affect. When asked to count backwards from 20, he stops after counting to 17. When asked to name 10 words beginning with the letter “d,” he stops after naming two words. Fundoscopy shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q252
A 48-year-old Caucasian man presents to your office for initial evaluation as he has recently moved to your community and has become your patient. He has no significant past medical history and has not seen a physician in over 10 years. He takes no medications and denies having any allergies. He has been a smoker for the past 20 years and smokes approximately half a pack daily. His brother and father have diabetes; his brother is treated with metformin, whereas, his father requires insulin. His father has experienced two strokes. On presentation, he is a pleasant obese man with a body mass index of 34 kg/m2. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 170/90 mm Hg in the left arm and 168/89 mm Hg in the right arm. The patient is instructed to follow a low-salt diet, quit smoking, perform daily exercise, and diet to lose weight. He returns several weeks later for a follow-up appointment. The patient reports a 1.8 kg (4 lb) weight loss. His blood pressure on presentation is 155/94 mm Hg in both arms. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q253
A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency room with a chief complaint of constipation. His history is also significant for weakness, a dry cough, weight loss, recurrent kidney stones, and changes in his mood. He has a 30 pack-year history of smoking. A chest x-ray reveals a lung mass. Labs reveal a calcium of 14. What is the first step in management?
Q254
A 61-year-old male presents to an urgent care clinic with the complaints of pain in his joints and recurrent headaches for a month. He is also currently concerned about sweating excessively even at room temperature. His wife, who is accompanying him, adds that his facial appearance has changed over the past few years as he now has a protruding jaw and a prominent forehead and brow ridge. His wedding ring no longer fits his finger despite a lack of weight gain over the last decade. His temperature is 98.6° F (37° C), respirations are 15/min, pulse is 67/min and blood pressure is 122/88 mm Hg. A general physical exam does not show any abnormality. What lab findings are most likely to be seen in this patient?
Q255
A 44-year-old man presents for a routine check-up. He has a past medical history of rheumatic fever. The patient is afebrile, and the vital signs are within normal limits. Cardiac examination reveals a late systolic crescendo murmur with a mid-systolic click, best heard over the apex and loudest just before S2. Which of the following physical examination maneuvers would most likely cause an earlier onset of the click/murmur?
Q256
A 74-year-old woman with no significant past medical history presents with 1 week of fever, unremitting headache and hip and shoulder stiffness. She denies any vision changes. Physical examination is remarkable for right scalp tenderness and range of motion is limited due to pain and stiffness. Neurological testing is normal. Laboratory studies are significant for an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) at 75 mm/h (normal range 0-22 mm/h for women). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q257
A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-day history of fever, malaise, chills, and a cough productive of moderate amounts of yellow-colored sputum. Over the past 2 days, she has also had right-sided chest pain that is exacerbated by deep inspiration. Four months ago, she was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was treated with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole. She appears pale. Her temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), pulse is 92/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 128/74 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 99%. Examination shows pale conjunctivae. Crackles are heard at the right lung base. Cardiac examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 12.6 g/dL
Leukocyte count 13,300/mm3
Platelet count 230,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 137 mEq/L
Cl- 104 mEq/L
K+ 3.9 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 16 mg/dL
Glucose 89 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
An x-ray of the chest shows an infiltrate at the right lung base. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q258
A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of palpitations and loose stools. She has had a 2.3-kg (5-lb) weight loss over the past month. She has had no change in appetite. She has no history of serious illness. She works in accounting and has been under more stress than usual lately. She takes no medications. She appears pale. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100.1°F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 126/78 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft and nontender. There is a bilateral hand tremor with outstretched arms and a palpable thyroid nodule in the left lobe. Serum laboratory studies show a thyroid stimulating hormone level of 0.03 μU/mL and a thyroxine level of 28 μg/dL. A radioactive iodine uptake scan shows enhancement in a 3-cm encapsulated nodule in the lower left lobe with decreased uptake in the remaining gland. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q259
A 58-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of itching of both legs. She also has swelling and dull pain that are worse at the end of the day and are more severe in her right leg. She has hyperthyroidism, asthma, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Four years ago, she had basal cell carcinoma of the face that was treated with Mohs surgery. Current medications include methimazole, albuterol, and insulin. She has smoked 3–4 cigarettes a day for the past 29 years. She goes to a local sauna twice a week. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 75/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 124/76 mm Hg. Physical examination shows fair skin with diffuse freckles. There is 2+ pitting edema of the right leg and 1+ pitting edema of the left leg. There is diffuse reddish-brown discoloration and significant scaling extending from the ankle to the mid-thigh bilaterally. Pedal pulses and sensation are intact bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient's symptoms?
Q260
A 22-year-old woman with a history of type I diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with nausea, vomiting, and drowsiness for the past day. Her temperature is 98.3°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 114/74 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 27/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a confused and lethargic young woman. Initial laboratory values are notable for the findings below.
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 2.9 mEq/L
HCO3-: 9 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 599 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 10 U/L
An initial ECG is notable for sinus tachycardia. Which of the following is the best initial step in management for this patient?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 251: A 66-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of weakness of his left leg for the past hour. He was unable to get out of bed that morning. His pants are soaked with urine. He has hypertension and coronary artery disease. Current medications include enalapril, carvedilol, aspirin, and simvastatin. His temperature is 37°C (98.6F), pulse is 98/min, and blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg. Examination shows equal pupils that are reactive to light. Muscle strength is 2/5 in the left lower extremity. Plantar reflex shows an extensor response on the left. Sensation is decreased in the left lower extremity. On mental status examination, he is oriented to time, place, and person and has a flat affect. When asked to count backwards from 20, he stops after counting to 17. When asked to name 10 words beginning with the letter “d,” he stops after naming two words. Fundoscopy shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Left anterior cerebral artery occlusion
B. Left middle cerebral artery occlusion
C. Right posterior cerebral artery occlusion
D. Right anterior cerebral artery occlusion (Correct Answer)
E. Hypertensive encephalopathy
Explanation: ***Right anterior cerebral artery occlusion***
- This patient presents with **left lower extremity weakness** and sensory loss, along with **urinary incontinence** and executive dysfunction (difficulty with counting backward and naming words). This constellation of symptoms is highly indicative of an infarct in the **right anterior cerebral artery (ACA) territory**.
- The ACA primarily supplies the **medial portion of the frontal and parietal lobes**, including the motor and sensory cortices for the contralateral leg and the supplementary motor area, which can affect executive function and bladder control.
*Left anterior cerebral artery occlusion*
- A left ACA occlusion would typically result in **right-sided weakness and sensory loss**, primarily affecting the lower extremity, as well as potential language deficits (e.g., transcortical motor aphasia).
- This patient's symptoms are on the **left side**, ruling out a left ACA lesion.
*Left middle cerebral artery occlusion*
- A left MCA occlusion would present with **right-sided hemiparesis/hemiplegia** (face and arm more than leg), **right-sided sensory loss**, and significant **aphasia** (Broca's or Wernicke's), none of which are consistent with the patient's presentation.
- While executive dysfunction can occur, the prominent lower extremity weakness and incontinence point away from an isolated MCA stroke.
*Right posterior cerebral artery occlusion*
- A right PCA occlusion typically causes **contralateral homonymous hemianopia**, visual field deficits, and potentially some sensory deficits or memory impairment.
- It does not typically cause significant motor weakness, especially pronounced in the lower extremity, nor urinary incontinence.
*Hypertensive encephalopathy*
- Hypertensive encephalopathy usually presents with a more generalized and acute neurological decline, including **headache, altered mental status, seizures, and visual disturbances**, often without focal weakness.
- While the patient has hypertension, his focal neurological deficits and acute onset are more consistent with an **ischemic stroke**.
Question 252: A 48-year-old Caucasian man presents to your office for initial evaluation as he has recently moved to your community and has become your patient. He has no significant past medical history and has not seen a physician in over 10 years. He takes no medications and denies having any allergies. He has been a smoker for the past 20 years and smokes approximately half a pack daily. His brother and father have diabetes; his brother is treated with metformin, whereas, his father requires insulin. His father has experienced two strokes. On presentation, he is a pleasant obese man with a body mass index of 34 kg/m2. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 170/90 mm Hg in the left arm and 168/89 mm Hg in the right arm. The patient is instructed to follow a low-salt diet, quit smoking, perform daily exercise, and diet to lose weight. He returns several weeks later for a follow-up appointment. The patient reports a 1.8 kg (4 lb) weight loss. His blood pressure on presentation is 155/94 mm Hg in both arms. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Prescribe bisoprolol
B. Reassure the patient and encourage him to continue with lifestyle modifications
C. Prescribe hydrochlorothiazide
D. Prescribe lisinopril and bisoprolol
E. Prescribe lisinopril (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Prescribe lisinopril***
- The patient has **stage 2 hypertension** (blood pressure ≥140/90 mm Hg) despite initial lifestyle modifications, necessitating pharmacological intervention.
- An **ACE inhibitor** like **lisinopril** is the most appropriate first-line agent for this patient given his **strong family history of diabetes** (both father and brother affected) and multiple cardiovascular risk factors, as it offers **renal protection** and may reduce progression to diabetes.
- ACE inhibitors are particularly beneficial in patients at high risk for diabetes and provide cardiovascular and renal protection.
*Prescribe bisoprolol*
- **Bisoprolol**, a beta-blocker, is not typically recommended as first-line monotherapy for hypertension without specific indications like **coronary artery disease**, **heart failure**, or **post-myocardial infarction**.
- Although effective for blood pressure reduction, other agents like ACE inhibitors or thiazide diuretics are generally preferred for initial management due to broader metabolic and cardiovascular benefits.
*Reassure the patient and encourage him to continue with lifestyle modifications*
- While lifestyle modifications are crucial, the patient's blood pressure remains significantly elevated at **155/94 mm Hg**, constituting **stage 2 hypertension**, which requires pharmacological treatment.
- Delaying pharmacological treatment in **stage 2 hypertension** increases the risk of **cardiovascular events** including stroke and myocardial infarction.
*Prescribe hydrochlorothiazide*
- **Hydrochlorothiazide**, a thiazide diuretic, is also an appropriate first-line agent for hypertension with proven cardiovascular benefits.
- However, in this specific patient with a **strong family history of diabetes** and multiple metabolic risk factors (obesity, BMI 34), an **ACE inhibitor** is preferred as it may offer additional benefits in **preventing progression to diabetes** and providing **renal protection**.
- Thiazide diuretics can have adverse metabolic effects including increased blood glucose and could be considered as an alternative or add-on agent if needed.
*Prescribe lisinopril and bisoprolol*
- Initiating two antihypertensive medications at once is typically reserved for patients with **stage 2 hypertension with BP ≥160/100 mm Hg** or those at very high cardiovascular risk requiring rapid BP control.
- With BP at 155/94 mm Hg, it is generally recommended to start with **monotherapy** and titrate or add a second agent if the blood pressure target is not achieved within 2-4 weeks.
Question 253: A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency room with a chief complaint of constipation. His history is also significant for weakness, a dry cough, weight loss, recurrent kidney stones, and changes in his mood. He has a 30 pack-year history of smoking. A chest x-ray reveals a lung mass. Labs reveal a calcium of 14. What is the first step in management?
A. Begin alendronate
B. Begin hydrochlorothiazide
C. Administer intravenous fluids (Correct Answer)
D. Administer calcitonin
E. Begin furosemide
Explanation: ***Administer intravenous fluids***
- The patient presents with **severe hypercalcemia (14 mg/dL)**, indicated by symptoms like constipation, weakness, and mood changes, likely due to a paraneoplastic syndrome from the lung mass.
- **Intravenous hydration with normal saline** is the initial and most crucial step to dilute calcium, promote renal excretion, and correct dehydration, which often exacerbates hypercalcemia.
*Begin alendronate*
- **Alendronate** is a bisphosphonate used for long-term management of hypercalcemia by inhibiting osteoclast activity.
- It has a **delayed onset of action (2-4 days)** and is not the first-line treatment for acute, severe hypercalcemia requiring rapid calcium reduction.
*Begin hydrochlorothiazide*
- **Thiazide diuretics** like hydrochlorothiazide can **increase serum calcium levels** by enhancing renal calcium reabsorption.
- Therefore, it is contraindicated in hypercalcemia and would worsen the patient's condition.
*Administer calcitonin*
- **Calcitonin** can lower calcium levels, but its effect is **mild and transient**, often used in conjunction with other therapies.
- It is not the initial or most effective sole therapy for significantly elevated calcium and its use is typically reserved for acute, refractory cases or when bisphosphonates are contraindicated.
*Begin furosemide*
- **Loop diuretics** like furosemide can increase renal calcium excretion, but they should only be used **after adequate rehydration** to prevent volume depletion and worsening hypercalcemia.
- Administering furosemide to a dehydrated patient would lead to further dehydration and potentially cause more harm.
Question 254: A 61-year-old male presents to an urgent care clinic with the complaints of pain in his joints and recurrent headaches for a month. He is also currently concerned about sweating excessively even at room temperature. His wife, who is accompanying him, adds that his facial appearance has changed over the past few years as he now has a protruding jaw and a prominent forehead and brow ridge. His wedding ring no longer fits his finger despite a lack of weight gain over the last decade. His temperature is 98.6° F (37° C), respirations are 15/min, pulse is 67/min and blood pressure is 122/88 mm Hg. A general physical exam does not show any abnormality. What lab findings are most likely to be seen in this patient?
A. Elevated cortisol level
B. Low insulin levels
C. Elevated TSH and low FT4
D. Elevated insulin-like growth factor (IGF1) and growth hormone (GH) (Correct Answer)
E. Elevated prolactin levels
Explanation: ***Elevated insulin-like growth factor (IGF1) and growth hormone (GH)***
- The patient's presentation with **acral enlargement** (wedding ring no longer fits), **facial changes** (protruding jaw, prominent forehead), **arthralgias**, **headaches**, and **hyperhidrosis** are classic signs of **acromegaly**, which is caused by excessive growth hormone (GH) secretion, typically from a pituitary adenoma.
- **Elevated IGF-1** is the most reliable screening test for acromegaly because its levels remain stable throughout the day, unlike GH which fluctuates significantly. A **glucose suppression test** for GH is used to confirm the diagnosis.
*Elevated cortisol level*
- **Elevated cortisol** is characteristic of **Cushing's syndrome**, which presents with features such as central obesity, moon facies, buffalo hump, and striae. These signs are not prominent in this patient's presentation.
- While headaches can occur in Cushing's, the **acral and facial changes** are highly specific for acromegaly, not Cushing's.
*Low insulin levels*
- **Low insulin levels** are typically found in **Type 1 diabetes mellitus** due to autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, or in later stages of Type 2 diabetes.
- The patient's symptoms are not consistent with uncontrolled diabetes, and **high GH** in acromegaly can actually lead to **insulin resistance** and elevated insulin levels, not low.
*Elevated TSH and low FT4*
- This pattern of labs indicates **primary hypothyroidism**, as the thyroid gland is underactive, leading to low thyroid hormone (FT4) and compensatory elevated TSH from the pituitary.
- Symptoms of hypothyroidism include fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, and dry skin, which are different from the patient's presentation of **hyperhidrosis** and **acral growth**.
*Elevated prolactin levels*
- **Hyperprolactinemia** can cause symptoms such as **headaches**, galactorrhea, menstrual irregularities (in women), and hypogonadism.
- While headaches are present, the characteristic **acral growth** and **facial changes** seen in this patient are not associated with elevated prolactin, making acromegaly a more fitting diagnosis.
Question 255: A 44-year-old man presents for a routine check-up. He has a past medical history of rheumatic fever. The patient is afebrile, and the vital signs are within normal limits. Cardiac examination reveals a late systolic crescendo murmur with a mid-systolic click, best heard over the apex and loudest just before S2. Which of the following physical examination maneuvers would most likely cause an earlier onset of the click/murmur?
A. Inspiration
B. Left lateral decubitus position
C. Rapid squatting
D. Handgrip
E. Standing (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Standing***
- Standing is a Valsalva-like maneuver that **decreases venous return** to the heart, leading to a smaller left ventricular volume.
- This smaller ventricular volume causes the mitral valve leaflets to prolapse earlier in systole, resulting in an **earlier onset of the click** and a longer murmur.
*Inspiration*
- Inspiration typically **increases venous return** to the right side of the heart, augmenting right-sided heart murmurs.
- Its effect on left-sided murmurs like mitral valve prolapse is variable but generally does not cause an earlier click for a left-sided lesion.
*Left lateral decubitus position*
- This position brings the heart closer to the chest wall, making left-sided heart sounds and murmurs **more prominent** or easier to hear.
- It does not significantly alter the timing of the click or murmur in mitral valve prolapse.
*Rapid squatting*
- Rapid squatting **increases venous return** to the heart and also **increases systemic vascular resistance** (afterload).
- This causes the left ventricle to fill more, delaying the onset of the mitral valve prolapse and thus the click/murmur.
*Handgrip*
- Handgrip is an isometric exercise that **increases systemic vascular resistance** and, consequently, left ventricular afterload.
- This maneuver tends to **delay the onset of the click** and often decreases the intensity of the murmur in mitral valve prolapse by keeping the ventricle more full.
Question 256: A 74-year-old woman with no significant past medical history presents with 1 week of fever, unremitting headache and hip and shoulder stiffness. She denies any vision changes. Physical examination is remarkable for right scalp tenderness and range of motion is limited due to pain and stiffness. Neurological testing is normal. Laboratory studies are significant for an erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) at 75 mm/h (normal range 0-22 mm/h for women). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Start IV methylprednisolone
B. Obtain CT head without contrast
C. Start oral prednisone (Correct Answer)
D. Perform a temporal artery biopsy
E. Perform a lumbar puncture
Explanation: **Start oral prednisone**
- The patient's symptoms (fever, headache, hip and shoulder stiffness, scalp tenderness, elevated ESR) are highly suggestive of **giant cell arteritis (GCA)**, which is closely associated with **polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)**.
- Starting oral prednisone promptly is appropriate to manage the symptoms and prevent potential complications like **vision loss**, especially when classic GCA symptoms are present but there is no acute vision loss.
*Start IV methylprednisolone*
- **IV methylprednisolone** is typically reserved for patients with **acute vision loss** or other severe ischemic complications of GCA, which are not described in this patient.
- While GCA is a serious condition, oral prednisone is usually sufficient for initial management unless impending or active catastrophic events like blindness are present.
*Obtain CT head without contrast*
- A **CT head without contrast** would primarily be useful for evaluating acute neurological deficits or ruling out intracranial pathology like a hemorrhage or mass, which are not indicated by this patient's presentation (normal neurological exam).
- It would not confirm GCA or PMR and would delay appropriate steroid initiation.
*Perform a temporal artery biopsy*
- A **temporal artery biopsy** is the gold standard for confirming GCA, but it is not the most appropriate *next step in management* for a suspected case.
- **Steroid therapy should be initiated immediately** based on clinical suspicion to prevent irreversible vision loss, even before the biopsy results are available. The biopsy can be performed within 1-2 weeks of starting steroids without significantly affecting diagnostic yield.
*Perform a lumbar puncture*
- A **lumbar puncture** is used to diagnose conditions affecting the central nervous system, such as meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage.
- The patient's presentation, including normal neurological testing and specific musculoskeletal symptoms, does not point towards an infectious or inflammatory process requiring a lumbar puncture.
Question 257: A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-day history of fever, malaise, chills, and a cough productive of moderate amounts of yellow-colored sputum. Over the past 2 days, she has also had right-sided chest pain that is exacerbated by deep inspiration. Four months ago, she was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was treated with trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole. She appears pale. Her temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), pulse is 92/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 128/74 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 99%. Examination shows pale conjunctivae. Crackles are heard at the right lung base. Cardiac examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 12.6 g/dL
Leukocyte count 13,300/mm3
Platelet count 230,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 137 mEq/L
Cl- 104 mEq/L
K+ 3.9 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 16 mg/dL
Glucose 89 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
An x-ray of the chest shows an infiltrate at the right lung base. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Outpatient treatment with oral levofloxacin
B. Inpatient treatment with intravenous ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin
C. Inpatient treatment with intravenous cefepime and oral levofloxacin
D. Inpatient treatment with intravenous clindamycin
E. Outpatient treatment with oral doxycycline (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Outpatient treatment with oral doxycycline***
- The patient presents with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) of moderate severity, with a **CURB-65 score of 0 or 1** (no confusion, urea <7 mmol/L, respiratory rate <30/min, blood pressure >90/60 mmHg, age <65).
- **Doxycycline** is an appropriate first-line oral antibiotic for outpatient CAP coverage against typical and atypical pathogens, especially given recent trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole use (which raises concern for a potential sulfonamide allergy or resistance pattern if another antibiotic of that class were considered).
*Outpatient treatment with oral levofloxacin*
- While **levofloxacin** is effective against CAP, it is a **respiratory fluoroquinolone** and is generally reserved for patients with comorbidities, prior antibiotic failure, or a higher risk of resistant organisms, which is not clearly indicated here.
- Broader spectrum antibiotics like fluoroquinolones should be used judiciously to prevent **antibiotic resistance**.
*Inpatient treatment with intravenous ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin*
- This regimen is appropriate for **inpatient CAP**, especially for patients requiring hospitalization due to higher CURB-65 scores (2 or more) or significant comorbidities.
- The patient's presentation does not meet criteria for **inpatient admission**, as her vital signs are relatively stable and CURB-65 is low.
*Inpatient treatment with intravenous cefepime and oral levofloxacin*
- This combination, particularly **cefepime**, is a **broad-spectrum** antibiotic reserved for **hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)**, **ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)**, or severe CAP with concern for multidrug-resistant pathogens.
- The patient's pneumonia is community-acquired and does not appear severe enough to warrant such **broad-spectrum inpatient treatment**.
*Inpatient treatment with intravenous clindamycin*
- **Clindamycin** is primarily used for **anaerobic infections** and certain **gram-positive bacteria**, like methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* (MRSA), but it has limited coverage for typical CAP pathogens.
- It is not a recommended first-line agent for **community-acquired pneumonia** unless there is specific concern for aspiration or MRSA, and the patient does not require inpatient care.
Question 258: A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of palpitations and loose stools. She has had a 2.3-kg (5-lb) weight loss over the past month. She has had no change in appetite. She has no history of serious illness. She works in accounting and has been under more stress than usual lately. She takes no medications. She appears pale. Her temperature is 37.8°C (100.1°F), pulse is 110/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 126/78 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft and nontender. There is a bilateral hand tremor with outstretched arms and a palpable thyroid nodule in the left lobe. Serum laboratory studies show a thyroid stimulating hormone level of 0.03 μU/mL and a thyroxine level of 28 μg/dL. A radioactive iodine uptake scan shows enhancement in a 3-cm encapsulated nodule in the lower left lobe with decreased uptake in the remaining gland. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Graves' disease
B. Thyroid storm
C. Toxic adenoma (Correct Answer)
D. Papillary carcinoma
E. Goiter
Explanation: ***Toxic adenoma***
- The combination of **hyperthyroidism** (low TSH, high thyroxine, palpitations, weight loss, tremor) and a **single, hot nodule** on radioactive iodine uptake scan with suppressed uptake in the surrounding gland is classic for a toxic adenoma.
- A **toxic adenoma** is a benign tumor that functions autonomously, producing thyroid hormones independent of TSH regulation.
*Graves' disease*
- While Graves' disease also causes hyperthyroidism, it typically presents with **diffuse uptake** of radioactive iodine throughout the entire gland, not a single hot nodule.
- Classic features like **exophthalmos** or **pretibial myxedema** are also absent in this case.
*Thyroid storm*
- This is a **life-threatening exacerbation of hyperthyroidism** characterized by fever, marked tachycardia, arrhythmias, altered mental status, and potentially coma.
- While the patient has some hyperthyroid symptoms, her presentation is not severe enough to be classified as a thyroid storm.
*Papillary carcinoma*
- Thyroid cancers, including **papillary carcinoma**, are typically **"cold" nodules** on radioactive iodine uptake scans, meaning they do not take up iodine.
- The patient's nodule is "hot" and associated with hyperthyroidism, making carcinoma highly unlikely.
*Goiter*
- A **goiter** refers to any enlargement of the thyroid gland, which can be diffuse or nodular, and may or may not be associated with functional abnormalities.
- While the patient has a palpable nodule, "goiter" is a descriptive term and does not specify the underlying cause of her hyperthyroidism.
Question 259: A 58-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of itching of both legs. She also has swelling and dull pain that are worse at the end of the day and are more severe in her right leg. She has hyperthyroidism, asthma, and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Four years ago, she had basal cell carcinoma of the face that was treated with Mohs surgery. Current medications include methimazole, albuterol, and insulin. She has smoked 3–4 cigarettes a day for the past 29 years. She goes to a local sauna twice a week. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 75/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 124/76 mm Hg. Physical examination shows fair skin with diffuse freckles. There is 2+ pitting edema of the right leg and 1+ pitting edema of the left leg. There is diffuse reddish-brown discoloration and significant scaling extending from the ankle to the mid-thigh bilaterally. Pedal pulses and sensation are intact bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient's symptoms?
A. Breach of skin barrier by dermatophyte
B. Malignant proliferation of epidermal keratinocytes
C. Dermal accumulation of glycosaminoglycans
D. Venous valve incompetence (Correct Answer)
E. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation: **Venous valve incompetence**
- The patient's symptoms of **bilateral leg swelling**, **dull pain worse at day's end**, and **reddish-brown discoloration with scaling** are classic signs of **chronic venous insufficiency**, which results from incompetent venous valves.
- **Pitting edema**, particularly 2+ in the right leg and 1+ in the left, further supports the diagnosis, indicating fluid accumulation due to impaired venous return.
*Breach of skin barrier by dermatophyte*
- This typically causes **tinea cruris** or **tinea pedis**, characterized by well-demarcated, erythematous, pruritic, and scaly lesions, often with central clearing.
- While itching and scaling are present, the **diffuse reddish-brown discoloration**, **pitting edema**, and distribution from ankle to mid-thigh are not typical of a primary dermatophyte infection.
*Malignant proliferation of epidermal keratinocytes*
- This describes **squamous cell carcinoma** or **basal cell carcinoma**, which was previously treated on her face.
- These conditions usually present as persistent, non-healing sores or plaques, not diffuse bilateral leg swelling, scaling, and discoloration associated with chronic venous stasis.
*Dermal accumulation of glycosaminoglycans*
- This is characteristic of **pretibial myxedema**, a dermatologic manifestation of **Graves' disease** (hyperthyroidism).
- While the patient has hyperthyroidism, pretibial myxedema typically presents as **non-pitting edema** with a "peau d'orange" texture, unlike the pitting edema described.
*Type IV hypersensitivity reaction*
- This describes **allergic contact dermatitis**, which would present with pruritic, erythematous, vesicular, and papular lesions, often with a clear history of exposure to an allergen.
- The chronic, progressive nature of the symptoms, along with diffuse swelling and discoloration, is inconsistent with an acute or subacute type IV hypersensitivity reaction.
Question 260: A 22-year-old woman with a history of type I diabetes mellitus presents to the emergency department with nausea, vomiting, and drowsiness for the past day. Her temperature is 98.3°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 114/74 mmHg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 27/min, and oxygen saturation is 100% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a confused and lethargic young woman. Initial laboratory values are notable for the findings below.
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 2.9 mEq/L
HCO3-: 9 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 599 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 10 U/L
An initial ECG is notable for sinus tachycardia. Which of the following is the best initial step in management for this patient?
A. Normal saline and insulin
B. Insulin and potassium
C. Normal saline and potassium
D. Normal saline, insulin, and potassium (Correct Answer)
E. Normal saline, insulin, potassium, and sodium bicarbonate
Explanation: ***Normal saline, insulin, and potassium***
- This patient presents with signs and symptoms consistent with **diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)**, including hyperglycemia (glucose 599 mg/dL), metabolic acidosis (HCO3- 9 mEq/L, respiratory compensation with elevated respiratory rate), and altered mental status. The initial management of DKA involves aggressive **intravenous fluid resuscitation** (normal saline), **insulin administration** to correct hyperglycemia and acidosis, and **potassium replacement** due to total body potassium depletion and anticipated further drop with insulin therapy.
- Her **hypokalemia (2.9 mEq/L)**, even before insulin administration, necessitates immediate potassium repletion as insulin drives potassium intracellularly, which could worsen hypokalemia and lead to arrhythmias.
*Normal saline and insulin*
- While fluid resuscitation and insulin are crucial for DKA management, omitting **potassium replacement** in a patient with initial hypokalemia (K+ 2.9 mEq/L) would be inappropriate and potentially dangerous.
- Failure to correct hypokalemia before or with insulin administration can precipitate life-threatening **cardiac arrhythmias**.
*Normal saline, insulin, potassium, and sodium bicarbonate*
- **Sodium bicarbonate** is generally not recommended for DKA unless pH is extremely low (typically <6.9), as it can worsen cerebral edema and hypokalemia. The patient's bicarbonate of 9 mEq/L and presumably higher pH does not warrant bicarbonate administration.
- While fluids, insulin, and potassium are essential, the addition of sodium bicarbonate is usually reserved for severe, life-threatening acidosis (pH < 6.9).
*Normal saline and potassium*
- Administering only normal saline and potassium would address dehydration and hypokalemia but would fail to correct the underlying **hyperglycemia** and **ketoacidosis**, which are the core pathologies of DKA.
- **Insulin** is critical to stop ketogenesis and lower blood glucose.
*Insulin and potassium*
- Administering insulin and potassium without **fluid resuscitation** would be inadequate. The patient is likely significantly dehydrated due to osmotic diuresis from hyperglycemia and vomiting.
- **Fluid administration** is paramount in restoring circulating volume, improving renal perfusion, and reducing hyperglycemia by enhancing glucose excretion.