A 60-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. He feels well. Five years ago, he underwent a colonoscopy, which was unremarkable. He has no history of serious illness except for an episode of poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis at the age of 10 years. His father died of bladder carcinoma at the age of 55 years. The patient works at a rubber factory. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 25 years. He drinks 1–2 cans of beer per day. He takes no medications. He has never received any pneumococcal vaccination. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 70/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Digital rectal examination shows mild symmetrical enlargement of the prostate with no masses. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q202
A 45-year-old woman comes to the physician because of fatigue, lightheadedness, dizziness upon standing, abdominal pain, and muscle pain over the past 6 months. She has also had an unintended weight loss of 5.8 kg (12.8 lb) over the past 3 years. She has had a history of hypoparathyroidism since she was a teenager. Her current medications include calcitriol and calcium carbonate. Her pulse is 85/min and blood pressure is 81/45 mm Hg. Physical examination shows tanned skin, as well as sparse axillary and pubic hair. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q203
A 48-year-old woman presents to her family physician for evaluation of increasing shortness of breath. She returned from a trip to China 2 weeks ago and reports fever, myalgias, headaches, and a dry cough for the past week. Over the last 2 days, she has noticed increasingly severe shortness of breath. Her past medical history is non-contributory. The heart rate is 84/min, respiratory rate is 22/min, temperature is 38.0°C (100.4°F), and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. A chest X-ray shows bilateral patchy infiltrates. Laboratory studies show leukopenia. After appropriate implementation of infection prevention and control measures, the patient is hospitalized. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q204
A 68-year-old, overweight gentleman with a 20-pack-year history of smoking presents to the primary care physician after noticing multiple blood-stained tissues after coughing attacks in the last month. His vital signs are within normal limits except for an O2 saturation of 93% on room air. He states that over the last 5 years his cough has continued to worsen and has never truly improved. He states that his shortness of breath has also worsened over this time period, as now he can barely make it up the flight of stairs in his home. In this patient, what is the most likely cause of his hemoptysis?
Q205
A 44-year-old woman presents to the outpatient clinic after she ran into a minor car accident. She says that she did not see the other car coming from the side and this is not the first time this has happened. When asked about any health issues she expresses concerns about whitish discharge dripping from both of her nipples that soils her blouse often. She is sexually active and has missed her periods for the last 3 months which she attributes to early signs of menopause. She denies nausea, vomiting, or recent weight gain. She currently does not take any medication. A visual field test reveals loss of bilateral temporal vision. Which of the following tests would best aid in diagnosing this patient’s condition?
Q206
An otherwise healthy 31-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a several-day history of sharp, central chest pain, which is constant and unrelated to exertion. The pain gets worse on lying down and decreases with sitting forward. He has smoked 10–15 cigarettes daily for the past 7 years. His blood pressure is 120/50 mm Hg, the pulse is 92/min, and the temperature is 37.1°C (98.7°F). On physical examination, a scratching sound is heard at end-expiration with the patient leaning forward. ECG is shown in the image. Serum troponin is mildly elevated. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q207
A 27-year-old woman, who recently immigrated from Bangladesh, presents to her primary care physician to discuss birth control. During a review of her past medical history, she reports that as a child she had a recurrent sore throat and fever followed by swollen and aching hip and knee joints. These symptoms returned every season and were never treated but went away on their own only to return with the next typhoon season. When asked about any current complaints, the patient says that she sometimes has shortness of breath and palpitations that do not last long. A physical exam is performed. In which of the auscultation sites will a murmur most likely be heard in this patient?
Q208
A 60-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. Over the past year, he has had problems initiating urination and the sensation of incomplete bladder emptying. He has a history of hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 40 years. He does not drink alcohol. His medications include lisinopril, atorvastatin, and daily aspirin. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a pulsatile abdominal mass at the level of the umbilicus and a bruit on auscultation. Digital rectal examination shows a symmetrically enlarged, smooth, firm, nontender prostate with rubbery texture. Laboratory studies are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q209
A 48-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his neighbor, who found him lying unconscious at the door of his house. The patient lives alone and no further history is available. On physical examination, his temperature is 37.2ºC (98.9ºF), pulse rate is 114/min, blood pressure is 116/78 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 22/min. His Glasgow Coma Scale score is 7 and the patient is intubated. A stat serum osmolality is reported at 260 mmol/kg. Based on the provided information, which of the following conditions is most likely present in this patient?
Q210
A 72-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a general checkup. The patient works as a farmer and has no concerns about his health. He has a past medical history of hypertension and obesity. His current medications include lisinopril and metoprolol. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 177/108 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a murmur after S2 over the left sternal border. The patient demonstrates a stable gait and 5/5 strength in his upper and lower extremities. Which of the following is another possible finding in this patient?
Cardiology US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 201: A 60-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. He feels well. Five years ago, he underwent a colonoscopy, which was unremarkable. He has no history of serious illness except for an episode of poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis at the age of 10 years. His father died of bladder carcinoma at the age of 55 years. The patient works at a rubber factory. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 25 years. He drinks 1–2 cans of beer per day. He takes no medications. He has never received any pneumococcal vaccination. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 70/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Digital rectal examination shows mild symmetrical enlargement of the prostate with no masses. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Recommend colonoscopy
B. Obtain renal ultrasound
C. Obtain CT urography
D. Administer pneumococcal conjugate vaccination (Correct Answer)
E. Discuss PSA assessment with patient
Explanation: ***Administer pneumococcal conjugate vaccination***
- This 60-year-old patient is a **current smoker** (25 pack-years), which is a specific indication for pneumococcal vaccination in adults aged 19-64 years according to **ACIP guidelines**.
- He has **never received pneumococcal vaccination**, making this a clear preventive care gap that should be addressed.
- Smoking significantly increases the risk of invasive pneumococcal disease, and vaccination is a concrete, evidence-based intervention.
- For adults <65 with smoking history, **PCV15 or PCV20** should be administered, followed by PPSV23 if using PCV15.
*Discuss PSA assessment with patient*
- While this patient has risk factors for prostate cancer (age 60, mild prostatic enlargement), **USPSTF gives PSA screening a Grade C recommendation** (individual decision) for men aged 55-69.
- Shared decision-making about PSA is reasonable but not more urgent than addressing the clear vaccination gap in a smoker.
- The decision to screen should be individualized based on patient preferences, but it's not the most immediate preventive priority.
*Recommend colonoscopy*
- The patient had an **unremarkable colonoscopy 5 years ago**. For individuals with average risk, the recommended interval is **every 10 years**.
- There are no new symptoms or high-risk features (e.g., family history of early-onset colorectal cancer) to warrant an earlier repeat colonoscopy.
*Obtain renal ultrasound*
- The patient had poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis at age 10, but this is **remote history** (50 years ago) with no current sequelae.
- He has **normal blood pressure** and no symptoms suggesting kidney dysfunction (no edema, proteinuria mentioned).
- Routine renal imaging is not indicated without clinical evidence of current kidney disease.
*Obtain CT urography*
- CT urography evaluates the **urinary tract for masses, stones, or hematuria**, typically when bladder cancer is suspected.
- Despite his father's bladder cancer history and occupational exposure (rubber factory workers have increased bladder cancer risk), there are **no current symptoms** such as hematuria to warrant this invasive, radiation-exposing study.
- Screening for bladder cancer in asymptomatic individuals is not recommended even with risk factors.
Question 202: A 45-year-old woman comes to the physician because of fatigue, lightheadedness, dizziness upon standing, abdominal pain, and muscle pain over the past 6 months. She has also had an unintended weight loss of 5.8 kg (12.8 lb) over the past 3 years. She has had a history of hypoparathyroidism since she was a teenager. Her current medications include calcitriol and calcium carbonate. Her pulse is 85/min and blood pressure is 81/45 mm Hg. Physical examination shows tanned skin, as well as sparse axillary and pubic hair. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Enzyme disorder
B. Abdominal neoplasia
C. Occult hemorrhage
D. Autoimmune destruction (Correct Answer)
E. Amyloid deposition
Explanation: ***Autoimmune destruction***
- The constellation of **fatigue, lightheadedness, orthostatic hypotension, weight loss, tanned skin, and sparse axillary/pubic hair** in a patient with a history of another autoimmune condition (hypoparathyroidism) is highly suggestive of **Addison's disease** (primary adrenal insufficiency), which is most commonly caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands.
- The skin tanning is due to increased **ACTH** (adrenocorticotropic hormone) and **melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)** production as the pituitary tries to compensate for insufficient cortisol from the damaged adrenal glands.
*Enzyme disorder*
- While enzyme disorders can cause chronic symptoms, they typically do not present with the specific combination of **orthostatic hypotension, hyperpigmentation, and sparse secondary sexual hair** seen here.
- This presentation is a classic endocrine pattern, not typically associated with an isolated enzyme deficiency.
*Abdominal neoplasia*
- **Neoplasia** could explain weight loss and fatigue, but it typically doesn't cause **hyperpigmentation** or **sparse secondary sexual hair**, and it's less likely to directly cause **orthostatic hypotension** in this manner.
- The patient's symptoms are more consistent with an endocrine dysfunction rather than a localized abdominal mass effect or paraneoplastic syndrome that would mimic this exact presentation.
*Occult hemorrhage*
- Occult hemorrhage would likely cause **anemia**, leading to fatigue and lightheadedness, and potentially orthostatic changes.
- However, it would not explain the **tanned skin** (hyperpigmentation) or the **loss of axillary/pubic hair**, which are key features pointing to adrenal insufficiency.
*Amyloid deposition*
- Amyloidosis can affect various organs, including the adrenals, leading to adrenal insufficiency and other symptoms like fatigue and weight loss.
- While it's a possibility, **hyperpigmentation** and **sparse axillary/pubic hair** are more characteristic of autoimmune Addison's disease due to the specific hormonal changes (increased ACTH/MSH and decreased adrenal androgens).
Question 203: A 48-year-old woman presents to her family physician for evaluation of increasing shortness of breath. She returned from a trip to China 2 weeks ago and reports fever, myalgias, headaches, and a dry cough for the past week. Over the last 2 days, she has noticed increasingly severe shortness of breath. Her past medical history is non-contributory. The heart rate is 84/min, respiratory rate is 22/min, temperature is 38.0°C (100.4°F), and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. A chest X-ray shows bilateral patchy infiltrates. Laboratory studies show leukopenia. After appropriate implementation of infection prevention and control measures, the patient is hospitalized. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Lopinavir-ritonavir treatment
B. RT-PCR testing (Correct Answer)
C. Supportive therapy and monitoring
D. Remdesivir treatment
E. Systemic corticosteroid administration
Explanation: ***RT-PCR testing***
- The patient presents with **severe acute respiratory illness** with fever, dry cough, progressive dyspnea, bilateral infiltrates, and leukopenia following travel to an endemic area.
- Before initiating specific antiviral or immunomodulatory therapy, **confirming the etiology** is essential through RT-PCR testing for respiratory pathogens (SARS-CoV-2, influenza, RSV, etc.).
- RT-PCR is the **gold standard diagnostic test** for viral respiratory infections, providing rapid, specific identification that guides treatment decisions and infection control measures.
- While the patient is already hospitalized with infection control precautions, **diagnostic confirmation is the priority** before escalating to specific therapies.
*Lopinavir-ritonavir treatment*
- This protease inhibitor combination was studied early in COVID-19 but has been shown to be **ineffective** in multiple randomized trials.
- Initiating empiric antiviral therapy **without diagnostic confirmation** is inappropriate and may delay effective treatment.
- This medication is primarily used for **HIV infection**, not acute respiratory viral illnesses.
*Supportive therapy and monitoring*
- While **supportive care** (oxygen, fluids, monitoring) is crucial and should be ongoing, it is not the specific "next step" being asked for in this question.
- The question seeks the **diagnostic action** needed to guide further management, not the continuation of standard supportive measures.
- Supportive care alone does not provide the etiologic diagnosis necessary for targeted therapy decisions.
*Remdesivir treatment*
- Remdesivir is an antiviral approved for certain hospitalized patients with COVID-19, but it is a **treatment, not a diagnostic step**.
- Administering specific antiviral therapy **before confirming the diagnosis** is premature and potentially inappropriate.
- Treatment decisions should be guided by **confirmed etiology**, patient severity, and evidence-based guidelines.
*Systemic corticosteroid administration*
- Corticosteroids (e.g., dexamethasone) have benefit in **severe COVID-19 requiring oxygen**, but should not be given empirically.
- In other viral infections (e.g., influenza), corticosteroids may be **harmful** and delay viral clearance.
- Diagnosis must be confirmed first to determine if corticosteroid therapy is indicated or contraindicated.
Question 204: A 68-year-old, overweight gentleman with a 20-pack-year history of smoking presents to the primary care physician after noticing multiple blood-stained tissues after coughing attacks in the last month. His vital signs are within normal limits except for an O2 saturation of 93% on room air. He states that over the last 5 years his cough has continued to worsen and has never truly improved. He states that his shortness of breath has also worsened over this time period, as now he can barely make it up the flight of stairs in his home. In this patient, what is the most likely cause of his hemoptysis?
A. Chronic bronchitis
B. Bronchogenic carcinoma (Correct Answer)
C. Lung abscess
D. Acute pulmonary edema
E. Goodpasture's disease
Explanation: ***Bronchogenic carcinoma (Lung cancer)***
- **Hemoptysis in a smoker is lung cancer until proven otherwise** - this is a critical clinical principle in respiratory medicine.
- This patient has major risk factors: **20-pack-year smoking history**, age 68, and chronic progressive symptoms.
- **Hemoptysis** is a common presenting symptom of lung cancer, occurring in 20-50% of patients, caused by tumor invasion of bronchial vessels.
- The **chronic progressive dyspnea** and **worsening cough over 5 years** suggest an evolving mass lesion or bronchial obstruction.
- **Hypoxemia** (O2 sat 93%) indicates significant pulmonary compromise.
- While this patient likely has underlying COPD/chronic bronchitis as a comorbidity, the presence of hemoptysis mandates urgent evaluation for malignancy.
*Chronic bronchitis*
- While this patient likely has chronic bronchitis (a type of COPD) given the smoking history and chronic productive cough, **hemoptysis is NOT a typical feature** of uncomplicated chronic bronchitis.
- Hemoptysis in chronic bronchitis is rare and usually minimal; its presence should prompt investigation for other causes, particularly malignancy.
- Chronic bronchitis explains the dyspnea and chronic cough but does not explain the hemoptysis.
*Lung abscess*
- A lung abscess typically presents with **acute onset of fever**, chills, night sweats, and **foul-smelling purulent sputum**, none of which are mentioned in this case.
- The **chronic, progressive nature over five years** is inconsistent with an acute infectious process.
*Acute pulmonary edema*
- Acute pulmonary edema presents with **sudden onset of severe dyspnea**, orthopnea, and often pink frothy sputum due to acute cardiac decompensation.
- The **gradual progression over five years** rules out an acute cardiac event.
- Vital signs are stable, with no mention of cardiac findings.
*Goodpasture's disease*
- This rare autoimmune disorder causes **pulmonary-renal syndrome** with glomerulonephritis and pulmonary hemorrhage.
- Typically affects younger patients (20s-30s) with acute presentation.
- There are **no renal symptoms** (hematuria, oliguria, elevated creatinine) to suggest this diagnosis.
Question 205: A 44-year-old woman presents to the outpatient clinic after she ran into a minor car accident. She says that she did not see the other car coming from the side and this is not the first time this has happened. When asked about any health issues she expresses concerns about whitish discharge dripping from both of her nipples that soils her blouse often. She is sexually active and has missed her periods for the last 3 months which she attributes to early signs of menopause. She denies nausea, vomiting, or recent weight gain. She currently does not take any medication. A visual field test reveals loss of bilateral temporal vision. Which of the following tests would best aid in diagnosing this patient’s condition?
A. A mammogram
B. Thyroid stimulating hormone levels
C. A urine pregnancy test
D. Serum prolactin levels (Correct Answer)
E. Serum estrogen and progesterone levels
Explanation: ***Serum prolactin levels***
- The patient presents with **galactorrhea** (**whitish nipple discharge**), **amenorrhea** (**missed periods**), and **bitemporal hemianopsia** (**visual field loss**), forming a classic triad suggestive of a **prolactinoma**.
- Measuring **serum prolactin levels** is the most direct and initial diagnostic step to confirm hyperprolactinemia, which is characteristic of prolactinomas.
*A mammogram*
- A mammogram is used to screen for or diagnose **breast cancer** and would not explain the patient's neurological symptoms or amenorrhea.
- While nipple discharge can be a symptom of breast cancer, the **bilateral nature** and co-occurrence with vision changes and amenorrhea point away from this diagnosis.
*Thyroid stimulating hormone levels*
- **Hypothyroidism** can cause irregular periods and even galactorrhea, but it does not typically lead to **bitemporal hemianopsia**, which is a specific neurological sign of pituitary compression.
- While thyroid function should be assessed in cases of menstrual irregularities, it's not the primary test for the constellation of symptoms presented.
*A urine pregnancy test*
- **Pregnancy** can cause amenorrhea and sometimes nipple discharge, but it would not explain the **bitemporal hemianopsia** or the **bilateral galactorrhea** in a non-pregnant state.
- The patient's description of symptoms, including the accidental car incident due to vision issues, makes pregnancy an unlikely sole explanation.
*Serum estrogen and progesterone levels*
- While these hormones are important for reproductive health and would be assessed in cases of **amenorrhea**, they would not directly explain the **galactorrhea** or, more importantly, the **bitemporal hemianopsia**.
- The primary issue here points towards a pituitary mass disrupting both hormonal regulation and optic chiasm function, for which prolactin is the key indicator.
Question 206: An otherwise healthy 31-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a several-day history of sharp, central chest pain, which is constant and unrelated to exertion. The pain gets worse on lying down and decreases with sitting forward. He has smoked 10–15 cigarettes daily for the past 7 years. His blood pressure is 120/50 mm Hg, the pulse is 92/min, and the temperature is 37.1°C (98.7°F). On physical examination, a scratching sound is heard at end-expiration with the patient leaning forward. ECG is shown in the image. Serum troponin is mildly elevated. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bacterial pneumonia
B. Pneumothorax
C. ST-elevation myocardial infarction
D. Acute pericarditis (Correct Answer)
E. Costochondritis
Explanation: ***Acute pericarditis***
- The classic symptoms of **pericarditis** include sharp, central chest pain that **worsens on lying down** and **improves with sitting forward**, along with a **pericardial friction rub** (scratching sound) and **diffuse ST-elevation with PR-depression** on ECG.
- Mildly elevated troponin levels can occur in pericarditis due to associated myocardial inflammation (**myopericarditis**).
*Bacterial pneumonia*
- While pneumonia can cause chest pain, it is typically **pleuritic** (sharp, worsens with breathing) and often accompanied by a **cough, fever, and crackles** on lung auscultation, which are not described.
- ECG findings would not typically include diffuse ST-elevation and PR depression, and the pain relief with sitting forward would be absent.
*Pneumothorax*
- A pneumothorax causes **sudden, sharp chest pain** and **shortness of breath**, often with diminished breath sounds on the affected side.
- The chest pain is not typically positional as described, and ECG findings would not include diffuse ST-elevation.
*ST-elevation myocardial infarction*
- While an MI causes chest pain and ST-elevation, the pain is usually **exertional**, crushing, and radiating, not relieved by sitting forward. The ST elevation is typically **localized to specific coronary territories** and is often associated with reciprocal ST-depression.
- The ECG shows widespread (diffuse) ST elevation and PR depression, which are inconsistent with typical STEMI.
*Costochondritis*
- Costochondritis causes localized chest wall pain that is **tender to palpation** over the costochondral junctions, which is not mentioned in the presentation.
- The pain is not typically positional in the same way as pericarditis, and ECG and troponin findings would be normal.
Question 207: A 27-year-old woman, who recently immigrated from Bangladesh, presents to her primary care physician to discuss birth control. During a review of her past medical history, she reports that as a child she had a recurrent sore throat and fever followed by swollen and aching hip and knee joints. These symptoms returned every season and were never treated but went away on their own only to return with the next typhoon season. When asked about any current complaints, the patient says that she sometimes has shortness of breath and palpitations that do not last long. A physical exam is performed. In which of the auscultation sites will a murmur most likely be heard in this patient?
A. Point 5 (Correct Answer)
B. Point 4
C. Point 2
D. Point 3
E. Point 1
Explanation: ***Point 5***
- The patient's history of recurrent sore throat, fever, and migratory polyarthritis (swollen and aching hip and knee joints) followed by intermittent shortness of breath and palpitations is highly suggestive of **rheumatic fever** with subsequent **rheumatic heart disease**.
- This condition most commonly affects the **mitral valve**, leading to **mitral stenosis** or regurgitation, which would produce an apical murmur heard best at point 5 (the cardiac apex).
*Point 4*
- Point 4 corresponds to the **tricuspid area** (lower left sternal border). While rheumatic heart disease can affect the tricuspid valve, it is less common than mitral valve involvement and usually occurs in conjunction with severe mitral valve disease.
- An isolated murmur here would suggest tricuspid valve pathology, which is less likely as the primary presentation in rheumatic heart disease.
*Point 2*
- Point 2 is the **pulmonic area** (left upper sternal border, second intercostal space). Murmurs heard here typically indicate pulmonary valve disease or flow murmurs.
- While pulmonary hypertension can be a complication of severe left-sided heart disease, primary pulmonic valve involvement in rheumatic heart disease is rare.
*Point 3*
- Point 3 (Erb's point, third intercostal space, left sternal border) is often used to auscultate for murmurs of **aortic regurgitation** or to hear the splitting of S2.
- While aortic valve involvement can occur in rheumatic heart disease, **mitral valve disease** is significantly more prevalent and typically presents earlier and more severely.
*Point 1*
- Point 1 is the **aortic area** (right upper sternal border, second intercostal space). Murmurs heard here are typically associated with **aortic stenosis** or regurgitation.
- Although the aortic valve can be affected by rheumatic heart disease, the mitral valve is the most commonly involved valve, making an apical murmur (Point 5) more likely for the initial and most prominent finding.
Question 208: A 60-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. Over the past year, he has had problems initiating urination and the sensation of incomplete bladder emptying. He has a history of hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 40 years. He does not drink alcohol. His medications include lisinopril, atorvastatin, and daily aspirin. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a pulsatile abdominal mass at the level of the umbilicus and a bruit on auscultation. Digital rectal examination shows a symmetrically enlarged, smooth, firm, nontender prostate with rubbery texture. Laboratory studies are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Prostate biopsy
B. PSA level testing
C. CT scan of the abdomen with contrast
D. Abdominal ultrasonography (Correct Answer)
E. Aortic arteriography
Explanation: ***Abdominal ultrasonography***
- The presence of a **pulsatile abdominal mass** and a **bruit at the umbilicus** in an elderly patient with a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and smoking strongly suggests an **abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)**.
- **Abdominal ultrasonography** is the initial, non-invasive, and cost-effective test of choice for screening, diagnosis, and monitoring of AAA.
*Prostate biopsy*
- While the patient has symptoms of **benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)** and an enlarged prostate on digital rectal examination (DRE), these findings do not indicate an immediate need for biopsy.
- A prostate biopsy is typically performed after an elevated **PSA level** or suspicious findings on DRE suggest prostate cancer, neither of which is present here.
*PSA level testing*
- Although the patient has urinary symptoms suggestive of BPH, his prostate exam describes a **symmetrically enlarged, smooth, firm, nontender prostate with rubbery texture**, which is characteristic of BPH rather than cancer.
- While a PSA test could be part of a routine workup for urinary symptoms, it is not the most appropriate *next step* given the more urgent finding of a suspected AAA.
*CT scan of the abdomen with contrast*
- A **CT scan with contrast** can confirm an AAA and provide detailed anatomical information for surgical planning, but it is typically performed *after* an initial screening with ultrasonography.
- It involves radiation exposure and a contrast agent, making it less suitable as the *initial* diagnostic step compared to ultrasound, especially in an asymptomatic screening scenario when an AAA is merely suspected.
*Aortic arteriography*
- **Aortic arteriography** is an invasive procedure primarily used for detailed visualization of the aorta and its branches, often in preparation for endovascular repair or open surgery.
- It carries risks such as vessel injury, bleeding, and contrast-induced nephropathy, and is not indicated as the initial diagnostic test for a suspected AAA.
Question 209: A 48-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his neighbor, who found him lying unconscious at the door of his house. The patient lives alone and no further history is available. On physical examination, his temperature is 37.2ºC (98.9ºF), pulse rate is 114/min, blood pressure is 116/78 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 22/min. His Glasgow Coma Scale score is 7 and the patient is intubated. A stat serum osmolality is reported at 260 mmol/kg. Based on the provided information, which of the following conditions is most likely present in this patient?
A. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (Correct Answer)
B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
C. Acute ethanol intoxication
D. Central diabetes insipidus
E. Nonketotic hyperosmolar hyperglycemic coma
Explanation: ***Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)***
- The patient's **unconsciousness** and Glasgow Coma Scale of 7 suggest significant neurological impairment. A serum osmolality of **260 mmol/kg** is low, indicating **hypotonicity** which is characteristic of SIADH due to excess water retention.
- While other causes of altered consciousness exist, the combination of **hyponatremia** (implied by low osmolality) and neurological symptoms points strongly towards SIADH, especially in an unknown medical history setting where various conditions can trigger ADH release.
*Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)*
- DKA typically presents with **hyperglycemia**, **acidosis**, and **ketonuria**, which would result in a high serum osmolality, not the low osmolality seen in this patient.
- While DKA can cause altered mental status, the **serum osmolality of 260 mmol/kg** rules it out as the primary cause here.
*Acute ethanol intoxication*
- Acute ethanol intoxication can cause **unconsciousness** and respiratory depression. However, it usually leads to **mild or no change in serum osmolality**, or occasionally a slightly elevated osmolality due to ethanol itself and associated dehydration, not a significantly low value of 260 mmol/kg.
- The physiological changes associated with pure ethanol intoxication do not typically include the marked **hypotonicity** indicated by such a low serum osmolality.
*Central diabetes insipidus*
- Central diabetes insipidus is characterized by an inability to produce ADH, leading to **polyuria**, **polydipsia**, and frequently **hypernatremia** and **high serum osmolality** due to free water loss.
- It would not cause the **hypotonic state** with a serum osmolality of 260 mmol/kg, making it inconsistent with the clinical picture.
*Nonketotic hyperosmolar hyperglycemic coma (NKHHC)*
- NKHHC is characterized by **extreme hyperglycemia** and **severe dehydration**, leading to a much **higher serum osmolality** (typically >320 mOsm/kg) than observed in this patient.
- Although it causes altered mental status, the reported **low serum osmolality of 260 mmol/kg** makes NKHHC an unlikely diagnosis.
Question 210: A 72-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a general checkup. The patient works as a farmer and has no concerns about his health. He has a past medical history of hypertension and obesity. His current medications include lisinopril and metoprolol. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 177/108 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for a murmur after S2 over the left sternal border. The patient demonstrates a stable gait and 5/5 strength in his upper and lower extremities. Which of the following is another possible finding in this patient?
A. Murmur that radiates to the carotids
B. Wedge pressure lower than expected
C. Femoral artery murmur (Correct Answer)
D. Rumbling heard at the cardiac apex
E. Audible click heard at the cardiac apex
Explanation: ***Femoral artery murmur***
- A murmur heard after S2 over the left sternal border in an elderly patient suggests **aortic regurgitation (AR)**.
- In AR, a **femoral artery murmur (Duroziez's sign)** can be heard, characterized by a systolic murmur over the femoral artery with proximal compression and a diastolic murmur with distal compression.
*Murmur that radiates to the carotids*
- A murmur radiating to the carotids is characteristic of **aortic stenosis**, which typically presents as a systolic murmur, not a diastolic one as heard in this patient.
- Aortic stenosis is also associated with a **crescendo-decrescendo murmur**, in contrast to the diastolic murmur described.
*Wedge pressure lower than expected*
- This patient likely has **aortic regurgitation**, which increases **left ventricular end-diastolic pressure** and, consequently, **pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP)**.
- A lower than expected wedge pressure would be inconsistent with the volume overload often seen in significant AR.
*Rumbling heard at the cardiac apex*
- A rumbling murmur at the cardiac apex is characteristic of **mitral stenosis**, which is typically preceded by an opening snap.
- The patient's murmur is heard after S2 (diastolic) at the left sternal border, not the apex, making mitral stenosis less likely.
*Audible click heard at the cardiac apex*
- An audible click at the cardiac apex is typically associated with **mitral valve prolapse**, often followed by a mid-systolic murmur.
- This finding is not consistent with the diastolic murmur heard after S2 at the left sternal border.