A 27-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with a chief complaint of pain in her hands, shoulders, and knees. She states that the pain has lasted for several months but seems to have worsened recently. Any activity such as opening jars, walking, or brushing her teeth is painful. The patient has a past medical history of a suicide attempt in college, constipation, anxiety, depression, and a sunburn associated with surfing which was treated with aloe vera gel. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 137/78 mmHg, pulse is 92/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Laboratory values are obtained and shown below.
Hemoglobin: 9 g/dL
Hematocrit: 33%
Leukocyte count: 2,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 107,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 21 mg/dL
Glucose: 90 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 10 U/L
Which of the following is the most likely to be found in this patient?
Q222
A previously healthy 46-year-old man comes to the physician for an 8-month history of headache that is more severe in the mornings. His blood pressure is 151/92 mm Hg. Examination shows enlargement of the nose, forehead, and jaw as well as the hands, fingers, and feet. Ophthalmologic examination shows impaired vision in the outer peripheral fields of both eyes. Laboratory studies show a serum glucose concentration of 225 mg/dL. Which of the following findings is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Q223
A 51-year-old woman comes to the physician because of swelling of her legs for 4 months. She first noticed the changes on the left leg, followed by the right leg. Sometimes her legs are itchy. She has a 1-month history of hoarseness. She returned from a trip to Mexico 8 months ago. She has a history of hypertension, constipation, and coronary artery disease. She works as a teacher at a primary school. Her mother had type-2 diabetes mellitus. She smoked one-half pack of cigarettes daily for 6 years but stopped smoking 11 years ago. She drinks one glass of wine daily and occasionally more on the weekend. Current medications include aspirin, bisoprolol, and atorvastatin. She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 82 kg (181 lb); BMI is 30.1 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows bilateral pretibial non-pitting edema. The skin is indurated, cool, and dry. Peripheral pulses are palpated bilaterally. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. The patient is at increased risk for which of the following conditions?
Q224
A 35-year-old African American woman comes to the physician because of intermittent palpitations over the past 2 weeks. During this period she has also had constipation and has felt more tired than usual. She was diagnosed with hypertension 4 weeks ago and treatment with chlorthalidone was begun. Her temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), pulse is 75/min, and blood pressure is 158/97 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a soft and nontender abdomen. There is mild weakness of the upper and lower extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are 1+ bilaterally. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 5,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 146 mEq/L
Cl− 100 mEq/L
K+ 2.8 mEq/L
HCO3− 30 mEq/L
Glucose 97 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 10 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Test of the stool for occult blood is negative. An ECG shows premature atrial complexes. Chlorthalidone is discontinued and oral potassium chloride therapy is begun. One week later, the patient's plasma aldosterone concentration is 26 ng/dL (N=3.6 to 24.0 ng/dL) and plasma renin activity is 0.8 ng/mL/h (N=0.3 to 4.2 ng/mL/h). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q225
A 33-year-old African-American female presents to her physician with complaints of a persistent, dry cough. She states that the cough has gone on for some time now. Three weeks ago, during her last general checkup, she was started on lisinopril and metformin for concerns regarding an elevated blood pressure and fasting blood glucose. Past medical history is notable for eczema, asthma, and seasonal allergies. At this visit the patient has other non-specific complaints such as fatigue and joint pain as well as a burning sensation in her sternum when she eats large meals. Her physical exam is only notable for painful bumps on her lower extremities (figure A) which the patient attributes to "bumping her shins," during exercise, and an obese habitus. Which of the following is most likely true for this patient's chief concern?
Q226
A 50-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Two weeks ago she was seen for adjustment of her antihypertensive regimen and prescribed lisinopril because of persistently high blood pressure readings. A complete blood count and renal function checked at her last visit were within the normal limits. On questioning, she has had fatigue and frequent headaches over the last month. She has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, polycystic ovarian disease, and hyperlipidemia. Her mother has hyperthyroidism and hypertension. Current medications include amlodipine and hydrochlorothiazide at maximum doses, lisinopril, metformin, glimepiride, and atorvastatin. She has never smoked and drinks 1–2 glasses of wine with dinner every night. She is 167 cm (5 ft 5 inches) and weighs 81.6 kg (180 lbs); BMI is 30 kg/m2. Her blood pressure is 170/110 mm Hg in both arms, heart rate is 90/min, and respirations are 12/min. Examination shows an obese patient and no other abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
Leukocyte count 7,800/mm3
Serum
Na+ 139 mEq/L
K+ 3.4 mEq/L
Cl- 100 mEq/L
Creatinine 2.1 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 29 mg/dL
TSH 3 μU/mL
Urine
Blood negative
Protein negative
Glucose 1+
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q227
A 35-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of progressive fatigue and intermittent abdominal pain. During this time, she has noticed that her urine is darker when she wakes up in the morning. Her stool is of normal color. Five months ago, she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, for which she takes metformin. Physical examination shows pallor and jaundice. There is no splenomegaly. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 7.5 g/dL
WBC count 3,500/mm3
Platelet count 100,000/mm3
Serum
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Total bilirubin 6.0 mg/dL
Direct bilirubin 0.2 mg/dl
Lactate dehydrogenase 660 U/L
Haptoglobin 18 mg/dL (N=41–165 mg/dL)
Her urine is red, but urinalysis shows no RBCs. A Coombs test is negative. Peripheral blood smear shows no abnormalities. This patient is at greatest risk for which of the following complications?
Q228
A 50-year-old female presents with a holosystolic murmur heard best over the apex, radiating to the axilla. She has no signs of pulmonary hypertension or edema. What best explains her lack of symptoms?
Q229
A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care provider after noticing that his urine has been pink for the last week. He does not have any pain with urination, nor has he had any associated fevers or infections. On his review of systems, the patient notes that he thinks he has lost some weight since his belt is looser, and he has also had occasional dull pressure in his back for the past two months. His temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 132/90 mmHg, pulse is 64/min, and respirations are 12/min. The patient weighs 210 lbs (95.3 kg, BMI 31.9 kg/m²), compared to his weight of 228 lbs (103.4 kg, BMI 34.7 kg/m²) at his last visit 2 years prior. On exam, the patient does not have any back or costovertebral angle tenderness. On abdominal palpation, a firm mass can be appreciated deep in the left abdomen. Given the suspected diagnosis, the clinical workup should also assess for which of the following paraneoplastic syndromes?
Q230
A 52-year-old male presents to clinic with complaints of anxiety and fatigue for 4 months. He has also been experiencing palpitations, muscle weakness, increased sweating, and an increase in the frequency of defecation. Past medical history is insignificant. He neither consumes alcohol nor smokes cigarettes. His pulse is 104/min and irregular, blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg. On examination, you notice that he has bilateral exophthalmos. There are fine tremors in both hands. Which of the following results would you expect to see on a thyroid panel?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: A 27-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with a chief complaint of pain in her hands, shoulders, and knees. She states that the pain has lasted for several months but seems to have worsened recently. Any activity such as opening jars, walking, or brushing her teeth is painful. The patient has a past medical history of a suicide attempt in college, constipation, anxiety, depression, and a sunburn associated with surfing which was treated with aloe vera gel. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 137/78 mmHg, pulse is 92/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Laboratory values are obtained and shown below.
Hemoglobin: 9 g/dL
Hematocrit: 33%
Leukocyte count: 2,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 107,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 102 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 21 mg/dL
Glucose: 90 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 10 U/L
Which of the following is the most likely to be found in this patient?
A. Anti-dsDNA antibodies (Correct Answer)
B. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies
C. IgM against parvovirus B19
D. Anti-histone antibodies
E. Degenerated cartilage in weight bearing joints
Explanation: ***Anti-dsDNA antibodies***
- The patient's presentation with **polyarthralgia**, **anemia**, **leukopenia**, and **thrombocytopenia** is highly suggestive of **systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)**.
- **Anti-dsDNA antibodies** are highly specific for SLE and are often associated with **lupus nephritis** and disease activity.
*Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies*
- These antibodies are highly specific for **rheumatoid arthritis**, which primarily causes **inflammatory arthritis** but does not typically present with the **heme abnormalities** (anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia) seen in this patient.
- The patient's symptoms of pain in hands, shoulders, and knees are broad and not specifically localized to the **small joints** in a symmetric pattern typical of rheumatoid arthritis.
*IgM against parvovirus B19*
- **Parvovirus B19 infection** can cause **arthralgia** and some hematological abnormalities, particularly **transient aplastic crisis**, but it typically does not cause the persistent **pancytopenia** or the broad systemic features seen here.
- IgM antibodies indicate an **acute infection**, and while it could cause joint pain, it is less likely to explain the constellation of symptoms including chronic multi-joint pain and significant cytopenias over several months.
*Anti-histone antibodies*
- **Anti-histone antibodies** are most commonly associated with **drug-induced lupus**, which typically develops after exposure to certain medications (e.g., **hydralazine**, **procainamide**).
- There is no mention of such drug exposure in the patient's history, and while they can be present in SLE, anti-dsDNA antibodies are more specific for idiopathic SLE.
*Degenerated cartilage in weight bearing joints*
- **Degenerated cartilage** in weight-bearing joints is characteristic of **osteoarthritis**, which is a **degenerative joint disease**.
- Osteoarthritis typically does not present with **systemic symptoms** like fatigue or the **hematological abnormalities** (anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia) observed in this patient.
Question 222: A previously healthy 46-year-old man comes to the physician for an 8-month history of headache that is more severe in the mornings. His blood pressure is 151/92 mm Hg. Examination shows enlargement of the nose, forehead, and jaw as well as the hands, fingers, and feet. Ophthalmologic examination shows impaired vision in the outer peripheral fields of both eyes. Laboratory studies show a serum glucose concentration of 225 mg/dL. Which of the following findings is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Elevated urine cortisol level
B. Low serum growth hormone level
C. Low serum insulin level
D. Elevated serum insulin-like growth factor-1 level (Correct Answer)
E. Elevated serum prolactin level
Explanation: ***Elevated serum insulin-like growth factor-1 level***
- The patient's symptoms (enlargement of nose, forehead, jaw, hands, and feet; headaches; hypertension; diabetes; bitemporal hemianopsia) are classic for **acromegaly**.
- **Insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1)** is the most reliable screening test for acromegaly because its levels are stable throughout the day and reflect integrated GH secretion; elevated levels significantly confirm the diagnosis.
*Elevated urine cortisol level*
- This would be indicative of **Cushing's syndrome**, which shares some features like hypertension and diabetes, but does not explain the characteristic acral and facial enlargement or the visual field defects.
- The primary diagnostic test for Cushing's is via **cortisol measurement** (e.g., 24-hour urinary free cortisol, late-night salivary cortisol).
*Low serum growth hormone level*
- A **low serum growth hormone (GH) level** would rule out acromegaly, as acromegaly is caused by excessive GH production, typically from a pituitary adenoma.
- While GH levels fluctuate, they are typically high in acromegaly, and a low level would be inconsistent with the clinical picture.
*Low serum insulin level*
- The patient has **diabetes mellitus**, which can be caused by various factors, but a low insulin level is characteristic of **Type 1 diabetes** or late-stage Type 2 diabetes with pancreatic burnout.
- In acromegaly, **insulin resistance** is common due to excess GH, often leading to elevated or normal insulin levels to try and compensate for high glucose.
*Elevated serum prolactin level*
- An elevated serum prolactin level indicates **hyperprolactinemia**, which may coincide with acromegaly if the pituitary adenoma co-secretes prolactin (a mixed tumor) or if the GH-secreting tumor compresses the pituitary stalk.
- However, **prolactin elevation alone** would not explain the acral growth and metabolic abnormalities specific to acromegaly.
Question 223: A 51-year-old woman comes to the physician because of swelling of her legs for 4 months. She first noticed the changes on the left leg, followed by the right leg. Sometimes her legs are itchy. She has a 1-month history of hoarseness. She returned from a trip to Mexico 8 months ago. She has a history of hypertension, constipation, and coronary artery disease. She works as a teacher at a primary school. Her mother had type-2 diabetes mellitus. She smoked one-half pack of cigarettes daily for 6 years but stopped smoking 11 years ago. She drinks one glass of wine daily and occasionally more on the weekend. Current medications include aspirin, bisoprolol, and atorvastatin. She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 82 kg (181 lb); BMI is 30.1 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows bilateral pretibial non-pitting edema. The skin is indurated, cool, and dry. Peripheral pulses are palpated bilaterally. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. The patient is at increased risk for which of the following conditions?
A. Cardiovascular complications
B. Respiratory depression
C. Hypothermia
D. Cognitive impairment
E. Myxedema coma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Myxedema coma***
- The patient's symptoms of **non-pitting pretibial edema**, **hoarseness**, **cold and dry skin**, along with **constipation** and elevated BMI (30.1), are highly suggestive of **severe hypothyroidism**
- **Myxedema coma** is a life-threatening endocrine emergency representing the most severe manifestation of untreated hypothyroidism
- This patient with undiagnosed/untreated hypothyroidism is at highest risk for progression to myxedema coma, particularly if exposed to precipitating factors (infection, cold exposure, medications, surgery)
- Myxedema coma has high mortality (20-50%) and requires urgent recognition and treatment
*Cardiovascular complications*
- While hypothyroidism increases cardiovascular risk (bradycardia, pericardial effusion, heart failure), these are chronic complications
- The patient already has coronary artery disease, but the question asks about increased risk given the current presentation of severe hypothyroidism
- Myxedema coma represents a more immediate and life-threatening risk
*Respiratory depression*
- Respiratory depression can occur in severe hypothyroidism due to decreased respiratory drive and respiratory muscle weakness
- However, respiratory depression is typically a **feature of myxedema coma** rather than a separate entity
- Myxedema coma is the more comprehensive and critical diagnosis
*Hypothermia*
- Hypothermia is common in severe hypothyroidism due to decreased metabolic rate
- However, hypothermia is an **associated finding** of myxedema coma, not a separate complication
- Myxedema coma encompasses hypothermia along with altered mental status, cardiovascular collapse, and other systemic manifestations
*Cognitive impairment*
- Cognitive impairment (slowed thinking, memory problems, depression) can occur in chronic hypothyroidism
- This is a less acute and less life-threatening manifestation compared to the severe metabolic decompensation of myxedema coma
- Altered mental status in myxedema coma is more severe than chronic cognitive impairment
Question 224: A 35-year-old African American woman comes to the physician because of intermittent palpitations over the past 2 weeks. During this period she has also had constipation and has felt more tired than usual. She was diagnosed with hypertension 4 weeks ago and treatment with chlorthalidone was begun. Her temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), pulse is 75/min, and blood pressure is 158/97 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a soft and nontender abdomen. There is mild weakness of the upper and lower extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are 1+ bilaterally. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 5,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 146 mEq/L
Cl− 100 mEq/L
K+ 2.8 mEq/L
HCO3− 30 mEq/L
Glucose 97 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 10 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Test of the stool for occult blood is negative. An ECG shows premature atrial complexes. Chlorthalidone is discontinued and oral potassium chloride therapy is begun. One week later, the patient's plasma aldosterone concentration is 26 ng/dL (N=3.6 to 24.0 ng/dL) and plasma renin activity is 0.8 ng/mL/h (N=0.3 to 4.2 ng/mL/h). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Perform adrenalectomy
B. Perform saline infusion test (Correct Answer)
C. Measure urine pH and anion gap
D. Perform CT scan of the abdomen
E. Perform dexamethasone suppression test
Explanation: ***Perform saline infusion test***
- The patient's **hypokalemia**, **hypertension**, and **high aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR)**, even after discontinuing chlorthalidone, are highly suggestive of **primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's syndrome)**.
- A **saline infusion test** is the most appropriate next step to confirm primary hyperaldosteronism by assessing **aldosterone suppressibility**. Failure to suppress aldosterone after saline infusion confirms the diagnosis.
*Perform adrenalectomy*
- Adrenalectomy is a treatment for aldosterone-producing adenomas, but it is not the next step before confirming the diagnosis and localizing the lesion.
- The diagnosis of primary hyperaldosteronism first needs biochemical confirmation, usually with a saline suppression test.
*Measure urine pH and anion gap*
- Measuring urine pH and anion gap is useful in evaluating acid-base disorders or certain renal tubular conditions, but it is not directly relevant to diagnosing primary hyperaldosteronism.
- The primary concern here is the workup of hypertension and hypokalemia with suspected endocrine etiology.
*Perform CT scan of the abdomen*
- While an abdominal CT scan is used to localize an adrenal adenoma, it should be done after biochemical confirmation of primary hyperaldosteronism.
- Imaging should not precede diagnostic confirmation, as incidentalomas are common and may lead to unnecessary procedures.
*Perform dexamethasone suppression test*
- A dexamethasone suppression test is used to evaluate **Cushing's syndrome** (hypercortisolism), which is characterized by symptoms different from this patient's presentation.
- This patient's symptoms of hypokalemia and hypertension point toward mineralocorticoid excess, not glucocorticoid excess.
Question 225: A 33-year-old African-American female presents to her physician with complaints of a persistent, dry cough. She states that the cough has gone on for some time now. Three weeks ago, during her last general checkup, she was started on lisinopril and metformin for concerns regarding an elevated blood pressure and fasting blood glucose. Past medical history is notable for eczema, asthma, and seasonal allergies. At this visit the patient has other non-specific complaints such as fatigue and joint pain as well as a burning sensation in her sternum when she eats large meals. Her physical exam is only notable for painful bumps on her lower extremities (figure A) which the patient attributes to "bumping her shins," during exercise, and an obese habitus. Which of the following is most likely true for this patient's chief concern?
A. Omeprazole is an appropriate next step in management
B. Loratadine would best treat her chief complaint
C. Serum levels of bradykinin will be elevated
D. Non-caseating granulomas are found on biopsy of mediastinal lymph nodes (Correct Answer)
E. Beta agonists would relieve this patient's symptoms
Explanation: ***Non-caseating granulomas are found on biopsy of mediastinal lymph nodes***
- The patient's symptoms (persistent dry cough, fatigue, joint pain, painful shin bumps consistent with **erythema nodosum**) in an **African-American female** are highly suggestive of **sarcoidosis**.
- **Sarcoidosis** is characterized by the presence of **non-caseating granulomas** in affected organs, commonly the lungs and mediastinal lymph nodes.
*Omeprazole is an appropriate next step in management*
- While the patient has a "burning sensation in her sternum when she eats large meals," suggesting **gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)**, this is not her chief complaint.
- Treating GERD with **omeprazole** would address the burning sensation but not the persistent dry cough or other systemic symptoms.
*Loratadine would best treat her chief complaint*
- **Loratadine** is an antihistamine used to treat allergic reactions, including symptoms of seasonal allergies and eczema.
- Although the patient has a history of allergies and asthma, a persistent dry cough with systemic symptoms and erythema nodosum points away from an **allergic cough** as the primary cause.
*Serum levels of bradykinin will be elevated*
- High serum levels of **bradykinin** can cause an ACE inhibitor-induced dry cough, which should be considered given her recent initiation of **lisinopril**.
- However, the presence of **erythema nodosum**, joint pain, and fatigue, combined with a persistent dry cough, makes **sarcoidosis** a more comprehensive diagnosis that explains all her symptoms beyond just the cough.
*Beta agonists would relieve this patient's symptoms*
- **Beta-agonists** are bronchodilators used to relieve bronchospasm in conditions like asthma.
- While the patient has a history of asthma, her cough is described as persistent and dry, and combined with other systemic symptoms, it is less likely to be solely an asthma exacerbation treatable with **beta-agonists**.
Question 226: A 50-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Two weeks ago she was seen for adjustment of her antihypertensive regimen and prescribed lisinopril because of persistently high blood pressure readings. A complete blood count and renal function checked at her last visit were within the normal limits. On questioning, she has had fatigue and frequent headaches over the last month. She has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, polycystic ovarian disease, and hyperlipidemia. Her mother has hyperthyroidism and hypertension. Current medications include amlodipine and hydrochlorothiazide at maximum doses, lisinopril, metformin, glimepiride, and atorvastatin. She has never smoked and drinks 1–2 glasses of wine with dinner every night. She is 167 cm (5 ft 5 inches) and weighs 81.6 kg (180 lbs); BMI is 30 kg/m2. Her blood pressure is 170/110 mm Hg in both arms, heart rate is 90/min, and respirations are 12/min. Examination shows an obese patient and no other abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
Leukocyte count 7,800/mm3
Serum
Na+ 139 mEq/L
K+ 3.4 mEq/L
Cl- 100 mEq/L
Creatinine 2.1 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 29 mg/dL
TSH 3 μU/mL
Urine
Blood negative
Protein negative
Glucose 1+
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Obstructive sleep apnea
B. Diabetic kidney disease
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Polycystic kidney disease
E. Renal artery stenosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Renal artery stenosis***
- The patient's **worsening hypertension** despite being on maximum doses of multiple antihypertensive medications (including ACE inhibitor lisinopril) and her **new-onset renal dysfunction** (elevated creatinine and BUN) are highly suggestive of renal artery stenosis.
- The elevated blood pressure in both arms (170/110 mm Hg), combined with risk factors like **diabetes**, **hyperlipidemia**, and **obesity**, increases the likelihood of **atherosclerotic renovascular disease**.
*Obstructive sleep apnea*
- While **obesity** is a risk factor for obstructive sleep apnea and it can contribute to **hypertension**, it generally does not explain the **acute worsening of renal function** after starting an ACE inhibitor.
- Patients typically present with snoring, daytime sleepiness, and witnessed apneic episodes, which are not mentioned here.
*Diabetic kidney disease*
- This patient has **diabetes**, which is a risk factor for nephropathy, but the **acute increase in creatinine** after initiation of an ACE inhibitor (lisinopril) points more towards a **hemodynamically mediated renal injury**, such as that seen in renal artery stenosis.
- Diabetic kidney disease usually progresses over a longer period, often with **albuminuria**, which is absent in this patient (urine protein negative).
*Hyperthyroidism*
- The patient's **TSH is within normal limits** (3 μU/mL), making hyperthyroidism an unlikely diagnosis despite a family history.
- Although hyperthyroidism can cause hypertension and fatigue, it would not explain the **acute renal dysfunction** observed.
*Polycystic kidney disease*
- **Polycystic kidney disease** is a genetic disorder typically diagnosed with **renal imaging** showing multiple cysts.
- While it can cause hypertension and renal dysfunction, there is no mention of family history (other than for hyperthyroidism and hypertension) or imaging findings supportive of this diagnosis, and the **acute worsening with lisinopril** is not characteristic.
Question 227: A 35-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of progressive fatigue and intermittent abdominal pain. During this time, she has noticed that her urine is darker when she wakes up in the morning. Her stool is of normal color. Five months ago, she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, for which she takes metformin. Physical examination shows pallor and jaundice. There is no splenomegaly. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 7.5 g/dL
WBC count 3,500/mm3
Platelet count 100,000/mm3
Serum
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Total bilirubin 6.0 mg/dL
Direct bilirubin 0.2 mg/dl
Lactate dehydrogenase 660 U/L
Haptoglobin 18 mg/dL (N=41–165 mg/dL)
Her urine is red, but urinalysis shows no RBCs. A Coombs test is negative. Peripheral blood smear shows no abnormalities. This patient is at greatest risk for which of the following complications?
A. Cholesterol gallstones
B. Acrocyanosis
C. Venous thrombosis (Correct Answer)
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
E. Hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation: ***Venous thrombosis***
- The patient's presentation with **fatigue**, **anemia** (Hb 7.5 g/dL), **thrombocytopenia** (platelets 100,000/mm³), **leukopenia** (WBC 3,500/mm³), **dark urine** without RBCs, **indirect hyperbilirubinemia** (total 6.0, direct 0.2), **elevated LDH**, and **low haptoglobin** points to **paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)**. This diagnosis is supported by the **negative Coombs test**, which rules out autoimmune hemolytic anemia, and the absence of abnormalities on peripheral blood smear typical of other hemolytic anemias.
- Patients with PNH have a significantly increased risk of developing **venous thromboses**, which can occur in unusual sites such as hepatic, mesenteric, or cerebral veins, and are a major cause of morbidity and mortality for this condition.
*Cholesterol gallstones*
- While patients with chronic hemolysis, particularly those with conditions like **sickle cell anemia** or **hereditary spherocytosis**, are at increased risk for **pigment gallstones** due to increased bilirubin, they are not typically at increased risk for cholesterol gallstones.
- The type of hemolysis seen in PNH, which is primarily intravascular, drives the formation of pigment stones, but the primary acute complication risk is thrombosis.
*Acrocyanosis*
- **Acrocyanosis** is a benign condition characterized by persistent, painless, blue discoloration of the extremities due to vasospasm of small skin vessels, often exacerbated by cold.
- It is not a recognized complication or association with the constellation of symptoms and laboratory findings presented in this patient's case, which strongly suggest a hematologic disorder like PNH.
*Chronic lymphocytic leukemia*
- The patient's **leukopenia** (WBC 3,500/mm³) is inconsistent with **chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)**, which is characterized by a persistent and absolute **lymphocytosis**.
- While CLL can sometimes be associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia (positive Coombs test), the overall clinical picture, and specifically the degree of leukopenia, makes CLL unlikely.
*Hepatocellular carcinoma*
- **Hepatocellular carcinoma** is a liver cancer typically associated with chronic liver diseases such as **hepatitis B or C infection**, **alcohol abuse**, **hemochromatosis**, or **non-alcoholic fatty liver disease**.
- There is no evidence in the patient's presentation (e.g., normal creatinine, absent splenomegaly) to suggest chronic liver disease or other risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma.
Question 228: A 50-year-old female presents with a holosystolic murmur heard best over the apex, radiating to the axilla. She has no signs of pulmonary hypertension or edema. What best explains her lack of symptoms?
A. The aorta is compensating with increased compliance
B. Mitral valve prolapse without regurgitation causes no hemodynamic changes
C. The left atrium is compensating with increased compliance (Correct Answer)
D. As long as preload in the left ventricle is maintained there would be no symptoms
E. The right ventricle is compensating with decreased compliance
Explanation: ***The left atrium is compensating with increased compliance***
- In **mitral regurgitation**, the initial compensatory mechanism involves the **left atrium stretching and increasing its compliance** to accommodate the regurgitant volume.
- This **prevents a significant rise in left atrial pressure**, thereby averting pulmonary congestion symptoms like edema or pulmonary hypertension.
*The aorta is compensating with increased compliance*
- **Aortic compliance** primarily affects **afterload** and is not a direct compensatory mechanism for mitral regurgitation.
- While aortic stiffening can exacerbate cardiac workload, increased compliance wouldn't specifically mitigate symptoms arising from left atrial volume overload.
*Mitral valve prolapse without regurgitation causes no hemodynamic changes*
- A **holosystolic murmur** best heard at the apex and radiating to the axilla is characteristic of **mitral regurgitation**, indicating actual blood flow back into the atrium during systole.
- **Mitral valve prolapse without regurgitation** might be silent or cause a mid-systolic click without significant hemodynamic changes, but this patient has clear evidence of regurgitation.
*As long as preload in the left ventricle is maintained there would be no symptoms*
- **Preload maintenance in the left ventricle** is important for maintaining cardiac output, but regurgitation itself diverts blood from forward flow.
- Symptoms in mitral regurgitation often arise from **increased left atrial pressure** and subsequent pulmonary congestion, even if left ventricular preload is sufficient to maintain some forward flow.
*The right ventricle is compensating with decreased compliance*
- **Right ventricular compliance** is primarily relevant to conditions affecting the pulmonary circulation or right heart.
- It would not directly compensate for left-sided volume overload in mitral regurgitation; in fact, prolonged left-sided heart failure can eventually lead to right ventricular dysfunction.
Question 229: A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care provider after noticing that his urine has been pink for the last week. He does not have any pain with urination, nor has he had any associated fevers or infections. On his review of systems, the patient notes that he thinks he has lost some weight since his belt is looser, and he has also had occasional dull pressure in his back for the past two months. His temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 132/90 mmHg, pulse is 64/min, and respirations are 12/min. The patient weighs 210 lbs (95.3 kg, BMI 31.9 kg/m²), compared to his weight of 228 lbs (103.4 kg, BMI 34.7 kg/m²) at his last visit 2 years prior. On exam, the patient does not have any back or costovertebral angle tenderness. On abdominal palpation, a firm mass can be appreciated deep in the left abdomen. Given the suspected diagnosis, the clinical workup should also assess for which of the following paraneoplastic syndromes?
A. Hypercalcemia (Correct Answer)
B. Polycythemia
C. Anemia
D. Stauffer syndrome
E. Hypercortisolism
Explanation: ***Hypercalcemia***
- The patient's presentation with **painless hematuria**, unexplained weight loss, flank pain, and a palpable abdominal mass is highly suggestive of **renal cell carcinoma (RCC)**.
- **Hypercalcemia** is the **most common paraneoplastic syndrome** associated with RCC, occurring in 10-20% of cases, often due to the tumor secreting **parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP)**.
- This is the most important metabolic abnormality to screen for in the initial workup.
*Polycythemia*
- While **polycythemia** can be a paraneoplastic syndrome in RCC due to **erythropoietin (EPO) production**, it occurs in only 3-10% of cases, making it less common than hypercalcemia.
- The patient's symptoms do not specifically point to an excess red blood cell count.
*Anemia*
- **Anemia** is actually the most common hematologic finding in RCC (20-40% of cases), more common than polycythemia.
- It represents a paraneoplastic effect related to chronic disease and inflammatory cytokines.
- However, **hypercalcemia is the more critical paraneoplastic syndrome to assess** given its prognostic significance and need for intervention.
*Stauffer syndrome*
- **Stauffer syndrome** is a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with RCC characterized by **non-metastatic hepatic dysfunction** with elevated alkaline phosphatase and prolonged prothrombin time.
- While it occurs in 3-20% of cases, **hypercalcemia is more common** and typically assessed first in the metabolic workup.
*Hypercortisolism*
- **Hypercortisolism (Cushing's syndrome)** is rarely associated with RCC; it is more typically seen with **small cell lung carcinoma** or **adrenal tumors** producing ectopic ACTH.
- There are no symptoms mentioned in the patient's presentation to suggest excess cortisol production.
Question 230: A 52-year-old male presents to clinic with complaints of anxiety and fatigue for 4 months. He has also been experiencing palpitations, muscle weakness, increased sweating, and an increase in the frequency of defecation. Past medical history is insignificant. He neither consumes alcohol nor smokes cigarettes. His pulse is 104/min and irregular, blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg. On examination, you notice that he has bilateral exophthalmos. There are fine tremors in both hands. Which of the following results would you expect to see on a thyroid panel?
A. High TSH; Low T4; Low T3
B. High TSH; High T4; High T3
C. Normal TSH; Low total T4; Normal Free T4 and T3
D. Low TSH; High T4; High T3 (Correct Answer)
E. Normal TSH; Low T4; Low T3
Explanation: ***Low TSH; High T4; High T3***
- The patient's symptoms (anxiety, fatigue, palpitations, muscle weakness, increased sweating, increased defecation frequency, tachycardia, hypertension, exophthalmos, fine tremors) are classic for **hyperthyroidism**, particularly **Graves' disease**.
- In primary hyperthyroidism, the thyroid gland overproduces T3 and T4, leading to **high levels of T4 and T3**. This then causes a negative feedback loop to the pituitary, resulting in **suppressed (low) TSH** levels.
*High TSH; Low T4; Low T3*
- This pattern is indicative of **primary hypothyroidism**, where the thyroid gland is underactive and cannot produce sufficient T4 and T3, leading to low levels of these hormones and a compensatory rise in TSH.
- The presented symptoms are directly opposite to those seen in hypothyroidism.
*High TSH; High T4; High T3*
- This combination is characteristic of **secondary hyperthyroidism**, which is much rarer and caused by a TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma.
- While it presents with hyperthyroid symptoms, the TSH level would be elevated or inappropriately normal, not suppressed.
*Normal TSH; Low total T4; Normal Free T4 and T3*
- This pattern is often seen in **euthyroid sick syndrome** or conditions causing a decrease in thyroid-binding globulin (TBG).
- The patient's clinical presentation is clearly that of hyperthyroidism, not a euthyroid state.
*Normal TSH; Low T4; Low T3*
- This result is atypical for any specific thyroid disorder and does not align with the patient's symptoms of hyperthyroidism, which demand high circulating thyroid hormone levels.
- A "normal TSH, low T4, low T3" might suggest central hypothyroidism if TSH was inappropriately normal for the low thyroid hormones, but this patient's symptoms definitively point to thyroid hormone excess.